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emergency medical training > the final review > Flashcards

the final review Flashcards

1
Q

whats does DSHS stand for

A

department of state health services (texas)

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2
Q

what does emt regulation and certification fall under

A

DOT (department of transportation) and then more specifically the NTHSA national traffic association); NHTSA falls under the DOT

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3
Q

Medical director is also known as

A

medical control, medical direction, they are the medical oversight; the EMT is under their wing

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4
Q

in essence EMT’s are

A

physician extenders with a wide scope of care without direct supervision in emergency situtations; the eyes and ears of the physician (on the ground while physician is in the hospital)

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5
Q

dead is

A

dead

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6
Q

what act allows for a doctor to take an EMT under their wings to work

A

The Medical Practice ACT

(thus the EMT is actually working under the doctor’s licence)

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7
Q

what does the medical director do

A

writes a protocol book to be followed; must partciipate in QA/QI; must ensure that the EMT knows what they are doing

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8
Q

What are the two types of direction

A

on line(direct medical direction)
and off line (indirect medical direction which has a branch that is known as standing orders)

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9
Q

define on line/direct medical direction

A

it’s talking directly to a medical director or agents authorized to give orders for the medical director; is real-time oversight or medical direction provided by a physician to an EMS provider who is seeking immediate feedback or direction that impacts the patient’s care. Direct medical oversight is either on-line or on-scene.

what you can do on consult with the physician

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10
Q

define off line/ indirect medical direction

A

using a book of protocols that give permission to do things without calling the doctor; makes up the majority of the medical director’s responsibilities and activities.
can perform without consulting the physician

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11
Q

define standing orders

A

a branch of off line orders is also known as standing orders which is whenever using a protocol book without calling the doctor

(just remember that standing orders are off line medical control)

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12
Q

MEDICAL DIRECTION RULE- DOCTOR SAYS

A

-what equipment will be on ambulance
- what communication systems will be available
-establish a direct connection to a doctor or agent
- case review
-education program
-systems review

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13
Q

what is QA

A

quality assesment; this is the checking; making sure the product is acceptable; making sure the system is working; identifying the broken links

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14
Q

what is QI

A

quality improvement; this is the fixing; this is the making adjustments when the performance is lacking; making it better or fixing the broken links in the system; Quality improvement (QI), also known as continuous quality improvement (CQI), is a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an emergency medical system. To ensure the public receives the highest quality of prehospital care, the goals of QI are to identify those aspects of the system that can be improved and to implement plans and programs that will remedy any shortcomings.

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15
Q

QA/QI generally refers to

A

a range of activities conduced to assess, analyze, critique, and improve current process of health care deivery in an institutionalized setting

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16
Q

define emergency medical services

A

EMS; medical care is provided to people who become ill or injured

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17
Q

define definitive care

A

final medical treatment needed

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18
Q

define first responder

A

first individual to the scene that is medically certified (RN, DR, EMS, etc)

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19
Q

is a red cross first aid person a first responder

A

no because that is not a regulated profession by the state

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20
Q

what is a tiered system

A

sending what is needed and not all resources right away; just like a fire send the closest station and then call for additional if needed

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21
Q

what are the six levels of pre-hospital providers

A

emergency care attendant (ECA); EMT-B; EMT-I; EMT-P; medical director; Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD)

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22
Q

define emergency care attendant

A

ECA; in texas while other states call this a certified first responder; approximately 80 hour course no rotations; first aide class course; deals with one drug-oxygen); this is more for rural fire departments that are designed to help the people that work on an ambulance;

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23
Q

define emtb

A

about 140 classroom hours and includes rotations; level above eca; about 130-150 hours of training, and about 100 hours of rotations (minimum 40-60); responsible for six drugs as long as they are listed in the protocol

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24
Q

emt-i

A

also known as an advanced emt; must be an EMT before becoming this; not in wide use; 300 classroom hours, 80 hours of rotations, about 20 drugs they are allowed to administer; they learn not just using an AED but also a defibrilator; and essentially they know how to work the first ten minutes of a cardiac arrest/ dead person; the bridge between emt and paramedic and is more available to rural areas as opposed to a metroplex

