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Quality and Operations Management > Integrated Product Development > Flashcards

Integrated Product Development Flashcards

1
Q

What are the six elements of The Development Framework?

A
  1. Project definition (scope,bounds and objectives)
  2. Project organisation and staffing
  3. Project management and leadership (phases,tasks management and checkpoints)
  4. Problem solving, testing and prototyping
  5. Senior management review and control
  6. Real-time / midcourse corrections
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2
Q

What two areas are important for the success in new product development?

A
  1. Effectiveness (Doing the right things), e.g strategic choices, resource planning
  2. Efficiency (Doing things right), e.g processes, organisation
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3
Q

What are the three biggest challenges of the development funnel?

A
  1. Widening the mouth of the funnel
  2. Narrowing the neck of the funnel
  3. Managing the selected individual projects
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4
Q

What are the three different models of Development Funnels?

A

Model I: R&D driven, survival of the fittest. A grass roots, bubble up model in which development is driven by R&D
Model II: A few big bets. A top down model common in small, entrepreneurial start-ups, in which the firm bets on a single project
Model III: Innovative and focused. A combination of Model I and II with the screening and phases of II and the focus on big bets of I

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5
Q

What is the definition of a project?

A

A “Project” is defined as a set of tasks to achieve stated objectives, with complexity and uncertainty, where cross-functional teams are needed. A “Project” is unique and temporary

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6
Q

What are the three project classes (sizes), what do they mean and what is an example of a project?

A

A - Project large, strategic
* Strategic and/or high risk projects or new product or new application. E.g new product (Lead time over 12 months)
B - Project medium
* E.g engine exchange (Lead time under 12 months)
C - Project small
* E.g new option for product (Lead time less than six months)

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7
Q

What are the five project categories?

A
  1. Product development (PD)
  2. Product modification (PM)
  3. Technology and Process development (TD)
  4. Raw material development (RM)
  5. Safety and Environment (SE)
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8
Q

What does the waterfall model mean and what are its’ components?

A

The Waterfall model is a sequential model for product development that starts from idea and ends in a final product. Its components are Idea - Analysis - Design - Development - Test - Final Product

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9
Q

What is important to keep in mind when it comes to time and cost of projects?

A

The more a project progresses, the more expensive it is to perform a change

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10
Q

What is the viewpoint of The Stage-Gate model?

A

The Stage-Gate views New Product Development (NPD) as a process and any process can be redesigned to be faster and more effective

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11
Q

What is the game plan of the Stage-Gate model?

A

To break the process of moving from idea to successful product into a series of stages or phases where each stage is preceded by a gate (which is a decision point for go/kill)

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12
Q

What is the common format of the gates presented in the Stage-Gate model and what do they mean?

A

Input - Criteria - Output
* Input: Prescribed list of deliverables that the project leader must present at gate
* Criteria: A set of hurdles, criteria or questions that project is judged on
* Outputs: The decision of Go/Kill/Hold/Recycle with an approved action plan

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13
Q

What is a Tollgate (TG)?

A

A tollgate is a review of the business case and a business-like decision point where the project sponsor may stop the project

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14
Q

What is a Milestone (MS)?

A

A decision point where the progress of the project is reviewed. The decision to pass or not is made by the product itself. The outcome of the milestone serves as an input to the tollgate decision

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15
Q

What is the definition of AGILE?

A

AGILE is a method of project management (used most frequently in software development) that is characterised by the division of tasks into short phases of work and frequent reassessment and adaptation of plans

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16
Q

What are the four values of the Agile manifesto?

A
  1. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
  2. Working software over comprehensive documentation
  3. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
  4. Responding to change over following a plan
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17
Q

What are the key differences in project contra sprint planning?

A

Project planning:
Project managers are responsible
Centralised
Sprint planning:
The team is responsible
Decentralised

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18
Q

What are the two central agile principles?

A
  1. Shorten the learning cycle
  2. Ensure feedback (tech/client)
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19
Q

What are the three roles of SCRUM and what do they do?

A
  1. The product owner
    Is the voice of the customer and responsible for managing the product backlog. Is also the main representative for the team
  2. The development team
    Delivers solutions (=increments). Is self-organised and cross-functional
  3. The Scrum master
    Supports the team in scrum methodology by ensuring that goals, scope and product domain are understood by the team. Also coaches the development team to improve and removes impediments
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20
Q

What are the four events of SCRUM and what do they include?

A
  1. Sprint planning
    What is the goal of this sprint and how much can we achieve?
  2. Daily scrum - A short daily stand-up meeting (status check)
  3. Sprint review - Did we meet the target? Do we need to adjust the backlog for next spring?
  4. Retrospective - Reflect on performance, processes and tools. How can we improve?
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21
Q

What are the three artefacts of SCRUM and what do they mean?

