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RADT 251 - Advanced Imaging Modalities > 251 Final Review > Flashcards

251 Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

In venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied:

A

superior to site of puncture

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2
Q

The vein used most often for intravenous administration of contrast media is the:

A

medial cubital

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3
Q

The purpose of placing your index finger above the injection site and the thumb below is to:

A

secure the vein from rolling

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4
Q

While selecting the site for insertion, the R.T. should keep which of the following in mind:

A

locate a straight portion of an accessible vein

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5
Q

A result from a collection of contrast media beneath the skin due to a puncture in the vein wall is called:

A

extravasation

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6
Q

Contrast media should be checked a minimum of ____ times prior to administering to a patient.

A

3

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7
Q

The needle should always be inserted at the puncture site with the:

A

bevel side upward

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8
Q

Before administering a test amount of contrast, the RT should first make sure to:

A

Remove the tourniquet

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9
Q

When inserting the needle, it most commonly will enter the skin at a:

A

25-35 degree angle

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10
Q

After contrast media administration, the patient experiences dyspnea and laryngeal swelling. This type of reaction would require which of the following interventions?

A

medication

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11
Q

After contrast media administration, the patient experiences simple uticaria and tingling of the finger tips. This type of reaction would be considered which of the following types of reaction?

A

minor

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12
Q

After removing the needle, pressure should be applied on the site of the needle insertion for a minumum of:

A

3 minutes

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13
Q

To avoid an air embolism and before inserting a butterfly or attaching an IV tubing to a catheter, the R.T. must do which of the following?

A

flush contrast through tubing to end

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14
Q

To avoid blood from gushing out the end of the catheter end after insertion, the R.T. must do which of the following?

A

apply pressure with one finger at tip while holding catheter in place with other fingers

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15
Q

Before performing venipuncture, the R.T. should know or obtain information about the patient, which of the following is not necessary?

A

prior episodes of cystitis

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16
Q

Before administering contrast media, the R.T should check laboratory results to ensure the patient has normal kidney function. The creatinine results should be within what range?

A

.6- 1.2

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17
Q

Especially in an outpatient facility, the RT should always ensure which if the following prior to administering contrast media?

A

a physician with ALS is within close proximity

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18
Q

Once the contrast filled syringe and needle or catheter is in place and the vein is accessible, the R.T. should administer:

A

1 cc of contrast and then evaluate site

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19
Q

Which of the following agents is best and most often used to clean the site prior to inserting the needle?

A

alcohol

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20
Q

The proper way to clean the site of insertion is by wiping _______.

A

from center out medially to laterally

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21
Q

The three dimensional volume of tissue corresponding to a picture elements is called a:

A

voxel

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22
Q

After use, an imaging plate is:

A

Erased

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23
Q

An advantage of direct-capture digital radiography is:

A

No loss of resolution from converting analog to digital data

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24
Q

The annotation for identification of the patient’s left or right side ______.

A

Should be used in conjunction with the technologist’s markers

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25
Q

Automatic rescaling means that images are manipulated and produced, regardless of the amount of exposure, with ______.

A

Uniform contrast and density

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26
Q

A wider window width increases the range of densities and, therefore:

A

Lowers contrast

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27
Q

Digital imaging systems that have built in area detectors are referred to as:

A

direct digital imaging

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28
Q

When an image reader is unable to detect image exposure borders (collimated field) as a result of misalignment to image receptor borders, which of the following occurs?

A

The reader reads all information outside the borders creating an unacceptable image

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29
Q

Contrast enhancement post processing works by:

A

Manipulating the gray-scale values of pixels in the image

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30
Q

In order to convert analog signals to digital, a CCD is required. T / F

A

True

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31
Q

The active element in a CR imaging plate storage phosphor is ______.

A

barium fluorohalide

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32
Q

DICOM is a standard that allows the CPU to communicate to input devices T / F

A

False

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33
Q

Digital image data is acquired through:

A

direct-capture digital sensors

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34
Q

The term used in digital imaging to indicate the exposure latitude (range) is ______.

A

dynamic range

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35
Q

How dark or light a digital image appears on a display monitor is known as:

A

image brightness

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36
Q

“Dose creep” is a phenomena that has occurred with digital imaging technology. Dose creep refers to:

A

Gradual increase in patient exposure by RT over time caused by depending on rescaling to correct for errors in an attempt to reduce image noise and repeat exposures

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37
Q

Each pixel in a digital image:

A

Is the smallest picture element and has one gray-scale value

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38
Q

Digital filtering enhances the contrast resolution of a digital image by:

A

reassigning an average gray scale value to each pixel according to its neighbor’s value

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39
Q

Exposure indicators for flat-panel detectors are determined by how much radiation reaches the detector elements or as a result of the histogram analysis. T / F

A

True

40
Q

High pass filtering removes all frequencies, but ___________ to improve edge enhancement of a digital image.

A

High frequencies

41
Q

Computers store and display visible images in columns and rows possessing depth, each of these cells is called a:

A

voxel

42
Q

Digital imaging programs are set with predetermined image quality factors that change the appearance of the image automatically after exposure. This process of modification is called:

A

rescaling

43
Q

Image noise make a digital image appear:

A

grainy

44
Q

Imaging plates are composed of:

A

Photostimulable phosphors

45
Q

As the intensity received on an area detector increases, the density value of the pixel will decrease. T / F

A

False

46
Q

In digital radiography, the computer can correct for an exposure error:

A

Up to 50% too high or too low

47
Q

In direct capture radiography, the active matrix array of thin-film transistors (TFTs):

A

Is part of the image receptor that stores the values of individual pixels

48
Q

A system’s ability to respond to varying levels of exposure, resulting in more detail, is referred to as:

A

dynamic range

49
Q

Failure of the reader to find the collimation edges of an image ______.