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25
Q

emt-p

A

the highest level of pre-hospital provider; 400 hours plus (minimum 1000) of classroom instruction; 300-500 hours plus ambulance rotations; and 180 hours plus of hospital rotations; can administer up to 60 drugs

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26
Q

define medical director

A

any doctor (MD/DO)

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27
Q

define emergency medical dispatcher

A

EMD; a 40 hour course for dispatchers to give care and ask questions prior to EMS field arrival

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28
Q

1966 Accidental Death and Disability

A

a study showed that there were large amounts of preventable deaths

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29
Q

1969 initial prehospital course called

A

EMT ambulance

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30
Q

1973 EMS systems act

A

standardized training, DOT training

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31
Q

1989 DOT began most comprehensive revision that was published in

A

1994

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32
Q

in order for states to get federal money for EMS they have to follow about 10 federal goals which are:

A

regulations and policy (they have to have rules in place); resources (start up funding); HR (to protect employees and laws & they also ensure credibility); Transportation (approved ambulances only used); Facilities to transport patient to; Communications systems (radio and 911); Public education programs (don’t smoke in bed, CPR); Medical direction; trauma system in the area; evaluations (QA/QI program); if all are met then federal money can be granted

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33
Q

what are the three types of ambulances

A

BLS unit: basicl life support; basic life saving that needs to be done to get to a higher skill level

ALS Unit: 1emt-i or 1 emt-p and an emt-b; advanced life support; can run cardiac arrest calls for airway and drugs

MICU: mobile intensive care unit; ALS but with 2 emt-p’s; emergency advanced care and treatment can be started; NOTE: TxDSHS only requires one medic onboard to be an MICU but standard if 2 medics

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34
Q

the basic details of a call

A

starts with a patient, then a smart person who recognizes the emergency, EMD is called, dispatches pre-hospital proffesssional (EMT’s), transport to hospital staff (DR, RN,etc), patient is discharged

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35
Q

what is the weakest link in a medical emergency

A

the smart person because if no one makes the call then the other links that are well trained cannot help

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36
Q

define licensure

A

governing body has granted permission to perform

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37
Q

certification

A

agency has granted certification that attests to the accomplishments of a set of requirements

note: texas department of state health services is an agency, how can Texas have licensed paramedics? they are no better than a certified paramedic. who is a better lawyer licensed or board certified? certified is usually more difficult then licensure

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38
Q

what are the three main ways patients call EMS

A

911- speed dial only with no caller ID

enhanced 911- speed dial and caller ID

7 digit- have to call all 7 numbers to get dispatch center

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39
Q

how to communicate:

A

keep radio traffic short but clear, know how communication system works. know what is ok to say and how to say it, use eye contact when talking to a patient, use proper patient name and introduction

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40
Q

Safety is number 1

A

safety to self is the most important , then ensure your crew safety, and then ensure the patient’s safety

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41
Q

are bystanders to the scene the responsibility of an emt

A

no save them for PD but remeber that they can quickly become engrossed in the scene and therefore become patients

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42
Q

what are the other responsibilities of EMS personnel

A
  • to be a patient advocate (do eveything in the patient’s best interest)
  • look good (self-maintenence, have your shirt tucked in, a hair cut/ be well manicured)
  • be/ keep as fit as possible
    -gaining access to a patient
    transporting a patient
  • care for a patient
  • safe driving
  • documentation
    -eat healthy
    -transfer care
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43
Q

define body substance isolation

A

BSI; all people are diseased meat, including the EMT

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44
Q

define personal protection equipment

A

PPE; gloves, glasses, goggles, masks, etc

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45
Q

Safety is the number

A

one role and priority

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46
Q

what do you do if the scene is not safe and cannot be made safe

A

do not enter

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47
Q

when can you enter an unsafe scene

A

if you have the right training and right equipment for that specific scene (equipment to safely a shooting may differ from one to enter a collapsed building therefore you may be able to enter one but not the other)

