Economics Flashcards

1
Q

Define normative statement.

A

Subjective statements that contain value judgement, and can not be tested by empirical means.

Eg. The government should increase minimum wage to improve the standard of living.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define value judgement.

A

This type of judgement cannot be tested. This judgement is based off that person’s opinion or values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define positive statement.

A

Objective statements that can be tested by emprical means.Eg. The current unemployment rate is 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain what is meant by the ‘basic economic problem’.

A

The basic economic problem states that there are infinite wants in society, but only a small and finite amount of scarce resources are available to satisfy those wants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define ceteris paribus.

A

Assuming all other variables are equal. This helps economic assumptions as unlike hypothesis tests in natural sciences, it isn’t possible to keep an invariant control variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

State the four factors of production.

A

• Land: Natural resources used in the production of goods and services• Labour: Effort exerted by individuals in the production process, including the skills, abilities, and time they contribute• Capital: Goods that have the potential to generate additional goods or contribute to the production process, eg. machinery• Enterprise: Risk-taking abilities of individuals who manage business ventures and drive economic productivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between the long-run and the short-run in economics?

A

The short run refers to a period of time during which at least one factor of production is fixed, while the long run represents a timeframe in which all of the factors of production can be adjusted or varied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three major assumptions made in all (free-market) economic models?

A
  1. Rational Decision-Making by Consumers: Assumes that consumers make choices that maximise their utility or satisfaction.2. Rational Decision-Making by Producers: Assumes that producers aim to maximise their profits.3. Rational Decision-Making by Government: Assumes that the govenment seeks to maximise social welfare.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the drawbacks to the three major assumptions made about consumers, producers and the government?

A

They include unrealistic assumptions, information limitations, behavioral biases, external factors, and the dynamic nature of real-world conditions - such as • Behavioural biases in consumer behaviour• Non-profit and charitable organisations.• Corrupted governments and politicians.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the difference in economic ideologies between Adam Smith, Karl Marx and Friedrich Hayek regarding the efficient allocation of scarce resources.

A

Adam Smith advocated for free markets and the invisible hand, Marx supported central planning and collective ownership, while Hayek emphasized decentralized decision-making and market competition as means to efficiently allocate scarce resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What economic concepts does the Production Possibilities Frontier display?

A

• Opportunity cost: Favouring the production of one good has an opportunity cost of not being able to produce as much of another good• Scarcity: Downward slope of the PPF, indicating limited resources compared to the potential production of goods or services, necessitating trade-offs in resource allocation.• Allocative efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is it not possible to produce beyond the PPF curve?

A

The PPF represents the maximum potential output given the available resources, technology, and production efficiency, indicating the limits a firm, or economy’s maximum productive capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is it possible to shift a PPF curve outwards?

A

Advancements in technology, increase in availability of resources, increased investment into capital goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define opportunity cost.

A

Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why may consumers not behave rationally?

A

Consumers may not behave rationally due to factors like limited information, cognitive biases, emotional influences, time constraints, social pressures, and individual preferences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a command economy, provide one advantage and disadvantage.

A

A command economy is an economic system in which the government owns all of the factors of production.• Advantage: Maximum welfare, low unemployment and minimal income inequality• Disadvantage: Lack of innovation, risk-taking and efficiency (no incentive for profits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a free-market economy, provide one advantage and disadvantage.

A

A free-market economic is an economic system in which there is no government intervention in the production of goods and services, allowing only the forces of supply and demand to allocate resources.• Advantage: Greater allocative efficiency since firmshave the incentive to produce goods in the most efficient way• Disadvantage: Monopolies may emerge as a result of no government intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is meant by specialisation and division of labour?

A

Specialization refers to the focus of individuals, firms, or regions on specific tasks while division of labor involves breaking down the production process into separate tasks performed by different individuals to increase efficiency and productivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who founded the idea of the specialisation and division of labour?

A

Adam Smith founded the ideology of specialisation and division of labour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Provide two advantages and two disadvantages to the specialisation and division of labour.

A

• Advantage: Lower unit costs as workers become more skilled at their jobs –> Internal economies of scale• Advantage: Increased efficiency and greater productivity• Disadvantage: Boredem due to repetitiveness can cause a decline in productivity• Disadvantage: Dependency on others areas of production - if one part of process is disrupted, this can lead to a fail in the supply chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the four functions of money?

A

• Medium of Exchange: Money serves as a widely accepted means of payment, facilitating transactions by acting as a medium for exchanging goods and services.• Measure of Value: Money provides a standardized measure of the worth or value of goods, services, and assets, allowing for comparisons and pricing.• Store of Value: Money allows individuals to store and preserve wealth over time, maintaining its value for future use and preventing loss of purchasing power.• Standard of Deferred Payment: Money serves as a reference point for settling debts and fulfilling financial obligations at a later time, establishing a standard for credit transactions and contractual agreements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define market demand.

A

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given price level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain what is meant by the law of diminishing marginal utility.

A

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as the consumption of a good or service increases, the additional satisfaction or benefit derived from each additional unit gradually decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain what is meant by a derived demand, with an example?

A

Derived demand refers to the demand for a good or service that arises from the demand for another good or service, typically linked in the production process or as complementary goods.Eg. Steel demand in the construction industry is derived from the demand for new buildings and infrastructure projects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain what is meant by a composite demand, with an example?

A

Composite demand refers to a situation where a good or resource is demanded for multiple uses or purposes, making it challenging to allocate resources effectively between different uses. Eg. Sugar is demanded by both the food industry, and the beverage industry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the shifters of demand?

A

• Population: Higher population, moredemand• Incomes: Higher incomes, more demand• Related goods: Price of compliments and substitutes• Advertisements: Increase in brand loyalty, more demand• Tastes: If preferences shift toward product, more demand• Expectation: Speculation on future price changes• Season: Dependent on time of year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why is there an inverse association between price and quantity demanded?

A

The law of demand states that higher prices discourage consumption, leading to a lower quantity demanded, while lower prices incentivize consumption, resulting in a higher quantity demanded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Outline three factors that affect the price elasticity of demand.

A

• Availability of susbsititutes: Lots of substitutes = Elastic demand• Percentage of income spent on good: Large proportion = Elastic, Small proportion = Inelastic• Necessity: Addictive = Highly inelastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define price elasticity of demand.

A

Price elasticity of supply is defined as the responsivess of quantity demanded following a change in price.PED = (Δ%Qd)/(Δ%P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the impact on total revenue if the price of a good who’s PED is inelastic is increased?

A

Total revenue will increase, as the decrease in quantity demanded is proportionately smaller than the increase in price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the impact on total revenue if the price of a good who’s PED is elastic is increased?

A

Total revenue will decrease, as the decrease in quantity demanded is proportionately larger than the increase in price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Provide an example of a good with a relatively elastic demand, and a good with a relatively inelastic demand.

A

• Elastic: Clothing• Inelastic: Petrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define market supply.

A

The quantity of a good or service that suppliers are willing and able to produce at a given price level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the shifters of supply

A

• Productivity: Higher productivity, more supply• Indirect taxes: More taxes = Lower costs of production, more supply• Number of firms in industry: More firms, more supply• Technological advancements: Better technology, more supply• Subsidies: More subsidies, more supply• Weather: (only applicable for agriculture and housing industry). Better weather = more supply• Costs of production: Lower costs of production = more supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Explain what is meant by a joint supply?

A

Joint supply refers to a situation in which the production of one good results in the simultaneous production or availability of another good as a byproduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why is there a positive association between price and quantity supplied?

A

The law of supply states that higher prices encourage production, leading to a higher quantity supplied, while lower prices disincentivize production, resulting in a lower quantity supplied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define price elasticity of supply.

A

Price elasticity of supply is defined as the responsivess of quantity supplied following a change in price.PED = (Δ%Qs)/(Δ%P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Outline three factors that affect the price elasticity of supply.

A

• Availability of resources: Greater availability, more elastic• Production time lag: Low time lag, more elastic• Mobility of factors of production: More mobile factors, more elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why is supply price inelastic in the short run?

A

Supply price is inelastic in the short run due to limited production capacity and constraints in adjusting inputs promptly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Provide an example of a good with a relatively elastic supply, and a good with a relatively inelastic supply.

A

• Elastic: Sports car• Inelastic: Housing in UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define income elasticity of demand.

A

The responsiveness of demand to a change in income.YED = (Δ%Qd)/(Δ%Y)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a normal good, and why is their income elasticity of demand positive?

A

A normal good is a good whose demand increases as incomes rise. This means their YED = +/+ = Positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Provide an example of a normal good.

A

Clothing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a luxury good?

A

A good which is not essential for survival, such as a sports car, and its YED > 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Provide an example of an inferior good.

A

Off-brand food products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an inferior good, and why is their income elasticity of demand negative?

A

An inferior good is a good whose demand falls as incomes rise. This means their YED = -/+ = Negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define cross elasticity of demand.

A

The responsiveness in the quantity demanded of good A following a change in price of good BXED = (Δ%Qd(A))/(Δ%P(B))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Two goods have a positive cross elasticity of demand, this means that they are…

A

Substitutes - a rise in price of good A leads to an increase in demand for good B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Two goods have a negative cross elasticity of demand, this means that they are…

A

Complements - a rise in price of good A leads to a decrease in demand for good B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Explain Adam Smith’s theory of the invisible hand.

A

Describes the unseen forces of self-interest that impact the free market for the most optimal level of resource allocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Explain the functions of the free-market price mechanism.

A
  1. Signals to producers that prices are too high/low22. Incentivises producers to increase/decrease prices3. Rations excess supply and demand4. Allocation of scarce resources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Explain how the price mechanism reduces excess demand.

A
  1. Excess queueing, waiting lists and competition between buyers to purchase good (Signal is sent to producers that prices are too low)2. Higher price and make more revenue and profit (Incentive sent to producers)3. Extension in supply, contraction in demand - market has re-established equilibrium (Excess demand is rationed away)4. Resources reallocated at the free-market equilibrium, where there is no excess supply or demand.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Explain how the price mechanism reduces excess supply.

A
  1. Excess unsold stocks on shelves (Signal is sent to producers that prices are too high)2. Lower price and make more revenue and profit (Incentive sent to producers)3. Contraction in supply, extension in demand - market has re-established equilibrium (Excess supply is rationed between consumers)4. Resources reallocated at the free-market equilibrium, where there is no excess supply or demand.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define consumer surplus.

A

The difference between the price that consumers are willing and able to pay, and the price they actually pay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Define producer surplus.

A

The difference between the price at which producers are willing and able to sell a good or service and the price they actually receive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Explain the difference between partial and complete market failure.

A

Partial market failure occurs when the forces of supply and demand fail to efficicently allocate resources, while complete market failure refers to the total absence of goods or services provision by markets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Define externality.

A

An externality occurs when the production or consumption of a good or service has unintended consequences on a third party for which no compensation or payment is made in the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Define external costs and benefits. (MEC / MEB)

A

External costs (MEC) are negative consequences or expenses imposed on society due to an economic activity, with the responsible party not bearing the full cost. External benefits (MEB) are positive effects or advantages experienced by others or society from an economic activity, with the responsible party not providing the full benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define private costs and benefits (MPC / MPB)

A

Private costs (MPC) are the expenses that a person or firm pays in order to buy, or produce goods and servicesPrivate benefits (MPB) are the benefit derived by an individual or firm directly involved in a transaction as either buyer or seller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Define social costs and benefits (MSC / MSB)

A

Social costs (MSC) refer to the total expenses or negative consequences borne by society as a whole due to an economic activity, including both private costs and external costs. MSC = MPC + MEC.Social benefits (MSB) are the overall advantages or positive outcomes received by society as a whole from an economic activity. MSB = MPB + MEB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does it mean to internalise an externality?