A

May cause the image to be too bright or too dark

50
Q

ROM is the memory storage where information that is not immediately needed is placed and cannot be edited. T / F

A

True

51
Q

The higher the sampling frequency (of reader), the more information is extracted from the image receptor thus higher resolution. T / F

A

True

52
Q

Digital imaging requires specialized software that inform the CPU what to do with the incoming data according to very specific set of instructions called:

A

algorithms

53
Q

The ability of an imaging system to demonstrate small details of an object is known as:

A

spatial resolution

54
Q

The S Number exposure indicator used by Fugi, Konica and Philips maintains what type of relationship with the actual radiation exposure received by the image receptor/ detector?

A

inverse

55
Q

The visibility of small structures can be enhanced by:

A

Edge enhancement

56
Q

In order to increase contrast resolution of the soft tissue structures of the mediastinum of the chest to better visualize small fine detailed structures, the image can be manipulated by:

A

increasing the window level and decreasing window width

57
Q

If a PSP plate is processed using the wrong anatomical menu, what could happen?

A

the EI number might display improperly

58
Q

Quality Control can be best defined as:

A

A set of tests or tools that measure equipment performance

59
Q

Quality Assurance can be best defined as:

A

A management responsibility to assess safe and proper performance

60
Q

Testing to check mA linearity is a component of which of the following activities?

A

quality control

61
Q

Measuring the satisfaction of physicians receiving electronic reports within 24 hours of procedures completed is a part of:

A

quality management

62
Q

Which of the following areas of the radiographic imaging chain should be routinely checked through quality control to ensure safe and proper operation?

A

grid uniformity
laser printer calibration

63
Q

The department administrator is responsible for which of the following activities?

A

creating quality assessment plan

64
Q

When assessing the operation and integrity of view boxes, an R.T. should evaluate:

A

all

65
Q

To test the congruency of the collimator light or collimator alignment, an R.T. would perform which of the following tests:

A

nine penny test

66
Q

The collimator light should identify exactly where the non-visible x-ray field will fall, however the collimator light can be off center by no more than:

A

2% of the SID

67
Q

Reciprocity testing measures:

A

mas values at different ma and time stations

68
Q

MA linearity testing can measure:

A

the doubling effect of mA stations

69
Q

When testing viewboxes for light intensity, a photometer measures the light emanating from the surface of the viewbox cover. What is the preferred light intensity?

A

500 candelas

70
Q

The spin top test can be used to measure:

A

rectifier performance
timer accuracy

71
Q

If an R.T. does not have the access to a sensitometer, the R.T. could use which of the following devices to make a reproducible sensitometric image every day?

A

penetrometer

72
Q

Quality Improvement programs include quality assurance, quality control and:

A

evaluation and improvement of all clinical processes

73
Q

In addition to quality control, quality assurance includes:

A

education and training
preventative maintenance
equipment specifications

74
Q

When calculating the contrast index, it is the difference between the step closest to 2.2 but not over and the step closest to _______ but not under.

A

.45

75
Q

Another term used to describe the alignment between two devices, such as grid and tabletop is:

A

congruency

76
Q

Sensitometric testing for a chemical processor is best performed:

A

before the first case

77
Q

When inspecting the integrity of a portable unit, the R.T. must check:

A

the high tension cables
electrical shock potential

78
Q

Exposure rate should be within ___% of other imaging rooms.

A

10

79
Q

Testing to check kV accuracy must not deviate more than ____%.

A

5

80
Q

Which of the following test tools measure film/ screen contact of a cassette ?

A

wire mesh

81
Q

As part of the imaging chain, tomographic units must be evaluated quarterly to ensure tomographic plane height. T / F

A

False

82
Q

A Wisconsin test cassette is used to measure mA linearity. T / F

A

False

83
Q

A densitometer creates a consistent finished image used in sensitometry. T / F

A

False

84
Q

KV Accuracy testing should be conducted quarterly. T / F

A

False

85
Q

A slit/pinhole camera test tool is used to evaluate:

A

focal spot size

86
Q

To measure half value layer of inherent filtration effects on an x-ray tube, an R.T. would:

A

Place dosimeter on the table and make multiple exposures using various thicknesses of filtration

87
Q

According to the law, radiation output measures for radiographic units must be done only after repairs. T / F

A

False

88
Q

To ensure that the results of quality control testing are accurate the densitometer should be calibrated within ______ % of its original settings.

A

1 %

89
Q

Repeat Image analysis provides information about:

A

individual technical performance
equipment problems
understanding exposure factor issues

90
Q

Laser printers should undergo quality control checks:

A

quarterly

91
Q

If the speed (MD) is 1.10 and on Day 6, while the speed index is 1.28. It is acceptable. T / F

A

False

92
Q

Exposure timers greater than .01 seconds should be calibrated so they are within +/- ______% of its intended value.

A

5 %

93
Q

The star pattern test tool is used to measure the accuracy and integrity of:

A

resolution

94
Q

When testing the perpendicularity of the beam alignment, it should be within ____ degree(s) of perpendicular.

A

1 degrees

95
Q

If you were testing 60 kV and the test indicates 54 kV, it is acceptable. T / F

A

False

96
Q

If the radiation output of room 1 was .65 mR, at 50 kV, 5 mAs at 40 inches and using the same exposure in room 2 resulted in a radiation output of .71, the reproducibility is acceptable. T / F

A

True

RADT 251 - Advanced Imaging Modalities (4 decks)

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