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AeroCourse ATPL > SARON Specific Questions > Flashcards

SARON Specific Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Time of useful consciousness at 40,000 feet?

A

15-30secs

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2
Q

Airspeed drops to zero in climb, what happened?

A

Pitot blocked but pitot drain is clear

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3
Q

How many NM can you fly over water without lift preserver?

A

Max 50nm

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4
Q

What might a pilot do if they are successful in a risky situation?

A

They tend to discount the bad condition

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5
Q

The speed for the critical engine failure is?

A

V1

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6
Q

ATPL medical expired yesterday, your license will change to…

A

PPL License

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7
Q

Buffet boundary limits

A

0.744-0.800 MACH

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8
Q

The max wind for the CRFI is _____.

A

20 kts

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9
Q

Carbon Monoxide fact - You need several days to recover from C02 poisoning.

A
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10
Q

Type II and Type IV de-icing fluid requirement?

A

Restricted for aircraft Rotate Speed ≧ 100kts.

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11
Q

Define hold over time of deicing fluids.

A

Holdover time is calculated as beginning at the start of the final application of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and as expiring when the fluid is no longer effective.

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12
Q

What does the Mach meter calculate?

A

The ratio between aircraft speed (TAS) to local sound speed.

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13
Q

Under SVFR, whose responsibility is it to avoid an obstacle?

A

The Pilot

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14
Q

ATC clearance and instruction for（）is based on: “Known aircraft only”

A
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15
Q

Cockpit safety belt rules?​​

A
  • At least one pilot should have it on during flight.
  • Shoulder harnesses on below 10,000’
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16
Q

Can you take off with fuel gauges broken?

A

Yes, you can take-off providing you have company Operation Manual and MEL

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17
Q

Compression sickness.

A

Nitrogen gas form in tissues.

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18
Q

A/C in high control airspace with CODE: 2000 and mode C.

A
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19
Q

At an uncontrolled airport with no ground station, what frequency should you use?

A

ATF 123.2

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20
Q

Take-off run distance + Stop way = _________.

A

ASDA ( Accelerate-stop distance available).

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21
Q

We should file a flight plan in the Arctic Area above _____.

A

FL270 (controlled)

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22
Q

When holding short, a large A/C overshoots, tower then reports you’re cleared for take off. What do you do?

A

Delay take off, tell ATC why can’t accept.

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23
Q

Max holding speed for a turbojet at FL190

A

265kts

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24
Q

What is the Max speed when A/C below 3000 AGL within 10 NM of a towered airport?

A

200kts

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25
Q

Flight duty time: after 2 consecutive days of 14hr duty, can you accept another 14hr duty?

A

Yes, if 24hr rest following that.

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26
Q

Class C control zone changes to _____ when the tower is not operational.

A

Class E Controlled Airspace.

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27
Q

CARs require that pilot should carry - A copy of the Company Operational Manual

A
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28
Q

Take off and landing in a built up area is only allowed at?

A

Airport, heliport or a military aerodrome.

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29
Q

In a turbofan - All or part of the fan air bypass compressor mixed with exhaust.

A
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30
Q

Thunderstorm Avoidance Distances

A
  • 5nm - when flying below the freezing level
  • 10nm - when flying above the freezing level
  • 20nm - when TS is reported to be severe
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31
Q

What are the classifications of a Large Aircraft?

A

5,700kg / 12,566 lbs

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32
Q

What affect does the black whole illusion have on an approach?

A

Approach Low.

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33
Q

Smokers are more prone to Hypoxia, because….

A

CO2 stops O² from getting in the blood (do not choose “all of the above”).

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34
Q

The time for IFR protection in the event of a com failure is _____.

A

30 mins

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35
Q

What are the night takeoff and landing requirements to take passengers at night?

A

5 T/O and LDG in last 6 Months.

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36
Q

T/O and LDG requirements to be a crew member on an aircraft?

A

3 T/O and LDG in 90 days.

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37
Q

What is an advantage of the thunderstorm detector

A

Can get detect weather on the other side of mountainous areas.

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38
Q

High altitude training is needed for what altitudes?

A

Above 13,000 ASL

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39
Q

An aircraft without an Altitude Alert System can do the following flights.

A
  • Training flight
  • Test flight
  • PPC
  • Delivery for maintenance flight
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40
Q
A
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41
Q

Flight in Class F Advisory Airspace

A

There are no specific restrictions that apply to the use of class F advisory airspace. VFR aircraft are, however, encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless participating in the activity taking place therein. If necessary, pilots of non- participating flights may enter advisory areas at their own discretion; however, due to the nature of the aerial activity, extra vigilance is recommended. Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.