A

To ensure that the costs or benefits associated with an economic activity are accounted for by the parties involved in the transaction, rather than being externalized towards society.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Define merit good with an example.

A

Merit goods are goods or services that provide positive externalities of consumption (external benefits to society, leading to social welfare gain), and are often underprovided by the free-market, such as the National Health Service (NHS) in the UK, which provides essential healthcare services to the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Define demerit good with an example.

A

Demerit goods are goods or services that provide negative externalities of consumption (external costs to society, leading to social welfare loss), and are typically overprovided by the market, such as alcohol, which can lead to health issues, addiction, and social problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why is the social-optimal level of output not equal to the free-market equilibrium for all merit and demerit goods and services?

A

The free-market does not consider the full social costs or benefits of merit and demerit goods. Positive externalities of merit goods are underproduced due to undervaluation, while negative externalities of demerit goods result in overproduction. Government intervention is necessary to align market outcomes with the socially optimal level of output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the triangle of deadweight loss / net social welfare loss?

A

The triangle of net social welfare loss represents the inefficiency and loss of overall societal welfare when the quantity of a good or service produced and consumed deviates from the socially optimal level due to externalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which direction does the triangle of net social welfare loss point towards.

A

The social optimum level of output, where MSC = MSB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Define public good with an example.

A

A public good is a good or service that is non-excludable and non-rivalrous, meaning that its use by one individual does not diminish its availability to others. An example of a public good is street lighting, as it benefits the entire community and cannot be easily restricted or used up by one person’s consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Define quasi-public good.

A

A good or service that possesses characteristics of both public and private goods, exhibiting partial rivalry or partial excludability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is meant by the ‘free rider problem’?

A

Where individuals benefit from a public good without contributing to its production or funding, taking advantage of the fact that the consumption of the good cannot be restricted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Define information failure.

A

Where one, or both parties of a transaction possesses incomplete, inaccurate, or asymmetric information, leading to suboptimal decision-making and market inefficiencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is meant by asymmetric information.

A

Where one party in an economic transaction has more information or knowledge than the other party, creating an imbalance in the information available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Define government intervention.

A

Government intervention refers to the actions taken by the government to regulate economic activities in order to correct market failures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Define indirect tax.

A

A tax levied on spending rather than directly on income, profit or commission, typically imposed at the point of production, sale, or consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the difference between ad valorem and excise duty, give 3 examples of each.

A

An Ad valorem tax is a tax levied as a percentage of the price of the good or service, while excise duty is a set amount of tax imposed on goods and services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Why do ad valorem supply curves diverge from the original supply curve?

A

Tax imposed as a percentage of the product’s price increases the cost of production for suppliers, leading to a higher price required for suppliers to be willing to produce the same quantity, resulting in a diverging shift of the supply curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the advantages to indirect tax intervention?

A

• Generates fiscal dividends for the government which can be reinvested into public infrastructure and development• Market failure corrected as the external cost of negative externalities is internalised• Behaviour changes can be made if indirect taxes are imposed, discourage consumption of demerit goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the disadvantages to indirect tax intervention?

A

• Regressive impact on those on lower incomes• May encourage black-market activity• Can cause cost-push inflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why are indirect taxes considered to be regressive?

A

They tend to impose a proportionately higher burden on lower-income individuals or households compared to higher-income individuals, as the tax burden represents a larger share of their income.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How do you determine the distribution of tax burden between consumers and producers on a supply and demand analysis?

A

Top rectangle represents incidence of indirext taxation on consumers. If demand is inelastic, burden of tax will fall mainly on consumers.Bottom rectangle represents incidence of indirext taxation on producers. If demand is elastic, burden of tax will fall mainly on producers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Evaluative statements for effectiveness of indirect tax intervention.

A

• Magnitude of the tax (hard to determine)• Price elasticity of demand/supply• Workers may lose their jobs, firms may shut down or migrate to a different nation• Consumers may switch to untaxed substitutes• Black markets can reduce the total tax revenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Define subsidy.

A

A government grant to firms producing merit goods, which aims to reduce production costs and encourages an increase in output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the advantages to subsidy intervention?

A

• Market failure corrected, level of production increased to match social optimum.• Can incentivise research and development• Has the potential to create job opportunities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the disadvantages to subsidy intervention?

A

• Can pose as a budgetary burden on the government• Firms may become overly dependent on the subsidy• Can discourage innovation and efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How do you determine the distribution of subsidy benefit between consumers and producers on a supply and demand analysis?

A

Top rectangle represents benefit of subsidy on producers. If demand is inelastic, benefit of subsidy will fall mainly on consumers.Bottom rectangle represents benefits of subsidy on consumers. If demand is elastic, benefit of subsidy will fall mainly on producers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Evaluative statements for effectiveness of subsidy intervention.

A

• Magnitude of the subsidy (hard to determine)• Price elasticity of demand/supply• Opportunity cost - can the money be better used elsewhere• Dependence/reliance on subsidy• Producers may not pass down the benefit of the subsidy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Explain the concept of tradable pollution permits.

A

Tradable pollution permits are market-based instruments that set a limit on pollution and allow entities to buy, sell, or trade permits, incentivising pollution reduction and the efficient allocation of emissions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the advantages to tradable pollution permits?

A

• Government gains revenue from selling permits and fining firms who exceed their pollution quotas• Incentivises investment into greener technology (economic sustainability)• Guaranteed that pollution will fall because supply of limits is perfectly inelastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the disadvantages to tradable pollution permits?

A

• Can be costly to monitor (government failure if costs are greater than benefits)• Difficult to determine how many tradable permits should be sold• Raises costs for firms, causing higher prices for consumers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the advantages to maximum and minimum prices?

A

• Protects markets from externalities • Maximum prices can protect consumers from price exploitation by ensuring that essential goods remain affordable• Minimum prices ensure that producers receive a fair return on their investments• Reduced market price volatility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the disadvantages to maximum and minimum prices?

A

• Distortion to price signals and causes excess supply or excess demand• Difficult to determine where to set prices• Can lead to the creation of black markets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the advantages to market regulation?

A

• Consumer protection from exploitation and fraud• Regulation policy prevents monopolistic competition• Can achieve public interest and social objectives by addressing externalitise and other sources of market failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the disadvantages to market regulation?

A
  • Monitoring firms for the compliance of passed regulation and laws can be costly - fiscal opportunity cost
  • Excessive regulation can reduce competition and allocative efficiency in markets by increasing bureaucracy and reducing innovation
  • Costs may be passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the advantages to state provision of public goods?

A

• Market failures such as non-excludability and non-rivalry corrected as the free-market is not willing to provide public goods• Reduces inequality and improves standards of living• Ensures the stability and security of a nation (ie. nuclear defense system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the disadvantages to state provision of public goods?

A

• Free-rider problem• Potential inefficiencies may arise as there is a lack of innovation and competition• Risk of monopoly power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the advantages to information provision?

A

• Helps consumers act more rationally, causing market to work in favour society• Improved decision-making in markets• Can incentivise firms to produce, stimulating growth• Public health and safety (ie. effects of smoking)• Empowerment of consumers as there is less information asymmetry between parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the disadvantages to information provision?

A

• Can be costly to enforce information provision• The government may not possess perfect information themselves• Consumers may behave irrationally, or follow behavioural and cultural biases instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Define government failure.

A

When the costs of government intervention outweigh the benefits intended by the action, can lead to a misallocation of scarce resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Define government bureaucracy.

A

Government bureaucracy refers to the administrative officials within a government that are responsible for implementing policies, regulations, and public services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Define regulatory capture.

A

Regulatory capture refers to a form of political corruption in which regulatory agencies, tasked with protecting public interest, become influenced or controlled by the industries or entities they are supposed to regulate, leading to biased or ineffective regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Why may government failure occur?

A
  1. Imperfect information2. Red tape effect3. Costs of regulating and monitoring4. Costs of administrating5. Regulatory capture6. Time lags from time of intervention to time of effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Provide 3 examples of government failure by unintended consequences.

A
  1. Minimum wage laws intended to improve workers’ welfare may lead to job losses and reduced employment opportunities, particularly for low-skilled workers.2. Price controls imposed to make goods more affordable can result in shortages and black markets as suppliers are disincentivized to produce and distribute the goods at artificially low prices.3. Agricultural subsidies aimed at supporting farmers and ensuring food security may distort market incentives, leading to overproduction, environmental harm, and inefficient allocation of resources.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Explain how GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is calculated.

A

Sum of the total value of all goods and services produced within an economy during one year. GDP = C + I + G + (X-M)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Discuss GDP’s limitations in evaluating standards of living within an economy

A

GDP does not consider several key factors such as:• Where the wealth is stored, ie. income inequality• Environmental sustainability• Access to, and the provision of public/merit goods such as healthcare• Economic and price stability• Availability of credit, education opportunities and basic necessities (such as water, food and energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Describe what is meant by GNI (Gross National Income)

A

The total income earned by a country’s residents, including both domestic, and international sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What may be a better depiction of standards of living within an economy?

A

GDP per capita, or Gross National Happiness (GNH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Define Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).

A

A comparison of the relative purchasing power of different currencies by equalizing the prices of a basket of goods and services across countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Give an example of when Purchasing Power Parity may be useful.

A

Used for accurate international comparison of living standards and economic indicators like GDP between countries with different currencies, and price levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Discuss the various components within the circular flow of income model.

A
  1. Households: Pay firms for goods and services.2. Firms: Pay households for human capital/labour.3. Governments: Collect tax revenue from both households and firms; Pay firms to buy goods and services; Pay welfare benefits to households.4. Financial Sector: Collect savings, Pay withdrawals5. Other Nations: Collect imports, Pay for exports.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Give 3 examples of withdrawals, and injections into an economy.

A

Withdrawals:• Savings• Imports• TaxationInjections:• Withdrawals• Exports• Government spending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is depicted on the economic cycle?

A

Depicts fluctuations in economic activity over time, involving periods of boom (positive output gap) and recession (negative output gap).Trend rate of GDP growth (on the PPF) is the economy’s productive potential.Actual rate of GDP growth is the economy’s current position in terms of economic activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What factors have the potential to cause long-run economic growth?

A

• Technological advancements and innovation.• Investment in physical and human capital.• Improvements in education and skilled workforce.• Access to financial resources and credit• Infrastructure development• Research and development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the main benefits of economic growth?

A
  • Lower levels of unemployment
  • Higher nominal incomes –> Higher standards of living
  • Greater fiscal dividends (tax revenue) for the Government to reinvest back into providing higher quality public services
  • Attractive to foreign investors looking to start-up in the UK
  • More production in the economy –> More exports, leads to higher competitiveness in the global trade market
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the main negative consequences of economic growth?

A

• High likelihood of demand-pull inflation• Environmental degradation and resource depletion• Increased carbon emissions leading to climate change• Mental health and social issues - workers forced to work longer hours than they would like• Economic instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What factors affect the level of Consumption within an economy?