A
  1. Product backlog - Everything known to be needed to develop the product in a prioritised list
  2. Sprint backlog - A subset of the product backlog selected for the ongoing sprint, managed visually
  3. Increment - The sum of completed backlog items during a sprint, must be in usable condition and is a step towards the ultimate goal
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22
Q

How long should a sprint be?

A

1 - 4 weeks

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23
Q

What does a decentralised planning imply?

A

A shift from vertical coordination to horisontal coordination

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24
Q

What is set-based concurrent engineering?

A

Set-based means multiple projects and concurrent means at the same time. SBCE is a method for keeping expensive changes to a minimum by having multiple ongoing projects

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25
Q

What are the potential benefits of being set-based in product development?

A
  • Makes it possible to include a back-up solution
  • Reduces lead time
  • Delays decisions to a late stage
    where the best information is
    available
  • Explores many possible designs at
    the same time
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26
Q

What are three tools for planning in bigger organisations?

A
  1. Pulse room - Where a senior manager involves lower management to sort out questions and solve problems
  2. Visual planning - A board of post-it notes that illustrate progress
  3. Digital whiteboards - Such as “Mural” and “Miro”
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27
Q

What are the two important dimensions in the organisation of companies?

A
  1. Formalisation - The degree to which the firm utilises rules and procedures to structure the behaviour of employees
  2. Standardisation - The degree to which activities are performed in a uniform manner
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28
Q

In organisational theory, what are the two common PD structures and what characterises them?

A
  1. Mechanistic structure - High formalisation and standardisation. Good for operational efficiency and reliability, minimises variation (may stifle creativity)
  2. Organic struture - Low formalisation and standardisation. Encourages creativity and experimentation, may yield low consistency and reliability in manufacturing
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29
Q

What are the differences between Organic and Mechanistic structures in terms of strategy, size, technology and environment?

A

*Organic
Strategy: Innovation
Size: Smaller
Technology: Non-routine
Environment: Dynamic & complex
*Mechanistic
Strategy: Cost-minimisation
Size: Larger
Technology: Routine
Environment: Stable & Simple

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30
Q

What is the functional structure?

A

An organisational structure that divides the company into functions e.g manufacturing, sales

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31
Q

What does the term centralisation mean?

A

Centralisation is the degree to which decision-making authority is kept at top levels of the firm OR the degree to which activities are performed at a central location

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32
Q

What are the pros and cons of centralisation contra decentralisation?

A
  • Centralisation
    Pros: Low cost, consistency & efficiency
    Cons: Lack of flexibility to customise, bureaucracy & delays
  • Decentralisation
    Pros: Employee ownership, flexilitity & agility
    Cons: High costs & lack of uniformity
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33
Q

What are the potential benefits of offshore R&D?

A

Closer to “lead” markets, better integration with local production, more responsive to local regulations, access to foreign centres of excellence and greater efficiency in production and innovation

34
Q

What are the potential costs/downsides of offshore R&D?

A

Reduced economies of scale and scope, disadvantage of being outsider in the host country innovation system, increased barriers to internal knowledge transfer and leakage of key technology to foreign competitors

35
Q

What are the three trends in global R&D and product management?

A
  1. Previously outsourced R&D is more frequently brought back home
  2. Product development projects increasingly make use of virtual tools
  3. End-to-end accountability and commercial success are increasingly important
36
Q

What is uncertainty?

A

It is the difference between the amount of information required to perform the task and the amount of information already possessd by the organisation

37
Q

What are the four organisational mechanisms?

A
  1. Hierarchy of authority
  2. Rules, programs and procedures
  3. Planning and goal setting
  4. Narrowing span of control
38
Q

When the organisational mechanisms of handling uncertainty aren’t enough, what are the two alternatives for organisations to solve this?

A
  1. Reduce the need for information
    or
  2. Increase the capacity to process information
39
Q

What are the three procedures for organisations to reduce the need for information processing?

A
  1. Environmental management -
    Navigating and responding to the
    external environment
  2. Creation of slack resources - A
    decrease in performance through
    increasing resources such as
    man-hours
  3. Creation of self-contained tasks -
    “Dividing the task into subtasks”
40
Q

What are the two procedures for organisations to increase their capacity of processing information?

A
  1. Invest in vertical information systems
  2. Creation of lateral relations -
    Managers can communicate
    directly with higher ups
41
Q

In the traditional structure, what are the four (five) steps?

A
  1. Marketing
  2. Design
    (3. Purchase)
  3. Work planning
  4. Manufacturing assembly
42
Q

Name some of the integration barriers present in companies

A
  1. Competence
  2. Status
  3. Culture
  4. Organisational affiliation
  5. Geographical distance
  6. Goals
  7. Time pressure
  8. Information availability
43
Q

What is Design for Assembly (DFA) and Design for Manufacturing (DFM)?

