Gastroenterolgy + Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

hepatic disease caused by obstruction of hepatic venous outflow

triad: hepatomegaly, abdo pain, ascites, jaundice

treatment:
-drain ascites
-anti-coags
-surgery?

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2
Q

Where does the coeliac trunk, superior and inferior mesenteric arteries orginate?

A

T12- C
L1- S
L3- I

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3
Q

What is the difference in blood results between hypothyroidism, secondary hypothyroidism, euthyroid sick syndrome, hyperthyroidism and secondary hyperthyroidism?

A

hypothyroidism = T4 low and TSH high
hyponatremia, Raised Bilirubin, ALT

secondary hypothyroidism = T4 is low and TSH low/normal

euthyroid sick syndrome = Low T3, Normal or low TSH, normal T4

hyperthyroidism = High T4, low TSH

secondary hyperthyroidism = high T4, high TSH

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4
Q

What does a positive Murphy’s sign suggest?

A

palpate gallbladder and if positive –> cholecystitis

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5
Q

What is the average age to diagnose type 1 diabetes?

A

12

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6
Q

What is diverticular disease/diverticulitis?

A

Affects LARGE colon

Diverticular disease/diverticulosis= small bulges or pockets (diverticula) develop in the lining of the intestine = supportive treatment

Diverticulitis = these pockets become inflamed or infected = treatment below

pain, constipation, diarrhoea, sometimes blood, mucus if infected

colonoscopy + CT scan

diet change, paracetamol NOT NSAIDs, antibiotics-Co-amoxiclav, surgery

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7
Q

What is the management for small bower obstruction caused by adhesions?

A

smALL bowel obstruction = bowel lines cross ALL the way across

No surgery needed–> insert NG tube to allow bowel rest, give fluids, anti-emetics and pain relief

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8
Q

What is Coeliac’s disease, symptoms, investigations and management?

A

Autoimmune disorder where gluten is not broken down fully and leads to chronic inflammation and malabsorption

Symptoms:
rash, change in bowel habits, fatigue, iron and B12 deficiency, osteomalacia

Investigations:
-TTG (tissue transglutaminase) Antibodies
-IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA)
-duodenal endoscopy biopsy which shows:

villous atrophy, raised intra-epithelial lymphocytes and crypt hyperplasia

Management:
Gluten free diet
Pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years
Correct anaemia
Refer to dietician

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9
Q

How do you treat hypoglycaemia?

A

Conscious: oral glucose, don’t stop insulinun

conscious or unable to swallow: subcut or IM glucagon

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10
Q

What is Cori’s disease?

A

Glycogen storage diseases (GSDs) are a group of inherited genetic disorders that cause glycogen to be improperly stored in the body.

Children with glycogen storage diseases have a buildup of abnormal amounts or types of glycogen in their tissues.there are 8 types and Cori is number THREE

symtpoms:
Swollen abdomen due to an enlarged liver
Growth delay during childhood
Low blood sugar
Elevated fat levels in blood
muscle weakness (hypotonia): main one

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11
Q

What is zinc deficiency?

A

-low zinc levels causing reduced taste, growth and sexual maturity
-causes acrodermatitis enteropathica (recurrent infection)

diagnosed by measuring:
-zinc
-high zinc in morning and low in evening
-increased zinc with diuretics but decreased in COCP and steroids
-high copper in zinc deficiency

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12
Q

What is volvulus?

A

abnormal twisting of a part of the large or small intestine –> bowel obstruction

abdominal pain and tenderness
vomiting green bile
nausea
distended abdomen
bloody stool
constipation
shock

examine stool for blood, barium X-rays, CT, sigmoidoscopy

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13
Q

Clinically, how can you tell if it’s a direct or indirect hernia?

A

Ultrasound = most reliable

press on the hernia and if hernia reappears it is more likely to be a direct inguinal hernia whereas if it does not, it is more likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia

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14
Q

What is the difference between fresh blood and melena in stool?

A

fresh blood = lower GI bleed

melena = upper GI bleed, reverse warfarin if on it and keep off blood thinners

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15
Q

What organs are retroperitoneal?

A

SAD PUCKER

suprarenal (adrenal) glands
aorta/IVC
duodenum: 3rd part
pancreas
ureters
colon: ascending + descending
kidney
Esophagus
Rectum

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16
Q

What is the difference between an inguinal and femoral hernia anatomically?

A

Inguinal = medial to pubic tubercle

femoral = lateral to pubic tubercle

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17
Q

What hormones does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A

ADH/vasopressin and oxytocin.

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18
Q

What are the 6 hormones that the anterior pituitary gland secretes?

A

FLAT-PeG

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH-thyroid
Prolactin
Growth hormone

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19
Q

What is the difference between salmonella and e.coli?

A

If it’s from undercooked food e.coli affects lasts longer whereas salmonella is usually just a day.

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20
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed?