A

• Disposable income: Higher levels of income generally lead to increased consumption.• Consumer confidence• Interest rates: Lower interest rates can incentivize borrowing and increase consumption.• Availability of credit: Easy access to credit can facilitate higher levels of consumption.• Wealth and asset prices: Rising asset prices, such as housing or stock market values, can boost consumer spending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What factors affect the level of consumer confidence within an economy?

A

• Unemployment rates and level of price stability• Value of consumer assets and house prices• Standards of living• Average incomes• Consumer expectations (anticipations of future economic growth and/or job opportunities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How do you calculate the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)?

A

MPC is calculated as the change in consumption divided by the change in disposable income.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Discuss what is meant by a multiplier effect.

A

When an initial injection of money into the economy leads to a proportionately larger final increase in AD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Discuss what is meant by a ‘positive wealth effect’?

A

A psychological phenomenon stating that when asset values rise, this makes individuals feel wealthier, leading to increased spending and a boost in overall consumption and economic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What factors affect the level of Investment within an economy?

A

• Availability of credit and financing• Business confidence• Level of economic growth• Interest rates• Value of privately owned assets• Foreign demand for exports• Technological advancements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What factors affect the level of business confidence within an economy?

A

• Availability of credit and financing• Unemployment rates and level of price stability• Level of economic growth• Interest rates• Competition within markets and market demand• Availability of commodities/resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Discuss what is meant by an accelerator effect.

A

When changes in investment spending have a magnified impact on the level of economic output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Define animal spirits.

A

Keynesian ideology stating that psychological factors driving economic behavior and decision-making. Factors such as confidence, optimism, risk-taking, and herd mentality can influence individuals and businesses in their economic choices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How do you calculate the Marginal Propensity to Withdraw (MPW)?

A

MPS + MPT + MPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How do you calculate the spending multiplier co-efficient in an economy?

A

1 / 1-MPC = 1/MPW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is a credit crunch?

A

A credit crunch is a sudden reduction in credit availability, leading to restricted borrowing and higher borrowing costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Describe the factors that can cause a credit crunch.

A

• A financial crisis• Banking system instability• Excessive lending and borrowing• A decline in asset values• Loss of confidence in the economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Define economically active.

A

Individuals who are either employed or actively seeking employment, indicating their participation in the labor market and their willingness and ability to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Define unemployment

A

Proportion of economically active individuals within an economy who are willing and able to work but can not find a job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Define cyclical unemployment

A

Unemployment resulting from fluctuations in the business cycle and economic downturns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Define frictional unemployment

A

Unemployment resulting from the time taken for individuals to switch jobs or find new employment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Define structural unemployment

A

Unemployment arising from reduced or eliminated jobs and skills mismatch in the labor market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Define seasonal unemployment

A

Unemployment that occurs due to predictable, temporary fluctuations in demand for labor during certain seasons or specific times of the year, such as agricultural or tourism-related industries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Define real-wage unemployment

A

Unemployment caused by wages being set above the equilibrium level, resulting in a surplus of labor, as employers are unwilling or unable to hire workers at the prevailing wage rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Define hysteresis.

A

Hysteresis occurs when a temporary shock or disturbance to an economy leads to lasting or permanent changes in variables such as employment, output, or productivity, preventing a return to the previous state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the difference between those who are economically active, and those who are employed in a job?

A

Economically active individuals are those who are either employed or actively seeking employment, employed have a job or are engaged in work, regardless of their level of economic activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the benefits to using the claimant count to measure the rate of unemployment?

A

• Claimant count data is often available on a monthly basis, providing more timely information about the state of unemployment compared to other measures.• Relies on existing administrative records, making it a relatively cost-effective and efficient way to estimate unemployment rates• Provides a consistent measure over time, allowing for meaningful comparisons and analysis of trends in unemployment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the drawbacks to using the claimant count to measure the rate of unemployment?

A

• Excludes individuals who are unemployed but not eligible for, or not claiming benefits• Some individuals may choose not to claim benefits due to the stigma associated with unemployment or personal reasons• Includes individuals who voluntarily leave their jobs, making it difficult to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary unemployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are the benefits to using the Labour Force Survey (LFS) to measure the rate of unemployment?

A

• Captures a wide range of demographic and labor market information, providing a comprehensive view of the workforce beyond just those eligible for unemployment benefits.• Uses rigorous sampling techniques to ensure the data represents diverse groups and regions accurately• Collects detailed data on employment status, occupation, industry, and hours worked• Regularly conducted, the LFS enables tracking of trends over time, providing valuable insights into changes in employment rates, workforce participation, and unemployment dynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What are the drawbacks to using the Labour Force Survey (LFS) to measure the rate of unemployment?

A

• Sample may not fully represent the entire population, leading to potential inaccuracies, especially for smaller subgroups or localized areas• Voluntary responses in the LFS can introduce response bias, because certain individuals may be more or less likely to participate• LFS is conducted less frequently than administrative data sources, limiting the timeliness of the information provided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is meant by underemployment, and how can this have negative impacts on the economy?

A

Underemployment refers to workers who are employed in jobs that do not fully utilize their skills, or work desired working hours. This reduces productivity, dampens economic growth, and leads to wasted human capital, resulting in lower income levels, decreased consumer spending, and overall economic inefficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the impact of high unemployment rates on individuals?

A

High unemployment rates can result in financial stress, reduced well-being, career setbacks, social isolation, and negative health consequences for individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the impact of high unemployment rates on firms?

A

High unemployment rates can lead to reduced consumer spending, lower production and output, decreased business investment and increased market competitiveness, so wages decrease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the impact of high unemployment rates on the Government?

A

High unemployment rates increase government spending on social welfare programs while reducing tax revenue, causing a fiscal deficit to become worsened.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the impact of high unemployment rates on the trade balance?

A

High unemployment has the potential to improve the net trade balance. Low levels of productive output, leading to less net exports, leading to a worsening of the net trade balance.It can also be argued that high unemployment rates can contribute to a decrease in imported goods due to reduced domestic demand, resulting in an improvement in the trade balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Define inflation

A

The sustained rise in general price level over a given time period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Define Consumer Price Index (CPI).

A

A newer measure of inflation, monitors the change in the price level within an economy for a basket of goods purchased by households which is used to monitor inflation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How are index numbers calculated?

A

(Index / Base Year) * 100The base year is always set at an index value of 100.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

State an advantage and disadvantage of using CPI to measure the rate of inflation within an economy.

A

Advantage of CPI: Comprehensive measure of inflation tracking changes in prices of goods and services.Disadvantage of CPI: May not fully reflect inflation experienced by specific demographic groups with different consumption patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Define Retail Price Index (RPI).

A

An older measure of inflation, less commonly used than CPI, although works on the same basis of monitoring the value of a basket of goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

State an advantage and disadvantage of using RPI to measure the rate of inflation within an economy.

A

Advantage of RPI: Broader inclusion of housing-related costs such as mortage repayments and council tax.Disadvantage of RPI: Tends to yield higher inflation figures, potentially overstating true inflation rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are the main differences between RPI and CPI measures of inflation?

A
  1. Calculating method2. Weighting method3. Coverage of housing costs (CPI includes housing costs, whereas RPI tracks mortgage repayments and council tax)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Define Consumer Price Index for Housing (CPIH).

A

A measure of average price level changes in an economy for goods and services that includes housing costs for homeowners, used to track inflation and cost of living.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

State an advantage and disadvantage of using CPIH to measure the rate of inflation within an economy.

A

Advantage of CPIH: Includes housing costs, providing a more comprehensive measure of inflation that reflects the impact on households.Disadvantage of CPIH: Relies on certain assumptions and imputations for estimating owner-occupier housing costs, which may introduce potential inaccuracies in measurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is meant by the ‘basket of goods’?

A

A selected set of goods and services that most accurately depict the spending habits of an economy, which are used to calculate price indexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

How are goods and services weighted in the basket of goods?

A

Weighted based on their share of total consumer expenditure, which are typically determined using data from surveys or expenditure data. The more frequently and extensively a good or service is purchased, the higher its weight in the basket of goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Why are goods and services weighted in the basket of goods?

A

Goods and services are weighted in the basket to reflect their importance in consumer spending patterns, and provide a more accurate measure of inflation and costs of living.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is meant by cost-push inflation?

A

An increase in cost of production or a decrease in the availability of resources leading to an inward shift of supply causing higher prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is meant by demand-pull inflation?

A

When the level of aggregate demand within an economy rises and beyond the productive potential output (supply remains constant) resulting in higher prices of goods and services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Define shoe leather costs.

A

The increased time and effort spent by individuals and businesses in response to inflation, such as more frequent trips to the bank to withdraw cash, in order to minimize the loss of purchasing power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Define menu costs.

A

Menu costs are the expenses and inconveniences that businesses face when changing their prices due to inflation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the difference between cost-push and demand-pull inflation?

A

Cost push inflation is derived from an increase in production costs (ie. from a supply shock), whereas demand-pull inflation is derived from excess demand within an economy forcing producers to drive up prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is a wage-price spiral.

A

When higher wages lead to higher price levels throughout the economy, resulting in workers demanding for even higher wages, creating an inflationary cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What are the consequences of sustained high rates of inflation?

A

• Reduced purchasing power: High inflation diminishes the value of money, reducing individuals’ ability to buy goods and services.• Reduced savings and investment: Inflation erodes the value of savings, discouraging saving and reducing funds available for investment.• Increased production costs: Businesses face higher production costs due to rising wages and input prices, potentially squeezing profit margins.• Income redistribution: Inflation affects different income groups unevenly, widening income disparities.• Macroeconomic instability: High inflation decreases economic confidence and can lead to currency depreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the impact of high inflation rates on firms?

A

High inflation rates increase production costs, creating uncertainty in planning and pricing decisions, and potentially reducing investment and growth opportunities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is deflation, and why is it not a good thing?

A

Deflation is a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services. It can lead to a negative wealth effect and worsened confidence within the economy.Deflation can:• Reduce consumer spending and hinder economic growth• Increased debt burdens, ,• create a cycle of falling prices causing businesses to cut production, investment, and employment, (exacerbating the economic downturn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is the impact of high inflation rates on individuals?

A

High inflation rates reduce individuals’ purchasing power, erode real wages, create financial uncertainty, distort economic decision-making, and can widen income disparities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is the impact of high inflation rates on the Government?

A

High inflation rates impact the government by reducing the purchasing power of government spending, and makes it more costly to borrow money, potentially worsening national debt in the long run.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is the impact of high inflation rates on the trade balance?

A

High inflation rates can potentially decrease imports and improve the trade balance as the reduced purchasing power of domestic currency makes imported goods relatively more expensive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Why is there often a trade off between the rate of inflation and unemployment?

A

Policies that aim to reduce unemployment can potentially lead to higher demand-pull inflation, and policies targeting inflation reduction may result in increased unemployment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What does the Phillip’s curve depict?

A

The Phillips curve depicts the inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation (in the short run). As unemployment decreases, inflation tends to increase, and vice versa, implying a trade-off between the two variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are the limitations to the analysis of the Phillips curve?