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48
Q

what are the basic rules for entering a hazmat scene

A

use the emergency response handbook to look up the material, use binoculars to look for placards, stay uphill and up wind

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49
Q

what are the basic rules for entering a violent scene

A

get cops; get good shoes to run in

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50
Q

what are the basic rules for entering a crime scene

A

get cops and preserve the chain of evidence if possible (do not move things unless absolutely necessary)

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51
Q

what are the five emotions when someone is dying or a family member watches someone die

A

1) denial: “not me” “no way”
2) anger: commonly seen in long terms spouses; a lot of times individuals are angry at their religion/ God for allowing the death to occur; “i knew i should not have done that”, “you suck”; most common emotion directed at EMT’s;
3) bargaining: “how can i get out of this?”
4)depression: they are not cutting themselves any slack
5)acceptance: “oh well, don’t let it happen again”; a “deal with it” mentality

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52
Q

family membars can tell an EMT who does not really care and is fake

A

true

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53
Q

what should the EMT do in situations regarding death and a dying family ember in the presence of the family

A

say helpful things, keep requests simple, try to involve the family as much as possible and do not push them away, ALWAYS TELL THE TRUTH and DO NOT GIVE FALSE HOPE; treat them with dignity and respect; don’t talk down to the family as they know what they know more about the loved one because they are living this

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54
Q

define CISD (critical intense stress debriefing)

A

occurs 24-72 hours after an incident; this is for the responders; “it is to prevent the EMS workers that have experienced an incident from blowing their head’s off nine months later”; examples of when one is held are: senseless crimes (rape, spousal abuse),death/abuse to child or elderly, death of a coworker, MCI (oklahoma bombing, world trade center); the meeting is not to place blame on anyone or to make the system better, but to let one’s feeling out/ expressing feelings, and expressing frustrations; the professionals who conduct these meeting are from all arond the county and are other EMT’s, firefighters, Dr’s that have special training; to activate a CISD contact your medical director

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55
Q

How to avoid stress

A

trade shifts, change up your routine, eat healthy, refrain from using alcohol as it only helps short term, excersise, do not smoke, go on a vacation and do not bring your coworkers as you will all end up talking about work instead of resting, get help early on, get sleep (you do not go to a fire station to get sleep)

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56
Q

what is the difference between calling 911 and enhanced 911

A

E911 is a service that allows emergency operators to provide better assistance to people calling 911 from their mobile phones. It provides emergency operators with more specific information about your location and displays your mobile phone number to emergency operators.

automaticly ties a location to the call—whether it’s a specific address or coordinates. If we had to explain enhanced 911 (E911) in five words or less, we’d tell you that it’s location services for 911 calls.

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57
Q

7 digit dialing?

A

7-digit non-emergency telephone number. A non-emergency incident is a property damage accident, break-in to a vehicle when suspect is gone, theft of property (when suspect is gone), vandalism (when suspect is gone), panhandlers, intoxicated persons who are not disorderly, or cars blocking the street or alleys.

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58
Q

MI

A

myocardial infarction

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59
Q

does ems do SOP (standard operating procedure)

A

no we use a protocol book

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60
Q

special comters

A

1)burns
2) trauma
3) pedi
1-cardiac
2- stroke

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61
Q

when coming into contact with a patient and they have a dog assume

A

that it is dangerous

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62
Q

when taking care of patients with pets assume that

A

all animals are dangerous

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63
Q

what is an example of a tiered system

A

if there is a car accident the bls responding to the cal gets the lowest injured person

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64
Q

if you don’t need an iv what type of call is it

A

a bls call

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65
Q

can a paramedic work any ambulance

A

yes and they can do so without special training

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66
Q

what is the basis of what might happen once the patient enters the hospital

A

they see the insurence, tech, lab, RN, DR (not for a very long time)

67
Q

what are the two divisions of hospital care

A

prehospital (prior to transport) and hospital (after transport)