A

DFA is the optimisation of the product and assembly process while DFM focuses on materials selection and manufacturing processors

44
Q

Name some of the Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA) guidelines

A
  1. Minimise total number of parts
  2. Develop a modular design
  3. Use standard components
  4. Design parts to be
    multifunctional
  5. Design parts for multi-use
  6. Design parts for ease of
    fabrication
  7. Avoid separate fasteners
  8. Minimise assembly directions
  9. Maximise complicance
  10. Minimise handling
45
Q

What are the quantitative evaluations methods for DFMA?

A

Design for assembly (DFA) and reducibility engineering

46
Q

In DFA, what are the six variables?

A
  1. Components (two types)
  2. Fasteners (nine types)
  3. Attachment points (six types)
  4. Assembly difficulty (five types)
  5. Fixation degree (two types)
  6. Assembly direction (five types)
47
Q

What are the six steps of DFA analysis?

A
  1. Obtain the best information about the product of assembly (drawings, views and prototypes)
  2. Take the assembly apart, assign an identification number to each item as it is removed
  3. Re-assemble the product, part-by-part and complete the worksheet row-by-row
  4. Estimate the manual assembly time, the assembly cost and the theoretical minimum number of parts
  5. Calculate the Design Efficiency (DE)
  6. Re-design the product and calculate a new DE
48
Q

In the context of integration mechanisms, what are the six lateral processes?

A

1.Direct contact
2.Liaison roles (Link between
people/departments roles)
3.Integrating roles
4.Task forces (temporary problem
solving groups)
5.Cross-functional teams
6.Matrix design

49
Q

What are the four dimensions of communication and what are their intervals?

A
  1. Richness of media - Sparse to rich
  2. Frequency - Low to high
  3. Direction - One-way to two-way
  4. Timing - Late to early
50
Q

What are the four types of development teams, generally?

A
  1. Functional team structure
  2. Lightweight team structure
  3. Heavyweight team structure
  4. Autonomous team structure
51
Q

What are the characteristics of a functional team structure?

A
  • No cross-functional integration, employees remain within functional departments
  • Members report to functional manager
  • Temporary structure and members may spend less than 10% of their time on project
  • Typically no project manager or dedicated liaison personnel
  • Little opportunity for cross-functional integration
  • Likely to be appropriate for derivative projects
52
Q

What are the characteristics of a lightweight team structure?

A
  • Employees remain within functionla departments but project manager provides cross-functional integration
  • Members report to functional manager
  • Temporary structure and members may spend less than 25% of their time on project
  • Typically has a project manager and dedicated liaison personnel
  • Manager is typically junior or middle management
  • Likely to be appropriate for derivative projects
53
Q

What are the characteristics for a heavyweight team structure?

A
  • Project manager provides cross-functional integration, team members are collocated but still report to functional managers also
  • Members are collocated with project manager
  • Manager is typically senior and has significant authority to command resources and evaluate members
  • Often still a temporary structure, but core team members often dedicate full-time to project
  • Likely to be appropriate for platform projects
54
Q

What are the characteristics of an autonomous team structure?

A
  • Project manager provides cross-functional integration, team members are collocated and report only to project manager
  • Members are collocated and dedicated full-time (often permanently) to team
  • Project manager is typically very senior manager
  • Project manager is given full control over resources contributed from functional departments and has exclusive authority over evaluation and reward of members
  • Autonomous teams may have own policies, procedures and reward systems
  • Likely to be appropriate for breakthrough and major platform projects
  • Can be difficult to fold back into the organisation
55
Q

Name some of the success criteria of a cross-functional team (Max 7)

A
  1. Less than ten members in the core team
  2. Team members volunteer to the project
  3. Team members stay in the project from concept to market introduction
  4. Project members work full time on the project
  5. Project members report primarily to the project leader
  6. All key functions are part of the team from the beginning
  7. The team members are located within discussion distance
56
Q

What is true about the amount of projects an engineer is assigned to and the amount of individuals assigned to a team?

A

When an engineer is assigned to more than two development projects, the value spent on value-adding tasks is greatly decreased. The same follows for the amount of individuals assigned to a team.

57
Q

What are project portfolio reviews and how often should they be done?

A

Portfolio feviews enable an overview of all projects underway and allow for midcourse corrections. The process should be done 2-4 times per year

58
Q

What is the role of the project sponsor?

A

The project sponsor is the receiver of the project result and initiates the project through a pre-study proposal and/or a project request. Their main task is to be a part of the steering committee and define targets and priorities

59
Q

What is the role of the project steering committee

A

The committee is the decision organ for specific projects, during the complete project process. The corporate or business management appoints the committee for gate decisions after the decision has been made to start a project. Their main task is to review and control the details of the project process, in all phases and at all gates

60
Q

What is the role of the project manager?