A

Long-run inconsistency due to factors like inflation expectations, changes in economic structure, and supply-side shocks; the presence of unstable policy trade-offs between unemployment and inflation; the influence of structural changes in the economy such as technological advancements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is meant by stagflation, what can cause stagflation and what are the potential implications?

A

Stagflation refers to a situation of stagnant economic growth coupled with high inflation, which can be caused by supply-side shocks or a combination of factors such as rising energy prices, declining productivity, or government policies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are the 4 sections in the current account balance?

A
  1. Trade of goods / visibles (X-M)2. Trade of services / invisibles (X-M)3. Primary income: Wages, profits and commissions earnt from abroad.4. Secondary income: Money transfer payments sent abroad.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Why do high relative inflation rates reduce global economic competitiveness?

A

High relative inflation rates reduce global economic competitiveness by eroding the price competitiveness of domestic goods and services, leading to a decline in exports, reduced market share, and potential negative impacts on employment, economic growth, and trade balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are the reasons an economy may face a current account surplus?

A

• A weak relative currency can reduce the price of exports, leading to greater export demand.• Individuals moving ‘hot money’ over in the form of transfer payments (ie. remittance) because of higher differential interest rates.• Lower incomes can lead to lower import demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What are the implications of a trade surplus?

A

• Improved current account balance:• Increased foreign currency reserves as money is injected into the economy• Boost to domestic industries and employment• Potential currency appreciation: A trade surplus can lead to an increase in demand for the country’s currency, potentially resulting in currency appreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What are the reasons an economy may face a current account deficit?

A

• Strong relative currency can increase the demand for imports, while decreasing the demand for exports• Hot money flowing into other economies due to higher reward for saving elsewhere can cause a deficit in secondary income flow• Borrowing and interest payments: An excessive amount of external debt to foreign creditors can lead to an outflow of money from the economy• Dependence on imported raw materials and resources causes a constant outlflow of money from the economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What are the implications of a trade deficit?

A

• Increased foreign debt as financing may be conducted from foreign creditors• Hindrance of economic growth (lack of domestic competition between firms)• Dependence on foreign production• Potential currency depreciation as demand for domestic currency decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is the effect of a strong pound on the net trade balance?

A

SPICED. Strong Pound Imports Cheap Exports Dear.Net trade balance worsens as import demand rises and export demand falls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is the effect of a weak pound on the net trade balance?

A

WPIDEC. Weak Pound Imports Dear Exports Cheap.Net trade balance improves as import demand falls and export demand rises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What does the J-curve depict?

A

Shows that a depreciation of the currency will cause a short-term deterioration of the net trade balance followed by a subsequent improvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What are the limitations to the analysis of the J-curve?

A

• Assumes that the price elasticity of demand for exports and imports remains constant over time• Does not consider other factors that can influence the trade balance, such as non-price competitiveness, productivity, and changes in domestic and foreign economic conditions• The time frame for the adjustment depicted by the J-curve can vary, and the actual magnitude and duration of the impact may differ in different situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is the effect of a depreciation of a currency’s value on the net trade balance?

A

A depreciation of a currency’s value will typically cause a deterioration of the trade balance, but will lead to an improvement in the trade balance as exports become relatively cheaper and imports become relatively more expensive - as long as the Marshall-Lerner condition is met.

184
Q

Explain the Marshall-Lerner condition.

A

A devaluation in the value of a currency leads to a temporary worsening of the trade balance, but causes an improvement in the long-term net trade balance only if the sum of the price elasticity of demands of exports + imports is greater than 1.

185
Q

Why does a devaluation of a currency initially lead to a worsening of the current account balance?

A

• Costlier imports: A devalued currency makes imports more expensive, which can negatively impact the current account balance.• External debt burden: Devaluation can increase the cost of servicing foreign currency-denominated debt, putting pressure on the current account balance.• Time lag in export benefits: While a devaluation can enhance export competitiveness, it takes time for export volumes to increase and offset higher import costs, initially worsening the current account balance.

186
Q

What do Neo-Classical economists believe?

A

The economy will always return to the long-run productive potential level of output despite any temporary shifts made to AD or SRAS. A shift in AD does not have the power to cause economic growth in the long run.An increase in AD will cause demand-pull inflationary pressures, causing costs of production to rise, hence SRAS shifts back to meet the LRAS equilibrium point of output, along with increased price levels.

187
Q

What do Keynesian economists believe?

A

Government intervention through the use of demand-side policies is most effective at stimulating economic activities and mitigating the likelihood of a recession.

188
Q

What did Hayek believe?

A

Friedrich Hayek believed in free-market capitalism, limited government intervention, and the importance of individual liberty and personal responsibility in driving economic and societal progress.

189
Q

What is meant by fiscal policy, and what is its purpose?

A

Fiscal policy is a demand-side policy which refers to the use of government spending and taxation to influence the overall state of the economy, stimulate economic growth and reduce unemployment

190
Q

Why does a decrease in tax revenue not necessitate a decrease in Government spending?

A

The Government can choose to finance the fiscal deficit through borrowing or other means to maintain spending levels.

191
Q

What are the Government’s main sources of revenue.

A

• Direct Taxation: Income tax, Corporation tax, Capital gains tax etc. • Indirect Taxation: VAT, Excise Duty• Borrowing: Issuance of bonds allows them to finance public projects or budget deficits, however it can add to the overall debt burden• Fees/Fines: Typically for failing to follow Government rules and regulations

192
Q

Where does the Government typically spend its revenue?

A

Social protection (welfare benefits etc.), Healthcare, Education, Public services, Infrastructure.

193
Q

What is meant by discretionary austerity measures?

A

A form of contractionary fiscal policy taken by the government to reduce public spending and/or increase income taxe rates in order to address budget deficits and control national debt.

194
Q

How do automatic fiscal stabilisers work, and what do they do?

A

Automatic fiscal stabilisers work by reducing the magnitude of output gaps within an economy.When an economy is in a positive output gap, or a boom, individuals are pushed into higher tax bands, meanwhile Government spending on welfare benefits is reduced, hence AD shifts inwards.When an economy is in a negative output gap, or a recession, individuals are pushed into lower tax bands, increasing consumption, meanwhile Government spending on welfare benefits is increased, hence AD shifts outwards.

195
Q

What are the problems of a fiscal deficit?

A

• Inflationary pressures, as excessive government spending can fuel demand and lead to rising prices.• Reduced fiscal flexibility, and worse access to credit, limiting ability to respond to future economic challenges.• Increased government borrowing and accumulation of national debt..• Corrective measures such as tax increases or spending cuts can have adverse effects on economic growth / society as a whole.

196
Q

What are the problems of a fiscal surplus?

A

• Reduced public investment• Inefficient allocation of resources leading to Government failure (collection of more revenue than needed)• Adverse effects on economic growth• Potential opportunity costs on where the revenue could have been spent

197
Q

How can a Government correct a fiscal deficit?

A

• Increase tax rates (both direct and indirect)• Cut government spending• Stimulate economic growth to collect more tax revenue• Implement austerity measures (eg. reductions in social welfare benefits, minimum wage freezes etc.)

198
Q

What are the limitations to fiscal policy?

A

• Governments might have imperfect information about the economy. It could lead to inefficient spending. • There is a significant time lag involved with employing the fiscal policy. It could take months or years to have an effect. • If interest rates are high, fiscal policy might not be effective for increasing demand.• If the government spends too much, there could be difficulties paying back the debt, which could make it difficult to borrow in the future.

199
Q

Fiscal policy evaluative statements (what does its effectiveness depend on).

A

• Depends on the Marginal Propensity to Consume.• Depends on the size of the multiplier• Depends on the position on the Laffer Curve (although this is impossible to empirically find out)• Depends on the state of the economy

200
Q

What does the Laffer curve depict?

A

The Laffer curve depicts the relationship between tax rates and tax revenue, illustrating that at a certain point, increasing tax rates beyond a certain threshold may lead to a decrease in tax revenue.

201
Q

What are the limitations to the analysis of the Laffer curve?

A

The analysis of the Laffer curve is limited by the difficulty of precisely determining an economy’s position on the curve and by relying on simplistic assumptions.

202
Q

Why does tax revenue fall after T* on the Laffer curve?

A

• Reduced incentive to work if tax rates are too high, leading to high unemployment rates and therefore less tax revenue• Reduced incentive to investment if tax rates are too high, leading to lower economic activity• People may move to nations with lower tax rates if they feel the burden of income tax is excessive

203
Q

What is Monetary policy, and what is its function?

A

Monetary policy refers to the regulation of the money supply through adjustments to basal interest rates. It’s primary function is to stimulate aggregate demand, and maintain price stability (2% CPI).

204
Q

Define interest rate.

A

The cost of borrowing money & The reward for saving

205
Q

What is meant by basal interest rates?

A

Basal interest rates refer to the benchmark interest rates set by the Bank of England, which serve as the foundation for determining other interest rates in the economy.

206
Q

Which financial institution is responsible for adjusting Monetary Policy?

A

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) within the Bank of England (BoE) is responsible for setting basal interest rates, and performing quantitative easing/tightening after a thorough analysis of the performance of the UK economy.The UK Government is responsible for setting the Bank of England an inflation target for price stability, set at 2% CPI.

207
Q

Briefly state the monetary policy transmission mechanism.

A
  1. Basal interest rates decrease2. Lower reward for saving, Lower cost of borrowing3. Reduces the incentive to save, increases the incentive to borrow/invest4. Increases consumption and investment –> Increase in AD
208
Q

What is the impact of interest rates on the exchange rate?

A

High interest rates can attract foreign investors seeking higher returns, increasing the demand for the domestic currency and potentially causing it to appreciate in value against other currencies.

209
Q

What is the impact of interest rates on the trade balance?

A

High interest rates can lead to an appreciation of the domestic currency, making exports relatively more expensive and imports relatively cheaper, which can result in a deterioration of the trade balance

210
Q

Define hot money.

A

Hot money refers to short-term, speculative capital that is quickly moved between countries or financial markets in search of higher returns or to exploit interest rate differentials.

211
Q

How does Quantitative Easing work?

A
  1. BoE artificially generates money electronically2. BoE uses this money to buy Government bonds from financial institutions (ie. commerical banks)3. Higher demand for bonds causes their value to appreciate, leading to lower long-term yields4. Financial institutions loan money out or invest in riskier corporate bonds5. Price of corporate bonds increases, and their long-term yield decreases6. Access to credit improves, general i.r falls7. Incentivises borrowing, consumption and investment rise leading to greater AD. QE is used if inflation rates are below price stability targets.
212
Q

When was Quantitative Easing first introduced?

A

March 2009 in response to the Global Financial Crisis, basal interest rates were already very low, but to stimulate economic activity QE was implemented alongside standard issue monetary policy.

213
Q

What is Quantitative Tightening?

A

Quantitative tightening refers to the process of reducing the size of a central bank’s balance effectively decreasing the money supply and tightening monetary conditions in the economy.QT is used if inflation rates are above price stability targets.

214
Q

What are the limitations to Monetary policy?

A

• Time lag for any effect on the economy • Liquidity trap - can only lower the cash rate so much • Banks don’t always pass on full interest rate changes (profit)• Can’t deal with supply-side constraints.• Can be in conflict with fiscal policy

215
Q

What is a liquidity trap?

A

A liquidity trap is a situation where monetary policy loses its effectiveness because interest rates are already very low (possible even 0), and people and businesses hoard cash instead of spending or investing it.