68
Q

ECA, EMT, AEMT, Medic can work in prehospital and hospital care while nurses not certified as we are can only perform hospital care regardless of being better trained or having more experience

A

true

69
Q

flight nurse

A

5 years of paramedic experience and extra emergency training

70
Q

why is thick skin needed in ems particularly in situations of the death and dying

A

emt’s are more susceptible to being lashed out as

71
Q

syphilis is contracted from

A

goat sheep sex

72
Q

a practice to maintain in having thick skin is to

A

have what is being told to you, particularly anything harsh, go in one ear and out of the other

73
Q

what are the three types of stress ems professionals might deal with

A

1- acute stress: short term stress; things are going so fast you feel like you can’t make a decision
2- chronic stress: long term stress; burnout
3- ptsd: what you have seen has traumatized you (nightmares, concentration struggles)

74
Q

myo

A

means muscle

75
Q

true or false: most patients will lie to you

A

true

76
Q

senseless crime such as elderly and child abuse and murders are more difficult to handle the thought process afterwards because

A

it could have been prevented; the situation may be seen as what a waste of life

77
Q

the death of a cowoker might sting diferently because

A

you realize that that could have very well been you

78
Q

why do CISD happen 24-72 hours later

A

because one must process their grief

79
Q

on a call who is typically one to pronouce a patient dead

A

the most seasoned medic

80
Q

often in CISD the crew

A

makes a decision to pull out and helps spouses and family help you

81
Q

in texas do ambulances carry dead bodies

A

no only coroners do, if you do put a dead body in the box then your ambulance is out of service as you have now turned it into a crime scene without having actually committed a crime; the only exception to this rule is in rural areas

82
Q

in rooms where an individual has died they cannot be moved until the coroner comes and the scene is cleared; what is the exception to this rule

A

you are allowed to move a dead body if it is in the way of you saving someone else

83
Q

what does it mean to be a patient advocate

A

to do everything for them that is in their best interest

84
Q

why must you document everything

A

to cover yourself and for better and more specific continuity of care

85
Q

why are ballcaps a no in ems

A

they block peripheral view only use if outside in the heat for a long time

86
Q

define CE

A

continuing education; you need 72 hours of CE in 4 years to renew your certification within the state; participate in qa and qi

87
Q

BSI require PPE and for us to treat the patient as

A

diseased and we want for them to treat us like that too

88
Q

n95 mask is a

A

respirator, if a patient were to have covid we would wear one and put a surgical mask on the patient incase they spit and cough is it prevents the spread

89
Q

varciella is

A

chicken pox

90
Q

in quality improvement the emt’s role is to

A

Document carefully: Carefully and thoroughly document each call. Prehospital care reports that you prepare are studied by QI committees to spot things such as excessive response times, which might be remedied by redeploying ambulances, or to identify seldom-used skills for refresher training.

Perform reviews and audits: Become involved in the QI process by volunteering for QI committee work or by critiquing the performance of other EMTs at the scene of a call.

Obtain feedback: Gather feedback from patients, other EMS personnel, and hospital staff. This may be done formally through surveys distributed to patients and hospital staff members or informally by seeking advice about your performance after a call from physicians, nurses, or other medical personnel.

Maintain equipment: Conduct preventative maintenance on equipment and ensure it is in proper working order.

Participate in continuing education: Participate in refresher courses and continuing education to reinforce, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.

Maintain skills: It is important to continuously practice your skills to a level of mastery.

91
Q

what are the moments that put a patient at risk while they are in our care

A

Transfer of care or “hand-off” at the scene between emergency responders or between medical personnel at the medical facility
Poor communication that leads to misunderstandings and medical errors
Carrying and moving patients in a manner that puts them at risk for being dropped
Involvement in an ambulance crash while transporting the patient to a medical facility
Lack of spinal immobilization or improper spinal immobilization procedures that increase the risk of converting a stable spinal column injury into an unstable spinal column injury, or improper immobilization that exacerbates an existing injury
errors

92
Q

what do you need to remember when putting your patient in the recovery position

A

Be sure to place the patient on the side so that you can easily monitor the airway. Also, be careful not to allow excessive pressure on the chest that might impair the breathing status of the patient. To avoid possible injury from impaired blood flow to the lower arm, turn the patient to the opposite side if he is in the recovery position for greater than 30 minutes.