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42
Q

An external flight control lock for an A/C must have…

A

An unmistakable warning to the pilot that control lock is engaged.

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43
Q

The purpose of compressor bleed is…

A

to prevent compress stall or surge at LOW RPM.

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44
Q

What is the anti-skid used for?

A

When speed decelerate rapidly

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45
Q

When an approach involves a headwind to a calm-wind shear, the pilot should…

A

Increase power as the shear is encountered, then reduce.

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46
Q

An ATPL licensed pilot can be PIC for any aircraft providing the pilot has…

A

Instrument rating and endorsement for the type of aircraft

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47
Q

What is V2 speed?

A

Take off safety speed of multi-engine aircraft

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48
Q

A CPL pilot wants to do his X/C flight, he has strong intention to do VFR, what’s going to happen?

A

He will just consider the good weather that supports the flight and ignore the bad weather.

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49
Q

What’s the effect of frost formed on the wing, 0.10-0.15 inch?

A

No significant effect to the lift but significant effect on the climb performance.

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50
Q

When can you use a phone in flight?

A

com failure with no other way to communicate

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51
Q

What’s the reporting procedure for IFR into an uncontrolled airport in uncontrolled airspace?

A

Report 5mins before commencing the approach.

52
Q

IFR to uncontrolled airport in uncontrolled airspace, broadcast on 126.7 before change into MF

A
53
Q

When conducting an approach at an uncontrolled airport, you need to inform ATC of the type of approach, the landing runway and _______.

A

your course to the IAF

54
Q

IFR flight plan in day VFR conditions experiences a com failure.

A

Continue in VFR flight and land at the nearest suitable airport.

55
Q

What type of flight plan is required for a flight from Canada to Mexico?

A

An International Flight Plan

56
Q

Aircraft registered in a foreign state that want to operate in Canada must do so in accordance with the laws of that foreign state

A
57
Q

Where an authorization has been issued pursuant to subsection 203.03(2) in respect of an aircraft registered in a foreign state, the Canadian lessee shall ensure that the aircraft conforms with all applicable airworthiness directives.

A
58
Q

How often do pilots need dangerous good training?

A

Every 24 months

59
Q

You’re flying at FL160 in the Northern Domestic Area and want to climb to FL220, you should broadcast intentions on ____.

A

126.7

60
Q

Leaving South Control Area at FL290, what airspace will you enter?

A

North Control Area

61
Q

At Standard Pressure Region, when should you set altimeter to current altimeter setting?

A

Before descent for landing.

62
Q

Who can extend for an unforeseeable delay?

A

The pilot-in-command, after consultation with the other flight crew members. As long as the PIC considers it safe to exceed the maximum flight time and flight duty time.

63
Q

What prevents reverse prop pitch in the air?

A

Hydro-mechanical low pitch stop.

64
Q

IFR is required at _____ to _____.

A

FL180 to FL600.

65
Q

Class B Airspace Dimensions

A

12,501 to 17,999

66
Q

RVSM Altitudes from 000°-179° are ___ to ___.

RVSM Altitudes from 180°-359° are ___ to ___.

A

RVSM 000°-179° = FL290 FL410

RVSM 180°-359° = FL300 FL400

67
Q

Slave compass = Directional Gyro with remote compass.

A
68
Q

Radar Altimeter distance is…

A

From the earth.

69
Q

Propeller overspeed procedure…

A

Reduce throttle and reduce airspeed.

70
Q

What kind of A/C required CVR(cockpit voice recorder)?

A

Aircraft built after 1991 with 10 or more pax.

71
Q

Tail plane stall symbol = Stall at high speed.

A
72
Q

Transport category aircraft with life jackets

A

······400NM 120min····

73
Q

Vra

A

Rough air speed (the recommended speed for flight in turbulence).

74
Q

Vb

A

Design speed for maximum gust intensity.

75
Q

What are the ATPL medical requirements for a pilot who is 40 years old?

A
  • Medical every 6 months
  • ECG every year
  • An audiogram at 55yrs or as required
76
Q

ELT testing procedure

A

The first 5 mins of every UTC hour, not longer than 5 secs.

77
Q

Find max range for different Flight levels. Answer is FL310 SGR=0.28

A
78
Q

Review PAPI Lighting

A
79
Q

Review VASI Lighting

A
80
Q

3 BAR VASI system, upper and middle wind bars are for what type of aircraft?

A

Large a/c with more than 25 feet eye to wheel height

81
Q

The movement area includes…

A

TAXIWAY, RUNWAY, APRON.

82
Q

ADIZ report time and distance?

A

5 mins within 20NM.

83
Q

How long must you wait to fly after local anaesthesia?