216
Q

Why may a liquidity trap occur within an economy?

A

A liquidity trap may occur within an economy when there is a significant decline in consumer and business confidence, leading to increased saving and reduced investment, despite low interest rates. Additionally, it can be triggered by deflationary pressures and a lack of available profitable investment opportunities.

217
Q

Why is there a time lag in the Monetary policy transmission mechanism from time of action to the time of impact?

A

People have fixed-rate contracts such as mortgages, meaning it takes time for changes in policy to impact borrowing, spending, and economic activity in the economy.

218
Q

Monetary policy evaluative statements (what does its effectiveness depend on).

A

• Depends on the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)• Depends on the state of the economic cycle (output gap)• Depends on business and consumer confidence• Depends on the presence of supply-side constraints in the economy

219
Q

How do supply-side policies work?

A

Supply-side policies aim to stimulate economic growth and improve productivity by reducing barriers to production and promoting market efficiency in an attempt to increase the long-run productive potential of an economy.

220
Q

What do supply-side economists believe?

A

Supply-side policies focused on promoting economic growth such as reducing taxes and deregulating industries can increase the long-run productive potential for an economy (increase in LRAS) without sacrificing price stability.

221
Q

What is the difference between market-based and interventionist supply-side policies?

A

Market-based supply-side policies aim to create favorable conditions for markets to operate efficiently, meanwhile interventionist supply-side policies involve direct government intervention to correct market failure

222
Q

What are the main interventionist supply-side policies?

A

• Spending on education and training• Spending on infrastructure• Subsidies to promote investment and entrepreneurship• Subsidies for research and development• Subsidies to smaller firms

223
Q

What are the main free-market based supply-side policies?

A

• Reduction of income and corporation tax rates: Incentivise work, investment, and business activity• Privatisation: By reducing government involvement and allowing private ownership, privatisation aims to increase market competition and efficiency in the allocation of resources.• Deregulation: Removing unnecessary regulations and bureaucratic burdens to enhance market efficiency and promote competition.• Reduce minimum wages and welfare benefits• Trade liberalisation: Reducing trade barriers to expand market access and promote international competitiveness

224
Q

Supply-side policy evaluative statements

A

• No guarantee of sucess• Cost of implementation• Time lags• Supply side policies need to be targeted at specific areas• Effectiveness highly depends on consumer and business confidence throughout an economy

225
Q

Why do firms grow in size?

A
  1. Experience economies of scale (cost cuts)2. Generate greater revenue and supernormal profits which can be used to re-invest into research and development3. Gain larger market share increasing their influence on prices and contestability, can lead to monopoly power4. Have more security by raising reserve cash in case of financial difficulties and diversifying risk by selling larger range of goods in more countries
226
Q

Why do some firms remain small (Constraints on business growth)?

A
  1. Market is small or is specialised and niche2. Limited access to finance, low revenue or credit crunch3. The owner may prefer to keep the business small to keep full control of the firm (P.A problem)4. Regulation may prevent large businesses from growing to allow competition to flourish ‘Competition Law’
227
Q

Explain what is meant divorce of ownership and control.

A

As firms growth there is a seperation of ownership and control because firms are owned by their shareholders and seniors managers are hired to manage operations.

228
Q

Define the principle-agent problem, and explain why this is a problem of firms growing.

A

Divorce of ownership and control in firms leads to owners (Principle) hiring managers (Agent). Managers may prioritise personal gain over business interests, creating conflicts due to differing objectives, leading firms to profit satisfice rather than maximise.

229
Q

What is the difference between the private and public sector?

A

The private sector is part of the economy that is owned and run by individuals or groups, usually with the aim of making a profit - includes sole traders, PLCs, LTDs etc.The public sector is part of the economy that is owned and controlled by the government. The purpose of public sector firms is to provide a service for citizens, not to make a profit.

230
Q

What is the objective of not-for-profit firms?

A

Maximise social welfare and help individuals

231
Q

Define organic growth.

A

When a firm grows by increasing their total level of output.

232
Q

State three methods of organic growth.

A
  1. Opening new stores2. Product diversification (R&D)3. Investing in new technology
233
Q

State two advantages to organic growth.

A

+Cheap relative to integration+Firm keeps control

234
Q

State two disadvantages to organic growth.

A

-Takes a long time-Difficult to gain new ideas-Difficult to expand into new markets

235
Q

Define external growth.

A

When a business grows through amalgamation, takeover or merger.

236
Q

State three types of external growth.

A
  1. Vertical Integration2. Horizontal Integration3. Conglomerate Integration
237
Q

What is horizontal integration?

A

Firms in the same industry at the same stage of production integrate.

238
Q

State three advantages to horizontal integration.

A

+Reduces competition as a firm is taken out+Increases market share, so the firm has more power to influence markets and set prices+Business grows in a market where it has expertise+Economies of scale

239
Q

State two disadvantages to horizontal integration.

A

-Increases risk for the business in case that market fails ‘Placed all their eggs in one basket’-Some admin staff will be made redundant as they will be duplicated

240
Q

What is forward vertical integration?

A

When a firm integrates with another firm in the same industry at a stage of production closer to the consumer/final good.

241
Q

State two advantages to forward vertical integration.

A

+Increased potential for profit as firm takes the potential profit from a larger chain of production+Improved coordination, communication and control over supply chain

242
Q

State three disadvantages to forward vertical integration.

A

-High initial investment costs-Reduced flexibility in responding to changing market-Firms may lack expertise in the new sector

243
Q

What is backward vertical integration?

A

When a firm integrates with another firm in the same industry at a stage of production further from the consumer/final good.

244
Q

State two advantages to backwards vertical integration.

A

+Ensure deliveries are reliable and control quality, reduces risk+Can restrict access to resources to competitors

245
Q

State three disadvantages to backwards vertical integration.

A

-High initial investment costs-Reduced flexibility in responding to changing market-Firms may lack expertise in the new sector

246
Q

What is conglomerate integration?

A

Where firms in dfferent industries with no obvious connections integrate.

247
Q

State two advantages to conglomerate integration.

A

+Risk diversification (risk-bearing economies of scale)+Useful where there is no room for growth in current market

248
Q

State two disadvantages to conglomerate integration.

A

-Risky as the firm has no expertise in the new industry-Lack of synergies between diverse business units leading to inefficiencies-High initial investment costs

249
Q

What is a joint venture partnership?

A

A business arrangement in which two or more firms agree to pool their resources for the purpose of accomplishing a specific task

250
Q

What is a demerger?

A

When a single large firms is broken into multiple smaller firms, each to operate on their own, sold or dissolved.

251
Q

Why do demergers occur?

A
  1. Lack of synergies2. Value of seperate parts of the company worth more than company combined3. Prevent diseconomies of scale4. Avoid attention from competition authorities5. If company is focused on individual markets they will be more efficient
252
Q

What is the impact of demergers on workers?

A

+Seperate firms hire their own managers which can lead to promotions-Trying to maximise efficiency, firms may make jobs redundant

253
Q

What is the impact of demergers on consumers?

A

+Gain from innovation and efficiency leading to higher quality products and cheaper goods-Demerged firms may lose economies of scale and instead raise prices, or reduce quality of goods

254
Q

What is the impact of demergers on firms?

A

+Concentrating on a smaller business can make it more efficient and lead to greater innovation-Smaller business loses economies of scale and therefore reduced efficiency

255
Q

Formula for Total Revenue

A

TR = P x Q

256
Q

Formula for Average Revenue

A

AR = TR / Q = [P x Q] / Q = P

257
Q

Formula for Marginal Revenue

A

MR = ΔTR/ΔQ

258
Q

Define fixed costs and give examples

A

Fixed costs do not vary with output. EG: Worker salaries, rent, business license etc.

259
Q

Explain the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns.

A

As additional units of a variable input are added to a fixed input, the marginal product will eventually decrease as a result of other fixed factors of production.

260
Q

Define variable costs and give examples.

A

Variable costs vary with output. EG: Wages, raw materials, delivery costs etc.

261
Q

Formula for Total Costs

A

TC = TFC + TVC

262
Q

Formula for Average Costs

A

AC = TC / Q

263
Q

Explain the shape of the AC curve.

A

Initially, AC decreases as output increases, reaches a minimum point, and then rises due to diminishing marginal returns. Its lowest point intersects the MC curve.

264
Q

Explain the shape of the MC curve.

A

Initially, as production increases, MC decreases, but it eventually rises due to diminishing marginal returns

265
Q

Define economies of scale.

A

When increasing the level of production leads to a fall in average (unit) costs.

266
Q

What is meant by Returns to Scale?

A

The change in output or production as a result of proportional changes in all inputs.

267
Q

What is the Minimum Efficient Scale (MES)? How is the LRAC curve is used to demonstrate economies of scale.

A

The minimum level of output required to have fully minimised average costs.

268
Q

What are the 6 Internal Economies of Scale?

A
  1. Purchasing2. Technical3. Marketing4. Financial5. Managerial6. Risk-bearing
269
Q

Purchasing Economies of Scale

A

When a firm ‘bulk buys’ inputs in large quantities and can negotiate lower unit costs.

270
Q

Technical Economies of Scale

A

Increased technological efficiency in the production process, eg from specialisation and research and development

271
Q

Marketing Economies of Scale

A

Where larger firms are able to lower the unit cost of advertising and promotion by ‘bulk buying’ marketing

272
Q

Financial Economies of Scale

A

Large firms have greater security and therefore it is easier to borrow and can negotiate lower interest rates on loans.

273
Q

Managerial Economies of Scale

A

Larger businesses can afford to hire specialist functional managers, thus improving the organisation’s efficiency and productivity.

274
Q

Risk-bearing Economies of Scale

A

Large firms can operate in various markets and diversify their risk, meaning if one area of the business or a market collapses they would still be able to operate

275
Q

What are the 3 External Economies of Scale?

A
  1. Increase in skilled labour influx2. Better and most cost-efficient transportation infrastructure3. Suppliers, R&D firms move closer to firm
276
Q

Define diseconomies of scale

A

When increaing the level of production leads to an increase in average (unit) costs.

277
Q

What are the 3 Internal Diseconomies of Scale?

A
  1. Lack of control2. Lack of communication3. Lack of coordination
278
Q

Lack of Control Diseconomies of Scale

A

As the firm grows, owners lose control of their business as they hire managers. Due to the Principle-Agent problem, this can cause diseconomies of scale as managers may operate for self-gain, which may increase average costs as a result.

279
Q

Lack of Communication Diseconomies of Scale

A

As the firm grows, it becomes more difficult for areas of the business to communicate effectively and efficiently, which can increase average costs.

280
Q

Lack of Coordination Diseconomies of Scale

A

As the firm grows, workers may begin to feel less motivated, and less valued. As a result, they may begin to slack as managers are less likely to notice, resulting in decreasing returns to scale.

281
Q

What are the 4 External Diseconomies of Scale?

A
  1. Increasing land prices2. Increasing unit labour costs3. Tranport issues and geographical immobility4. Price of raw materials rising
282
Q

What is the condition for profit maximisation?

A

MR = MC

283
Q

Define supernormal profit.

A

Supernormal profit = TR - TC

284
Q

Define normal profit.

A

Normal profit is when TR = TC or AR = AC

285
Q

How would you diagrammatically show profit maximisation?