A

A person from corporate (R&D, procurement) and/or a business unit that is dedicated to a project with the main task of driving the project forward, making a project plan, reporting and controlling

61
Q

What are project charters used for?

A

They are used for administrating the team, defining the project mission and provididing measurable goals

62
Q

What is the purpose of a project contract book?

A

To in detail define the basic plan for achieving the goals laid out in the charter. It provides a tool for monitoring and evaluating the team’s performance. Typically provides estimates of resources required, development time schedule and results that will be achieved

63
Q

What is the role of the reference group?

A

To provide external expertise or resources to larger projects. The main task of the reference group is to support and challenge the projects manager as well as react upon proposals from the project team

64
Q

What is the role of the line manager?

A

To supply for a defined outcome and/or competent resources as agreed on with the project manager

65
Q

What is the project matrix?

A

The project matrix states that while the project manager is responsible for what to do and when to do it, the line manager is responsible for how to do it and who shall do it

66
Q

What are the four responsibilities of the project organisation?

A
  1. Goal setting and fulfilment
  2. That time schedules and budgets are kept
  3. Changes when necessary
  4. Continuous reporting
67
Q

What are the four responsibilities of the line organsiation?

A
  1. Resources allocation
  2. A “professional” carry out
  3. The people and the equipment
  4. Long term development
68
Q

What are the responsibilities of project team members?

A
  • Familiarise themselves with the project background, end effects and preconditions
  • Are responsible for carrying out their own work contributions as agreed
  • Cooperate with other team mebers to achieve the goals and objectives
  • Contribute towards a good working atmosphere
  • Suggest improvements and inform about/discover deviances and changes
  • Report to the project manager on present situation and on achieved results
69
Q

What is knowledge driven PD?

A

KDPD originates from the Wright brothers that understood that closing the knowledge gap before starting to build is more wise than only building without understanding underlying principles first

70
Q

What are the six steps of the design-build-test-cycle?

A
  1. Establish goals (Find gap between targets and current designs)
  2. Frame of problem
  3. Generate alternatives
  4. Build models or prototypes
  5. Run experiments or simulations
  6. Evaluate results
71
Q

What is the Technology Readiness Level (TRL) scale?

A

The TRL scale was created by NASA and shows the abstraction of a solution or a set of information in relation to its end goal on a scale of one to nine. For a prototype, TRL 6 is fitting

72
Q

Name a few PD methods & tools (Max 10)

A
  1. Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
  2. Pugh Concept Selection
  3. Kesselring
  4. Taguchi methods
  5. Failure Identification Techniques
  6. Design for Manufacturability and Assembly
  7. Virtual Reality (VR)
  8. Augmented Reality (AR)
  9. Artificial Intelligence (AI)
  10. Prototyping
73
Q

What are four types of prototypes?

A
  1. Physical prototypes, tangible
  2. Analytical prototypes, non-tangible
  3. Comprehensive vs. Focused prototypes, all attributes vs one or a few
  4. Alfa, Beta and Pre-production prototypes
74
Q

Name a few Rapid Prototyping (RP) techniques (Max 8)

A

Solid
1. Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM)
2. Fused Deposit Modeling (FGM/3D printing)
Liquid
3. Stereolithograpy (SLA)
4. Solid Ground Curing (SGC)
5. Droplet Deposition Manufacturing (DDM)
Powder
6. Direct Metal Laser Sintering (DMLS)
7. Laser Deposition Technology (LDT)
8. Electron Beam Melting (EBM)

75
Q

What is a platform?

A

A collection of assets that are shared by a set of products

76
Q

In R&D, what are the key components of efficiency contra effectiveness (According to platform development)

A

Efficiency: Speed, cost and quality
Effectiveness: Business strategy alignment and customer focus

77
Q

In platform and modularisation strategies, what are the three decisions to make?

A
  1. What should be common and what should be different? (Market related)
  2. Appropriate variety for each module (Market related)
  3. The interface (Technical)
78
Q

What are the organisational challenges with product platform and modularisation development?

A
  • Most companies know that there are large benefits to gain from the platform and modularisation strategies, however:
    There are challenges with implementation, there is a general resistance towards change and the market function thinks that this is the same as standardisation, which they do not like
79
Q

What are the four approaches to building capability according to Wheelwright & Clark?

A
  1. Creating a development strategy
  2. Changing the development process
  3. Creating building block skills and tools
  4. The demonstration project
80
Q

What are the four modes of upstream-downstream interaction in companies?

A
  1. Serial/Batch - One-way batch information late
  2. Early start in the dark - Same as 1 but even later
  3. Early involvement - Richer two-way communication
  4. Integrated problem solving - Earlier than 3
81
Q
A

Quality and Operations Management (3 decks)

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