93
Q

angle of louis

A

angle of Louis. STERNAL ANGLE or MANUBRIOSTERNAL JOINT. This is the manubriosternal joint and is at the level between the bodies of thoracic vertebrae 4 and 5. It is an important landmark as it is where the costal cartilage of rib 2, the first rib that can be palpated, joins the sternum; This angle of Louis is a synarthrosis, a type of joint characterized as a fibrous connection between two bones (the manubrium and the sternal body in the case of the angle of Louis) which does not allow any significant movement.

94
Q

the body systems are

A

he body systems are the musculoskeletal, respiratory, circulatory, nervous, endocrine, integumentary, digestive, urinary (or renal), and the male and female reproductive systems.

95
Q

musculoskeletal system

A

the system of bones and muscle, and connective tissue that provides support and protection to the body and permits motion

96
Q

the skeleton is held together by

A

ligaments, tendons, connective tissues, and layers of muscles

97
Q

ligaments

A

connect bone to bone

98
Q

tendons

A

connect muscle to bone

99
Q

what are the four functions of the skeletal system

A

give the body its shape, protect the vital internal organs, allow for movement, stores minerals and produces blood cells

100
Q

what are the six basic components or the skeletal system

A

the skull, spinal column, thorax, pelvis, and the upper and lower extremities

101
Q

what classify the adult bones

A

size and shape (long, short, flat, irregular)

102
Q

the skull

A

rests at the top of the spinal column and houses and protects the brain. It has two parts: the cranium and the face.

103
Q

cranium

A

forms the top, back, and sides of the skull plus the forehead.

The interlocking bones of the cranium—the occipital, two parietal, two temporal, and the frontal—are typical flat bones. The outer layer of the cranium is thick and tough. The inner layer is thinner and more brittle. Though this arrangement provides for maximum strength, lightness, and elasticity, the cranium can still be fractured. The brain is commonly lacerated by the bony projections and ridges on the anterior and inferior surfaces of the skull. Impact also can bruise the brain and cause it to bleed and swell. Because the cranium cannot expand, bleeding and swelling increase pressure within the brain and may compress brain tissue, causing it to malfunction and possibly die which can lead to unresponsiveness or death.

104
Q

the mandible

A

(lower jaw) moves freely on hinge joints. Shaped like a horseshoe, it is the largest and strongest bone of the face.

105
Q

the spinal or vertebral column

A

which has a great deal of mobility, is made up of irregularly shaped blocks of bone called vertebrae.

106
Q

damage to the spinal cord versus damage to the spinal column

A

Damage to the spinal cord will typically produce a loss of sensation or movement distal to the injury, whereas an injury to the spinal column (vertebrae) will usually produce only pain.

107
Q

apnea

A

absence of breathing

108
Q

croup

A

infection of the area below the level of the vocal cords usually caused by a virus and has a seal cough to it

109
Q

lividity

A

pooling of the blood in the lower parts of the body after death

110
Q

febrile seizure

A

a seizure relating to a fever/ being caused by one

111
Q

epiglottitis

A

infection of the small tissue in the area above the level of the vocal cords with drooling

112
Q

meconium

A

a dark green fluid in the amniotic sac of the newborn that can cause lung disease

113
Q

meningitis

A

inflammation of the meninges that cover the spinal cord and the brain

114
Q

nares

A

the external openings of the nostrils

115
Q

postictal state

A

the period immediately following a seizure characterized by extreme tiredness or listlessness

116
Q

rales

A

a crackling breath sound caused by the flow of air through liquid in the lungs

117
Q

rigor mortis

A

stiffening of the body after death

118
Q

status epilepticus

A

The term used to describe a continuous seizure, or multiple seizures without a return to consciousness for 30 minutes or more.