A
  1. Plot MR, AR, MC, AC curves on a costs/revenues diagram.2. Draw a dot where MR = MC, then extrapolate vertically until it intersects both the AR and the AC curves.3. Draw a horizontal line from these curves and label P1 and C14. Shade in the rectangle between Q1P1C1 as the net supernormal profit.
286
Q

When does a business make a loss?

A

When TR < TC or AR < AC

287
Q

When does a business’s Shut-Down Point Occur?

A

When increasing output leads to a greater loss than already incurred. This is when AVC > ARTherefore, the short-run shut-down point is when AVC = AR

288
Q

Explain the business objective of revenue maximisation.

A

Many firms may aim to revenue maximise as a growth in revenue a justifies to shareholders greater managerial rewards, as long as they provide some profits to the owners - Principle Agent Problem. Also, firms who wish to gain capital for reinvestment purposes may choose to revenue maximise in the short run so they can maximise profits in the long run.

289
Q

How would you diagrammatically show revenue maximisation?

A

MR = 0

290
Q

Explain the business objective of sales maximisation.

A

Firms wishing to exploit economies of scale, or quickly gain market share may temporarily choose to sales maximise to increase output. Companies working in airline industry may opt for sales maximisation since there are high total fixed costs associated with it so they want to maximise ‘bums on seats’ to spread out these costs over a larger customer base

291
Q

How would you diagrammatically show sales maximisation?

A

AC = AR

292
Q

Explain the business objective of profit satisficing.

A

Due to the principal-agent problem, managers may prioritise personal benefits over profit maximisation, leading to profit satisficing where they aim to make enough profit to satisfy owners while pursuing other objectives like their own incomes.

293
Q

What are some alternate objectives businesses may have besides profit, revenue and sales maximisation and profit satisficing?

A
  1. Survival2. Allocative efficiency (P = MC)3. Minimise environmental impact4. Corporate social responsibility
294
Q

What are the 4 types of business efficiency?

A
  1. Allocative efficiency2. Productive efficiency3. X-efficiency4. Dynamic efficiency
295
Q

Explain what is meant by allocative efficiency.

A

When resources follow consumer demand, and net social welfare is maximised. This is where MSC = MSB, and supply = demand. Therefore it is shown where AR = MC

296
Q

How would you diagrammatically show allocative efficiency?

A

AR = MC

297
Q

Explain what is meant by productive efficiency.

A

When a firm operates at the lowest point on their AR curve, and they fully exploit economies of scale.

298
Q

How would you diagrammatically show productive efficiency?

A

AC = MC

299
Q

Explain what is meant by X-efficiency.

A

When a business minimises their waste meaning there are no excess costs.

300
Q

What can lead to X-inefficiencies in a market?

A
  1. Monopolies have no incentive to further enhance their efficiency as there is no competitive incentive2. Public sector firms have no incentive to further enhance efficiency as there is no competitive incentive
301
Q

How would you diagrammatically show X-efficiency?

A

Production is anywhere on the AC curve, or on the PPF curve.X-inefficiency is shown by operating inside of the PPF or above the AC curve.

302
Q

Explain what is meant by dynamic efficiency.

A

Reinvestment of long-run accumulation of supernormal profits into the business in the form of new capital, technology, innovation, research and development etc. leading to a downwards shift of the LRAC curve.

303
Q

How would you diagrammatically show dynamic efficiency?

A

Downwards shift of LRAC

304
Q

Define labour demand.

A

The quantity of labour that employers would wish to employ at each possible wage rate.

305
Q

Why is labour demand a derived demand?

A

Firms hire workers to produce goods, so labour demand is derived from the demand for these goods and services, as businesses will only hire workers so long that the final product is demanded.

306
Q

What factors affect the level of labour demand?

A
  1. Demand for the final product2. Price of other factors of production3. Wages in other countries4. Technological advancements (capital-labour substitution)5. Labour market regulations6. State of the economy
307
Q

What factors affect the wage elasticity of labour demand?

A
  1. Price elasticity of demand for the final product2. Proportion of wages to the total cost of production3. Substitutes to labour4. Time frame
308
Q

Define Marginal Physical Product of Labour (MPP)

A

The extra output produced from employing an extra worker

309
Q

How do you calculate the Marginal Physical Product of Labour (MPP)?

A

Δ (total output) / Δ (labour input)

310
Q

Define Marginal Revenue Product of Labour (MRPL)

A

The extra revenue a firm earns from employing an extra worker

311
Q

How do you calculate the Marginal Revenue Product of Labour (MRPL)?

A

MPL * Marginal Revenue= Δ (total output) / Δ (labour input) * Δ (total revenue) / Δ (total output) = Δ (total revenue) / Δ (labour input)

312
Q

What does Marginal Revenue Product Theory state?

A

The MRP curve is the labour demand curve. The MCL curve is the supply curve for workers at a wage rate set by the perfectly competitive labour market (S = MCL, perfectly elastic). Firms will hire additional workers until MRP = MCL, meaning when the marginal revenue product of labour is equal to the wage rate, as this means that firms maximise revenue for a given number of employees.

313
Q

What is one major assumption made in MRP Theory?

A

Firms are in Perfect Competition, meaning that they are price takers leading to P = MR = AR.

314
Q

State some criticisms of MRP theory.

A

-How do you measure productivity. hence MRP?-Teamwork makes it difficult to measure individual productivity-Imperfect labour markets involving trade unions?-Self employed?

315
Q

Explain the shape of the MRP curve in a labour market.

A

MRP initially increases because each worker bring in extra revenue that the last due to specilisation gains and excess capital that can be utilised by workers, until the point of Diminishing Marginal Returns, where the fixed factors of production constrain MRP - can also be because of productivity.

316
Q

Define labour supply.

A

The ability and willingness of people to make themselves available to work at different wage rates

317
Q

What factors affect the level of labour supply within an economy?

A
  1. Population and age demographics2. Non-pecuniary benefits3. Education, training and qualifications4. Trade unions and barriers to entry (eg. MBBS for doctor)5. Wages and conditions of other jobs6. Legislation
318
Q

What factors affect the wage elasticity of labour supply?

A
  1. Level of qualifications and training2. Available of suitable labour in other industries3. Time frame
319
Q

Why is the supply curve of an individual worker backward bending?

A

Originally increases due to the substitution effect, then there is a vertical section where the income effect = substitution effect. The curve bends back on itself due to the income effect as individual workers choose to work less and relax more because of a higher income.

320
Q

What is meant by the income effect?

A

The change in hours worked as wages rise due to the potential of individuals reaching a target income, can be positive or negative.

321
Q

What is meant by the substitution effect?

A

As wages rise, the opportunity cost of leisure time increases, providing an incentive to work, always positive.

322
Q

Objectives of trade unions

A

-Wage bargaining to achieve higher wages-Improved working conditions-Greater job security

323
Q

What are the causes of wage differentials in labour markets?

A
  1. Labour is non-homogenous (different MRP, MCLs, discrimination)2. Non-monetary considerations (eg. fringe benefits etc.)3. Geographically immobility of labour4. Occupational immobility of labour5. Lack of perfect knowledge6. Trade unions and supply restrictions7. Monopsonies and wage setting ability
324
Q

Examples of market failure in labour markets.

A
  1. Labour suffers from geographical immobility2. Labour suffers from occupational immobility
325
Q

Advantages of wage differentials.

A

+Incentive to gain skills, training and qualifications to improve incomes+Trickle down effect as high wage earners cause a multiplier effect in the economy leading to job creation+Encourages enterprise+Encourages work instead of welfare benefits+Efficient resource allocation: Workers feel rewarded by wages based on the value of their work

326
Q

Disadvantages of wage differentials.

A

-Income inequality-May require more government finance on welfare spending-Can reduce long run growth and those on lower incomes have a high MPC-Social costs: Crime, depression, divorce, drug abuse etc. - More government finance on policing externalities-Trickle down effect may not occur-Government solutions are limited if they are the monopsonist employer

327
Q

Define a labour market monopsony.

A

When there is a single dominant employer in a labour market that has significant wage-setting power and can push wages down - wage makers.For example, the state is a monopsony for public sector goods. They will maximise revenue from marginal labour by hiring until MRP = MCL, and reducing employment and wages since MCL is not equal to ACL.

328
Q

Advantages of National Minimum Wage

A

+Increases an incentive to work+Reduces wage differentials+Fiscal benefit to the government as less people are on benefits and people pay more tax+Increased productivity from morale boost+Incentive for firms to boost human capital+Counter monopsonist employers

329
Q

Disadvantages of National Minimum Wage

A

-Leads to real-wage unemployment (depends on elasticity)-Youth lose out the most-Those with wages above NMW may ask for higher wages as well (Wage-price spiral?)-Costly to businesses, may relocate or shut down due to lack of competitiveness-Does not account for regional costs of living differences

330
Q

What are the policies to redistribute income and wealth?

A
  1. Increase progressive tax rate bands2. Reduce level of regressive tax3. Raise welfare benefits4. Raise minimum wages5. Impose maximum wage or cap bonuses6. Legislation like anti-discrimination or paternal leave7. Supply side policies like Government spending on education/training/healthcare
331
Q

Evaluation of Taxation as a policy to redistribute income and wealth.

A
  1. Raise progressive tax rates: Laffer curve, distorts incentive to becomes more productively efficienct and take more risks, etc. - less Government revenue2. Reduce regressive tax rates: Government earns less money may lead to increased long-run borrowing or austerity in the future
332
Q

Evaluation of Benefits as a policy to redistribute income and wealth.

A
  1. Poverty trap as it reduces to the incentive to find work
  2. Strenuous on government finances and can lead to fiscal austerity
333
Q

Evaluation of Minimum/Maximum Wages as a policy to redistribute income and wealth.

A
  1. Minimum wages are costly to businesses and can cause unemployment2. Maximum wages may reduce the incentive to be entrepreneurial
334
Q

Evaluation of Legislation as a policy to redistribute income and wealth.

A
  1. Costly to businesses - shut down or reduced competitiveness2. Costly for the government to enforce3. May lead to government failure if businesses shut down or relocate as unintended consequences
335
Q

Evaluation of Government Spending as a policy to redistribute income and wealth.

A
  1. Expensive on government finances2. Can take a long time for it to take effect in the economy
336
Q

Define globalisation.

A

The ever increasing integration and interconnectedness of global economies into a single international market.

337
Q

What are the main causes of globalisation?

A
  1. Improvements in transport infrastructure2. Improvements in communication and I.T.3. Trade liberalisation4. International financial markets5. Growth of Transnational Corporations (TNCs)
338
Q

What are the impacts of globalisation on consumers?

A

+Greater choice of goods (luxury foreign goods)+Lower price (comparative advantage, reduced barriers to free trade)-May lead to higher prices as increasing incomes can increase demand for goods-Loss of culture

339
Q

What are the impacts of globalisation on workers?

A

+TNCs create jobs and offer training for workers+Increased demand for high-skilled labour drives wages up-Inequality from poor working conditions and low wages for low-skilled workers-Inwards migration may lower wages (increased labour supply)

340
Q

What are the impacts of globalisation on firms?

A

+Advanced technology brought in by TNCs may spillover into other industries+Risk-bearing economies of scale as they sell in more countries+Able to exploit cheap labour-Firms unable to compete with TNCs will die out

341
Q

What are the impacts of globalisation on the government?