A

24hrs

84
Q

During an approach on glide slope with a 45 kts headwind you experience a change to 5 kts. What power changes should you make?

A

Add power, then decrease.

85
Q

During an ILS approach, your headwind changes to a tailwind, what power changes should you make?

A

add power, increase, decrease

86
Q

IFR aircraft approaching an uncontrolled MF airdrome must…

A

Report before entry.

87
Q

Can you fly through a Class F, CYR?

A

Yes, if prior permission has been obtained from the controlling authority

88
Q

In CMNPS airspace, north/south tracks shall report over fixed reporting lines with each ____of Latitude

A

5˚

89
Q

As airflow passes through a shock wave, pressure ______ , temperature _____ , and velocity ______ .

A

increase, increases, decreases

90
Q

What will happen to N1 during a hung start?

A

N1 will not increase to low idle speed

91
Q

In a free turbine, the turbine drives the prop through a reduction gear.

A
92
Q

An aircraft’s standby (or third) turn & bank indicator must provide a minimum ____ mins of reliable operation following failure of the aircraft’s electrical generator system.

A

30mins

93
Q

What is a disadvantage of the sweep back wing design?

A

Dutch roll

94
Q

What’s the procedure if you encounter wind shear during takeoff?

A

Set full power, Increase angle of attack, Stick shaker.

95
Q

Illusion created by snow sweep across the airport.

A

relative motion

96
Q

Landing techniques (high speed).

A

Touch down as soon as possible, apply max brake

97
Q

RVR 1/2 mile = ______ft.

A

2600ft

98
Q

Proceeding an ATC clearance and instruction, the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility to avoid other traffic.

A
99
Q

Dihedral

A
  • creates a sideslip in the direction of the dropping wing
  • downgoing wing has a greater angle of attack than the upgoing wing, creating more lift on the downgoing wing.
  • lateral stability
100
Q

Effect of hypoxia at night?

A

Hypoxia reduces night vision

101
Q

If the cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder are both unserviceable (and without MEL). How long can you fly?

A

90days

102
Q

ARCAL procedure for an approach?

A

Activate ARCAL before the approach and landing even if the lights are already on.

103
Q

What is the function of a slot?

A

Increase air flow at higher angles of attack

104
Q

RVSM equipped aircraft: must have….

A

2 independent altimeters

105
Q

Before entering RVSM, equipment failed, pilot should…

A

obtain a new clearance.

106
Q

An a/c flying IFR within mountainous regions shall be flown at an altitude at least ____feet above the highest obstacle within ___NM.

A

2000 feet and 5nm

107
Q

Pilot elementary maintenance work must be trained by the operator

A
108
Q

Commuter & airline ELT malfunction, up to 10 days, you don’t need ELT if the flight is to the destination to repair or reinstall the ELT

A
109
Q

Smoke evacuation procedure?

A

O2 switch to 100% O2

110
Q

Which type of jet engine has less fuel consumption at max thrust?

A

high bypass

111
Q
A
112
Q

Trim setting for a giving W&B: 6.75

A
113
Q

During decent, you maintain 450kt TAS: MACH will ______, and IAS will ______.

A

decrease, increase

114
Q

Delivery of dangerous goods is carried out in accordance with the company’s operating manual

A
115
Q

Ear and sinus pain is because of…

A

trapped gas expansion

116
Q

Overshoot into IMC, what illusion?

A

False climb illusion, causing pilot to want to lower the nose.

117
Q

1000 above MEA at mountain in cold WX

A
118
Q

Turbine engine hot start when…

A

EGT is over the limitation

119
Q

MF radio calls for a departure flight?

A
  • before taxi
  • moving onto the runway
  • departing the circuit
120
Q

There are two altimeters on the ground within 30’ of each other. Can you fly RVSM?

A

Yes, because the limit is 75’ difference between the two altimeters.

121
Q

What frequency is used for air to air communication in the NAT MNPS?

A

123.45

122
Q

What does the over pressure relief valve do?

A

It prevents the pressure differential from exceeding structural limits.

123
Q

Fuel Weight Measurement System

A
  • Adjusts for temp and pressure automatically
  • Remains accurate throughout all phases of flight
124
Q

What is touchdown protection?

A

Means no breaking right after touchdown so wheels can get up to a reference speed for the anti-skid system to work.

125
Q

What is lock wheel or crossover protection?

A

The ability of the anti-skid computer to take a reference speed from another wheel in the event that it loses a reference speed.

126
Q

Winglets ____ induced drag and ____ form drag.

A

reduce, increase

127
Q

Eye to wheel height of 12 feet - Look for P2 in the CFS.

A

AeroCourse ATPL (7 decks)

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