119
Q

stridor

A

a high pitched breath sound that is heard on inhalation and is a sign of upper airway obstruction

120
Q

SIDS

A

sudden infant death syndrome; death of an infant or young child that remains unexplained after a complete autopsy

121
Q

a child with burned feet is likely also

A

a case of child abuse

122
Q

6-12 years of age; this patient begins to act like an adult; can answer direct questions; likes to do a task and complete

A

school age child

123
Q

birth to one year of age; responds to physical stimuli; crying is one of their main avenues of communication

A

infant

124
Q

3-6 years of age; imagination is a big thing; they think their injury is their fault; use a toy or game to treat this patient

A

preschool age child

125
Q

12-18 years of age; decision making and privacy is a huge thing

A

adolescent

126
Q

1-3 years of age; beginning to explore and walk around; injuries are frequent; stranger anxiety develops; treat and let them be comfortable

A

the toddler

127
Q

intervebral disk

A

Between each two vertebrae is a fluid-filled pad of tough elastic cartilage called the intervertebral disk. The intervertebral disks act as shock absorbers and allow for movement of the spine. The disks are extremely susceptible to injury from twisting, grinding, or improper lifting of heavy objects.

128
Q

cervical spine

A

Cervical spine, C1–C7 (neck). The first seven vertebrae form the cervical spine, which is the most prone to injury.

129
Q

thoracic spine

A

T1–T12 (upper back). The 12 thoracic vertebrae that are directly inferior to the cervical spine form the upper back. The 12 pairs of thoracic ribs are attached to the spine posteriorly and help support the vertebrae.

130
Q

lumbar spine

A

L1–L5 (lower back). The next five vertebrae form the lower back; they are the least mobile of the vertebrae. Most lower-back injuries involve muscles, not vertebrae.

131
Q

sacral spine

A

S1–S5 (back wall of the pelvis). The next five vertebrae are fused together to form the rigid part of the posterior side of the pelvis, which is also called the sacrum.

132
Q

coccyx

A

(tailbone). The last four vertebrae are fused together and do not have the protrusions characteristic of the other vertebrae.

133
Q

Condyloid joint.

A

This is a modified ball-and-socket joint that permits limited motion in two directions. In the wrist, for example, it allows the hand to move up and down and side to side, but not to rotate completely.

134
Q

sadde joint

A

This joint is shaped to permit combinations of limited movements along perpendicular planes. For example, the ankle allows the foot to turn inward slightly as it moves up and down.

135
Q

gliding joint

A

The simplest movement between bones occurs in a gliding joint, where one bone slides across another to the point where surrounding structures restrict the motion. Gliding joints connect the small bones in the hands and the feet.

136
Q

pivot joint

A

This type of joint allows for a turning motion; it includes the joints between the head and neck at the first and second cervical vertebrae and those in the wrist

137
Q

hinge joint

A

Hinged joints (such as those in the elbow, knee, and finger) permit flexion and extension. Elbow joints have forward movement (the anterior bone surfaces approach each other), whereas knee joints have backward movement (the posterior bone surfaces approach each other).

138
Q

ball and socket joint

A

This type of joint permits the widest range of motion—flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation. Examples: joints at the shoulders and hips.

139
Q

fracture

A

loss of continuity in the structure of the bone; When a fracture to a bone occurs, the sharp fragments may injure surrounding tissue, such as nerves, vessels, and connective tissue. However, it is important to note that bones are also living tissue and have a rich blood supply. If a bone is fractured, the vessels within the bone may be torn or ruptured (Figure 7-16). This sometimes leads to severe bleeding from the bone itself rather than from the surrounding vessels or tissue.

140
Q

what are the three main kinds of mucles

A

There are three kinds of muscle: skeletal (voluntary), smooth (involuntary), and cardiac muscle

141
Q

skeletal muscles

A

Under the control of the brain and nervous system, skeletal muscle, or voluntary muscle, can be contracted and relaxed by will of the individual. This type of muscle makes possible all deliberate movement, such as walking, chewing, swallowing, smiling, frowning, talking, or moving the eyeballs. It forms the major muscle mass of the body, helps to shape it, and forms its walls.