A

+Gain more tax revenue from TNCs paying corporation tax-TNCs have lobbying power over governments which can lead to corruption and bribery-Government may lose out from tax avoidance or evasion

342
Q

What are the impacts of globalisation on the environment?

A

-Increased world production means more raw materials are mined-Therefore more global greenhouse emissions

343
Q

What are the impacts of globalisation on economic growth?

A

+Encourages foreign direct investment (FDI)+Positive multiplier leads to greater final injection+Incentivises domestic firms to improve efficiency which can lead to greater net economic efficiency (LRAS increase)-If consumers import more than firms export, this can cause a trade deficit and counteract the economic growth

344
Q

Define comparative advantage.

A

Where a country can produce a product at a lower opportunity cost than another.

345
Q

Define absolute advantage.

A

Where a country can produce more goods with fewer inputs than other (therefore more efficiently).

346
Q

What does the Law of Comparative Advantage state?

A

To maximise world efficiency in allocating scarce resources, countries should trade with one another and export the goods they have a comparative advantage in, this is mutually beneficial to both parties.

347
Q

What are the limitations to the theory of comparative advantage?

A

It is assumed that:-No transport costs-Costs are constant and there are no economies of scale-Goods are homogenous-Factors of production are perfectly mobile-No tariffs-Perfect information

348
Q

What are the advantages to specialisation and trade?

A

+World output can be increased if countries specialise+Economies of scale, reduces costs and prices+Market competition encourages innovation+Greater choice of goods

349
Q

What are the disadvantages to specialisation and trade?

A

-Over dependence structural unemployment-Negative externalities on environment-Loss of autonomy and sovereignty

350
Q

Define trading bloc.

A

An agreement between two or more countries to encourage free trade by reducing or eliminating protectionist barriers such as tariffs, quotas etc.

351
Q

What is the difference between a bilateral and multilateral trade agreement?

A

A Bilateral trade agreement is between two countries. A Multilateral trade agreement is between more than two countries.

352
Q

What is meant by economic integration?

A

The process by which separate economies become more interconnected through the reduction or elimination of trade barriers.

353
Q

What are the six levels of increasing economic integration?

A
  1. Preferential Trade Agreement2. Free Trade Area3. Customs Union4. Common Market5. Monetary Union6. Economic Union
354
Q

Advantages of trading blocs.

A

+Can lead to trade creation+Creates jobs if output is increased+Increased competition encourages innovation and efficiency+Larger consumer market leads to economies of scale+Greater choice of goods

355
Q

Disadvantages of trading blocs.

A

-Can lead to trade diversion-Oligopolistic competition as inefficient firms driven out-Retaliation and trade disputes-Reduced national sovereignty

356
Q

Preferential Trading Area (PTA)

A

Tariffs are reduced on selected goods

357
Q

Advantages of Preferential Trading Area (PTA)

A

+Lower prices for consumers+Promotes intra-regional trade+Enhances world efficiency through specialisation

358
Q

Disadvantages of Preferential Trading Area (PTA)

A

-Government spends resources on a unsubstantial trading bloc-Inefficiencies in resource allocation if inefficient producer produces goods

359
Q

Advantages of Free Trade Area (FTA)

A

+Promotes intra-regional trade+Lower prices for consumers+Enhances world efficiency through specialisation

360
Q

Free Trade Area (FTA)

A

All tariffs and quotas are removed between member countries, however they are free to impose their own tariffs on countries outside of the bloc.

361
Q

Disadvantages of Free Trade Area (FTA)

A

-Government spends resources on a unsubstantial trading bloc-Can cause current account deficit

362
Q

Advantages of Customs Union (CU)

A

+Promotes intra-regional trade+Stimulates competition and innovation+Enhances economic efficiency through specialisation

363
Q

Customs Union (CU)

A

Free trade between members, and a Common External Tariff is placed on non-member nations.

364
Q

Disadvantages of Customs Union (CU)

A

-Trade diversion-Retaliation and trade disputes from non-members

365
Q

Common Market (CM)

A

Free movement of factors of production between members.

366
Q

Advantages of Common Market (CM)

A

+Increased geographical mobility so workers are able to relocate+Transfer of skills, knowledge and technology

367
Q

Disadvantages of Common Market (CM)

A

-Brain Drain-Unequal distribution of benefits

368
Q

Monetary Union

A

Countries share the same central bank, monetary policy and currency.

369
Q

What are the features of the Eurozone?

A
  1. Share a common currency: Euro2. CPI Inflation target is 2%3. Euro floats as a currency against the USD and GBP4. Member nations must not run large budget deficits (>3% of GDP)
370
Q

Advantages of Monetary Union for Eurozone countries.

A

+Increases business confidence (non-fluctuating exchange rate and stable currency allows them to predict future investment plans)+Eliminates the cost of currency conversion+Protects currency against speculation and eliminates asymmetric information - prices easy to compare

371
Q

Disadvantages of Monetary Union for Eurozone countries.

A

-Cost of changing currency is high (notes in circulation, menu, admin, removing old notes etc.)-Loss of Monetary Policy autonomy-Countries are unable to alter their exchange rates to change C.A balance-Increased interdependence between nations

372
Q

What are the conditions required for the success of a Monetary Union (Optimal currency zone)?

A
  1. Free movement of capital and labour2. Automatic fiscal stabilisers in place3. Share the same business cycle
373
Q

What is the Convergence Criteria to join the Eurozone?

A
  1. Inflation rate can’t be more than 1.5% higher than the union’s 3 best performing members2. Long-term interest rates can’t be higher than 2% above the union’s 3 best performing members3. Should not be in excessive fiscal debt4. Must have a stable currency against the Euro
374
Q

Economic Union (full economic integration)

A

Fully integrated economies, complete coordination of fiscal, monetary and social policies.

375
Q

When does trade creation occur?

A

When low cost, efficient producers with comparative advantage within a trading bloc replace high cost domestic producers.

376
Q

How would you represent trade creation on a diagram?

A

Shows the removal of a tariff from a foreign producer following the creation of a trading bloc where the perfectly elastic supply curve moves down, showing an increase in output from a more efficient producer. Government revenue is lost, previously lost world efficiency and consumer surplus are gained.

377
Q

When does trade diversion occur?

A

When high cost, inefficient producers within a trading bloc replace more efficient foreign producers with comparative advantage following the imposition of a Common External Tariff.

378
Q

How would you represent trade diversion on a diagram?

A

Shows the perfectly elastic supply curve of the producer with comparative advantage shifting upwards above the trading bloc after a common external tariff is imposed. Lost world efficiency, lost bloc efficiency, lost consumer surplus.

379
Q

What are the terms of trade?

A

The quantity of exports that need to be sold in order to purchase a given level of imports.

380
Q

How is the terms of trade index calculated?

A

[Average export price index / Average import price index] *100

381
Q

What factors can change the terms of trade?

A

SR: Exchange rates, inflation rates, supply and demand of exports and importsLR: Changes in incomes, Long run productivity

382
Q

How does a change in terms of trade affect the domestic economy?

A
  1. Improvement in terms of trade lead to a fall in (X-M) which can cause a fall in GDP and rise in unemployment2. If PED of X and M is inelastic, improving TOT = improving CA3. If PED of X and M is elastic, improving TOT = worsening CA4. If export demand has caused improvement TOT then this is beneficial5. Important to consider export revenues
383
Q

What is the association between the price elasticity of demand for exports and imports and the terms of trade?

A

If exports are price elastic, a rise in export prices leads to an increase in terms of trade but worsen current accountIf exports are price inelastic, a rise in export prices leads to an increase in terms of trade and current account.If imports are price elastic, a rise in import prices leads to a decrease in terms of trade but improve current accountIf imports are price inelastic, a rise in import prices leads to a decrease in terms of trade and current account.

384
Q

State the Prebisch-Singer hypothesis.

A

There will be a long run decline in the terms of trade for countries that depend on natural resource exports.This is because it is hypothesised that import prices will rise faster than export prices as countries export commodities with an inelastic YED, but import manufactured goods with an elastic YED.

385
Q

What is the objective of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?

A
  1. Establish trade liberalisation and encourage free trade2. Make sure countries act according to trade agreements3. They hold ‘rounds’ where representatives gather
386
Q

Criticisms of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)

A

-All countries must agree for an agreement to take place-Veto may be politically motivated (eg. retaliation)

387
Q

Define trade liberalisation.

A

The removal of protectionist policies with the aim of encouraging free trade between countries.

388
Q

Arguments for free trade.

A

+More effcient allocation of resources through comparative advantage and specialisation gains (potential for trade creation)+Encourages competition between producers+Leads to greater innovation and dynamic/static efficiencies+Global market for producers and greater choice for consumers+Job creation in exporting industries+Political peace and stability

389
Q

Advantages of trade liberalisation.

A

+Deadweight gain of world efficiency+Improved market competition incentivises business efficiency, productivity and research/development+Firms have access to global market which can lead to economies of scale+Consumers have greater choice of goods

390
Q

Disadvantages of trade liberalisation.

A

-Government loses tax revenue-Overspecialisation can be risky-Structural unemployment if demand shifts from domestic suppliers to imports-Domestic firms unable to compete-Income inequality

391
Q

Define protectionism.

A

The use of economic policies to regulate free trade between countries with the aim of reducing imports

392
Q

What are the reasons for protectionism?

A
  1. Protect domestic employment2. Infant industry argument3. Protect from dumping (market flooding from surpluses)4. Protects against unfair competition5. Mitigates the risk of over specialisation in one industry
393
Q

What are the main forms of protectionism?

A
  1. Tariff: A tax imposed on imports2. Quota: A restriction on quantity of imports3. Subsidy: Aims to boost domestic production4. Embargo: A complete ban on imports5. Regulations: Quality and legal reasons some goods can’t be sold in the country
394
Q

How would you draw a diagram to show the imposition of a tariff on a country?

A

Foreign country is assumed to have comparative advantage, so the perfectly elastic supply curve lies below the equilibrium point of the domestic market. Imposing a tariff shifts their supply curve up, leading to reduced imports, increased domestic production, DWL of world efficiency, gain of government revenue and DWL of decreased consumer surplus

395
Q

How would you draw a diagram to show the imposition of a subsidy as a means of protectionism?

A

Imposing a subsidy on domestic production shifts their supply curve outwards to Sd + Sd+subsidy. Price in the market is unchanged (although, there is an effective change in price for producers) - there is no change in domestic demand, so no DWL of consumer surplus. There is a DWL of efficiency as inefficient domestic producers begin to supply more and government expenditure is e + f + g.

396
Q

How would you draw a diagram to show the imposition of a quota on a country?

A

Imports reduced from Q1Q2 to new Q1Q3. Domestic supply shifted outwards parallel to original supply curve, and increases from Q1 to Q1 + Q3Q4. Domestic demand constracts from Q2 to Q4. Excess demand (Q3Q2) is satisfied by an increase in price from P1 to P1+quota. There is a DWL of efficiency and consumer surplus, as a more inefficient domestic producer is supplying more goods (Q2Q4).

397
Q

Define exchange rate.

A

The purchasing power of a currency in terms of what it can buy of another. The bilateral exchange rate is simply the value of one currency in terms of another.

398
Q

What is Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)?

A

Purchasing power parity uses a basket of goods and services and measures the price of specific goods in different countries. It is also used to compare the absolute purchasing power of the countries’ currencies.

399
Q

What is a spot exchange rate?

A

The spot exchange rate is the rate of a foreign-exchange contract for immediate delivery. Spot rates are the price that a buyer will pay for a foreign currency.

400
Q

What is a forward exchange rate?

A

The forward exchange rate is what a foreign currency is agreed to be worth at some time in the future. A company can enter into a forward contract on exchange rates to help hedge against exchange rate fluctuations.

401
Q

What is a floating exchange rate?

A

An exchange rate system where the value of the currency is determined purely by the forces of supply and demand. Most systems are floating.

402
Q

What is a fixed exchange rate?

A

An exchange rate system where the government sets their currency against another and that exchange rate does not fluctuate.

403
Q

What increases the demand for a currency?

A
  1. Increase in relative interest rates (hot money inflows)2. Speculators anticipate appreciation of currency3. Increase in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)4. Rise in foreign incomes5. Increase in international competitiveness (e.g. reduced relative inflation, lower unit labour costs etc.) –> Firms move in
404
Q

What increases the supply for a currency?

A
  1. Decrease in relative interest rates (hot money outflows)2. Speculators anticipate depreciation of currency3. Rise in domestic incomes4. Decrease in international competitiveness (e.g. high relative inflation, high unit labour costs etc.) –> Firms move away
405
Q

What are the advantages of an appreciation of a currency?

A

+Cheaper to import which can boost living standards+Can tackle demand-pull inflation+Increased competition –> Efficiency gains domestically

406
Q

What are the disadvantages of an appreciation of a currency?

A

-Increased imports, reduced exports –> C.A deficit-Reduced economic growth-Higher structural unemployment rates in exporting industries

407
Q

What are the advantages of a depreciation of a currency?

A

+Reduced imports, greater exports –> C.A surplus+Higher economic growth+Lower rates of unemployment

408
Q

What are the disadvantages of a depreciation of a currency?

A

-Higher inflation-Will only lead to a C.A surplus if Marshall-Lerner condition is met

409
Q

State the Marshall-Lerner condition.

A

A devaluation of a currency will only lead to a rise in the trade balance if the combined elasticities of demand for exports and imports is greater than one.

410
Q

What are financial markets?

A

Financial markets are where buyers and sellers can buy and trade a range of monetary or financial services and assets.

411
Q

What are the functions of financial markets?

A
  1. Facilitate savings2. Lend to businesses and individuals3. Facilitate exchange of goods through a payment system4. Provide a forward market5. Provide an equity market
412
Q

Explain how financial markets facilitate savings.

A

Transfer spending power from the present into the future by storing money in a savings account or holding shares in the stock market.

413
Q

Explain how financial markets facilitate lending to businesses, individuals and governments.

A

Act as a financial intermediary as the step between taking the money from one person to another, since money from savings is used for investment. Lending allows and encourage consumption, investment and government spending.

414
Q

Explain how financial markets facilitate the exchange of goods and services.

A

Create a payment system, central banks print notes, institutions process digital transations, companies offer offer credit card services, banks buy and sell foreign currencies.

415
Q

What is a forward market?

A

When parties agree to buy or sell an asset at a future date for a price determined in the present.

416
Q

What is a futures market?

A

When a price is agreed for a transaction that will be carried out at some future date - involves high levels of market speculation.

417
Q

Explain how financial markets provide a forward market.

A

The forward market exists for commodity markets and in foreign exchange, and helps to protect against speculation by providing stability.

418
Q

What is an equity market?

A

Where stocks and shares of companies are bought and sold.

419
Q

Explain how financial markets provide a market for equities.

A

Stock markets provide a way for owners to create liquidity in the market which allows for firms to finance expansion, however people would be unlikely to buy shares if they were unable to sell them later.

420
Q

What is a money market?

A

Financial market in which borrowing is facilitated for a short-term, typically under one year.

421
Q

What is a capital market?

A

Financial market in which longer-term (> 1 year) financing is traded - includes Government bonds, shares.

422
Q

What is a spot market?

A

A financial market in which a transaction is made immediately at the prevailing price.

423
Q

What is a foreign-exchange market?

A

A market where different currencies are traded, they can be spot markets, contract for the present, or forward markets where contracts are made for some time in the future. Highly speculative market are financial institutions aim to make a short-term profit from a volatile market.

424
Q

What is a commodity market?

A

Where raw goods like gold, oil, and agricultural products are bought and sold.

425
Q

What are derivatives in finance?

A

Derivatives in finance are financial contracts whose value is derived from the performance of an underlying asset, index, or rate.

426
Q

What is a derivatives market?

A

Where people buy and sell financial assets that are based on the value of other financial assets, eg. CDOs values were based on the performance of U.S. mortgages.

427
Q

What is an insurance market?

A

Where individuals, firms and governments can buy insurance. Involves risk assessment and mitigation so no insurance company carries too much risk in case of a disaster.

428
Q

What is a collateralised debt obligation (CDO)?

A

A collateralised debt obligation is a financial derivative from the mortgage market.

429
Q

How did investment bankers expect to make money through the purchase of collateralised debt obligations?

A

Investment bankers invested heavily in CDO’s due to their ever-increasing values in the housing market caused by vast speculation and false credit ratings creating a market bubble as a result.

430
Q

Why did CDO’s fall in value rapidly?

A

Subprime mortgages were sold without proper documentation or proof of income, which led to defaults by ineligible homeowners, causing a surge in home supply, a drop in home values, and consequetly reduced demand due to a negative wealth effect. This, coupled with increased mortgage defaults, contributed to the bursting of the CDO bubble.

431
Q

What is a credit default swap?

A

A financial contract agreement acting like insurance that the seller will compensate the buyer in the event of a debt default.

432
Q

What is a credit crunch?

A

A sudden reduction in the general availability of loans or credit in financial markets.

433
Q

What can trigger a credit crunch?

A
  1. When lenders have limited funds available to lend2. Lenders are unwilling to lend additional funds3. Lenders have increased the cost of borrowing to a rate unaffordable for most borrowers
434
Q

What are subprime mortgages?

A

Mortgage loans that are granted to borrowers who do not qualify for conventional mortgage, they do not ask for proof of income or any documentation.

435
Q

What did the UK Monetary Policy do in response to the 2008 Global Financial Crisis?

A

UK MPC implemented signifcant expansionary measures by lowering interest rates to 0.5% in 2009 and a new system called Quantitative Easing, by increasing the money supply to reduce long-term bond interest rates to stimulate the economy.

436
Q

Explain how market bubbles may arise in financial markets, providing an example.

A

Market bubbles in financial markets arise when asset prices significantly exceed their intrinsic values due to speculative buying, leading to a sudden and unsustainable increase in demand.In 2008, CDOs led to excessive speculation and the belief that they will ever-increase because they were caused by prime mortgages led to a crash as they were in fact subprime mortgages.

437
Q

Explain how asymmetric information may arise in financial markets, providing an example.

A

Asymmetric information in financial markets occurs when one party has more perfect information than the other. During the 2008 Recession, the real rating of mortgages was unknown by investment banks as credit rating agencies rated subprime mortgages as prime with AAA ratings.

438
Q

Explain how externalities may arise in financial markets, providing an example.

A

Externalities in financial markets arise when the actions of one party affect others without corresponding compensation or recognition.In 2008, the burst of the CDO market bubble led to not only investors being harmed, but the cost of bailing out the banks was to the taxpayer, alongside there being significant job losses.

439
Q

Explain how moral hazards may arise in financial markets, providing an example.

A

Moral hazards arise in financial markets when individuals or institutions take risks, knowing that they won’t bear the full consequences of their actions.Financial institutions were accused of pursuing short-term profit by taking excessive risk because they would be bailed out by the governments again.

440
Q

Explain how market rigging may arise in financial markets, providing an example.

A

Market rigging in financial markets occurs when participants manipulate market conditions or prices to gain an unfair advantage.

441
Q

Explain how regulatory capture may arise in financial markets.

A

When regulatory agencies, instead of serving the public interest, become influenced or controlled by the industries they are meant to regulate.

442
Q

Summarise the South Sea Bubble.

A

Investors were lured into buying shares of the South Sea Company, expecting huge profits from overseas trade. However, the company’s actual operations were limited, and the bubble burst, causing a financial crisis and substantial losses for investors in 1720.

443
Q

Summarise the Payment Protection Insurance (PPI) scandal.

A

Involved the widespread mis-selling of insurance to customers in the UK alongside loans and credit cards. Financial institutions misled consumers, and when the scandal surfaced, these institutions faced large compensation claims for the mis-sold policies, leading to financial and reputational consequences.

444
Q

Summarise the Libor scandal.

A

Involved the manipulation of the London Interbank Offered Rate (Libor), a key interest rate. Banks were found to have submitted false rates to benefit their own trading positions. The scandal led to fines for major financial institutions.

445
Q

Explain the saying ‘run on the banks’?

A

Where a large number of depositors rush to withdraw their money from a bank due to concerns about the bank’s solvency or financial stability. This can lead to a crisis for the bank if it faces liquidity issues and struggles to meet the sudden demand for withdrawals.

446
Q

Explain the saying ‘Hedge your bets’.

A

To reduce the risk of a negative outcome by making additional investments or taking precautions.

447
Q

What are the primary roles of central banks?

A
  1. Control monetary policy through interest rates and the money supply to keep inflation low and stable2. Act as a bank to the government3. Act as a bank to other banks4. Regulate the overall financial market
448
Q

How is the financial market regulated to prevent large-scale crashes?

A

Regulation includes preventing market rigging, banning unsuitable product sales, capping interest rates to avoid consumer exploitation, ensuring deposit insurance for stability, and enforcing liquidity ratios for prudent banking.

449
Q

What is meant by prudential regulation?

A

Rules and standards imposed by financial regulatory authorities to ensure the stability and soundness of financial institutions, protecting the interests of depositors, investors, and the overall financial system

450
Q

What is the role of the FPC - Financial Policy Committee?

A

It identifies and monitors risks that threaten the resilience of the UK financial system as a whole. It also has power to take action to counter those risks. An example of such a risk is unsustainable levels of debt and credit growth.

451
Q

What is the role of the PRA - Prudential Regulation Authority?

A

Responsible for the prudential regulation and supervision of around 1,500 banks, building societies, credit unions, insurers and major investment firms.

452
Q

What is the role of the FCA - Financial Conduct Authority?

A

Responsible for the regulation the conduct of nearly 45,000 businesses in the UK to ensure that financial markets work well and fairly.

453
Q

What is the role of the FSCS - Financial Services Compensation Scheme?

A

Protects consumers when financial institutions fail. If a bank collapses, consumers and businesses are eligible for a claim of up to £85,000.

454
Q

What is stress testing, and what is its purpose?

A

Regulatory authorities present hypothetical economic ‘What If?’ scenarios to commercial banks such as high inflation and unemployment based on the UK’s economic cycle. It also ensures these banks hold a minimum reserve of liquid capital to absorb losses in case of a crisis.

455
Q

What is systematic risk?

A

The risk that is inherent to the entire market which cannot be eliminated through diversification and is associated with economic downturns, changes in interest rates and geopolitical events.

456
Q

What is ring fencing?

A

UK banks are required by UK law to separate core retail banking services from their investment and international banking activities to prevent risky decisions made by commerical banks affecting consumers.