142
Q

smooth muscle

A

Smooth muscle, or involuntary muscle, is made up of large fibers that carry out the automatic muscular functions of the body through rhythmic, wavelike movements. For example, smooth muscles move blood through the veins, bile from the gallbladder, and food through the digestive tract. The individual has no direct control over this type of muscle, though it responds to stimuli such as stretching, heat, and cold

143
Q

cardiac muscle

A

Found only in the walls of the heart, cardiac muscle is a special kind of involuntary muscle particularly suited for the work of the heart. It has the property of automaticity. That is, it can generate an impulse on its own, even when disconnected from the central nervous system; although it is smooth like smooth muscle but striated (stringlike) like skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is made up of a cellular meshwork that is unlike either smooth or skeletal muscle. It has its own blood supply, furnished by the coronary artery system, and it cannot tolerate interruption of the blood supply for even very short periods.

144
Q

the basic functions of the respiratory system are

A

Respiration
Ventilation
Oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide
Serving as a buffer to maintain a normal acid–base balance

145
Q

what are the structures of the upper airway

A

Nares (nostrils) and nasal cavity
Mouth and oral cavity
Pharynx
Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx (hypopharynx)
Larynx
The upper airway ends at the level of the cricoid cartilage, the ring that forms the most inferior portion of the larynx.

146
Q

what are the structures of the lower airway

A

trachea, broncholes, bronchioles, alveoli

147
Q

surfactant in the alveoli

A

There is a thin layer of fluid lining the alveoli that contains fat and protein molecules called surfactant. This lining reduces the surface tension of the alveoli, which greatly decreases the tendency of the lungs to collapse. If surfactant is reduced in the lungs, the lungs will have a greater tendency to collapse. This is seen in premature babies born prior to the adequate development of surfactant. They are not able to breathe adequately because the lungs collapse after each breath, making it extremely difficult for the newborn to try to re-expand them with each breath. Because it is so difficult for these babies to breathe, they fail very quickly, making their breathing ineffective. Another condition in which surfactant is reduced is drowning. The water aspirated into the lungs is absorbed across the alveoli and into the capillaries. This tends to wash out the surfactant in the alveoli, causing the lungs to collapse. Again, this makes it extremely difficult for the patient to breathe effectively.

148
Q

what is the most commonly fracured bone in multsystems trauma

A

the clavicle

149
Q

where does the blue thermometer go

A

in the mouth

150
Q

where does the red thermometer go

A

in the rectum

151
Q

if a burn is the size of a fist then it is also the size of a

A

palm

152
Q

what is the most common wart on the bottom of your foot called

A

a plantar wart

153
Q

when does whiplash occur

A

when you have a sudden acceleration of the head and the head starts to extend all the way back except that is not how it was meant to move, thus something has to give because according to physics your body can’t just stop ike that thus hyperextension occurs and your head is being whipped past its usual point

154
Q

anterior

A

the frontside of the body

155
Q

posterior

A

the backside of the body

156
Q

midine

A

the line down from the middle of the body (nasal bone to umbilici to cynthisis pubis)

157
Q

midline seperates the body into

A

right and left sides

158
Q

midclavicular

A

lines parallel and on top of the nipple

159
Q

midaxilary

A

its like the midline except located directly on your side in the middle right under your armpits; if a man is stabbed more to the front of his body but not in the front then that is referred to as anterior axillary; stabbed in the middle of my depth then that is midaxillary

160
Q

what is the anatomical position

A

how we should always view a patient when treating them; standing erect arms to the side and palms facing up

161
Q

the terms adduction and abduction are used whenever

A

describing movement

162
Q

adducition

A

bringing into the body; you are adding it to the body; medial

163
Q

abduction

A

lateral; you are bringing it away from the body;

164
Q
A

emergency medical training (4 decks)

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