A

Fasting serum glucose: >7mmol

random serum glucose: >11.1 mmol

HbA1c: >6.5%

2hr glucose test: GTT>11.1

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21
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

rare autosomal recessive disorder that causes copper to accumulate in your liver, brain and other vital organs.
ATP7B gene

-LFTs, 24hr urine copper

-Fatigue, lack of appetite or abdominal pain
-psychosis
-A yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eye (jaundice)
-Golden-brown eye discoloration (Kayser-Fleischer rings)
-Fluid buildup in the legs or abdomen
-Problems with speech, swallowing or physical coordination
-Uncontrolled movements or muscle stiffness

-D-penicillamine tablets (related to penicillan)
-Trientine tablets
-zinc

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22
Q

What are haemorrhoids (piles)?

A

lumps inside and around your anus
common in straining when pooing, pregnancy, long-term constipation, persistent cough, age

bright red blood after you poo
itchy anus
feeling like you still need to poo after going to the toilet
mucus in your underwear or on toilet paper- SLIMY POO
lumps and pain around your anus

increase fibre in diet
warm bath
Witch hazel wipes (Tucks) - local anaesthetic
hydrocortisone cream

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23
Q

What is Barrett’s oesophagus and the treatment?

A

Columnar lined oesophagus due to acid reflux

caused by GORD/hiatus hernia

stop NSAIDs
start PPI e.g. omeprazole for ONE MONTH and then test for H.pylori if not helpful
start H2 antagonists e.g. famotidine (anti-acid)

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24
Q

What is a normal blood glucose?

A

4-8

Normal plasma glucose: 4-6

below 4, on the floor

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25
Q

What is the clinical difference between biliary colic, cholecystitis and cholangitis?

A

biliary colic = ONLY colicky RUQ pain = analgesia + fat free diet

cholecystitis = prolonged RUQ pain and fever

acute cholangitis = RUQ pain, fever and jaundice

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26
Q

Why is urea raised in GI bleeds?

A

blood is digested to protein

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27
Q

What drugs could you give to type 2 diabetes for treatment and how do you choose which one?

A

Metformin

gliclazide: blocks potassium, calcium comes in, insulin released

saxagliptin: inhibits DPP-IV

Exenatide: incretin mimetics activates GLP-1, injection, in obese people

Dapagliflozin: Gliflozins, blockes sodium/glucose2 symporter in nephron, increased chance of UTIs, used in cardiac failure

1st: metformin and titrate up slowly each week. If not working try modified release metformin.only add a second drug if HbA1c is >58 (not including dapagliflozin)
2nd: metformin + dapagliflozin (risk of developing cardiovascular disease)
3rd: metformin + gliptin or sulfonylurea (that order) +/- dapagliflozin

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28
Q

What is Hirschbrungs disease?

A

Poo is sticky and sticks to walls of intestine —> no passage of poo

should be seen when they are born- failure to pass meconium!!

persistent constipation, swollen tummy, failure to pass poo in 48hrs, vomiting green bile

Rectal washouts and bowel irrigation

rectal biopsy + surgery is a must

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29
Q

When is the right time to perform an endoscopy?

A

between 6-24hrs of them presenting

Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score:
0-23
0 being very low risk of mortality/complications with the endoscopy

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30
Q

What blood result would make acute pancreatitis stand out instead of it being acute cholecystitis, cholangitis or hepatitis?

A

acute pancreatitis would have a very high amylase

hepatitis: skewered LFTs
cholangitis: higher billirubin

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31
Q

How is DKA diagnosed and treated?

A

Hyperglycaemia (>11), ketonaemia (>3 and urine), acidosis (ph low <7.3)

treatment in this order:
-fluids (slowly to prevent cerebral oedema)
-insulin: 0.1 /kg/hour
-potassium
-if diabetic: continue long acting insulin but stop short acting

Hourly check of blood sugar
2hr check of potassium + HCO3

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32
Q

What are the symptoms of the following vitamin deficiencies:
B1-thiamine
B2- riboflavin
B3- niacin
B6- pyridoxine
B12- cobalamin

A

B1- tiredness, loss of appetite, muscle weakness

B2- fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, depression

B3- pellagra (dark, scaly rash to develop on skin areas exposed to sunlight), bright redness of the tongue, constipation/diarrhoea

B6- microcytic anemia, dermatitis with cheilosis (scaling on the lips and cracks at the corners of the mouth) and glossitis (swollen tongue), depression and confusion, and weakened immune function

B12- fatigue, SOB, pale, headaches, palpitations, weight/appetite loss, tinnitus, yellow skin tinge, mouth ulcers, pins and needles

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33
Q

Where is respiratory acidosis/alkalosis and metabolic acidosis/alkalosis seen?

A

respiratory acidosis = Too little ventilation e.g. COPD and asthma

respiratory alkalosis = Too much ventilation e.g. anxiety attack, brain disorders, chronic liver disease

metabolic acidosis = DKA

metabolic alkalosis = vomiting, diuretics, corticosteroid excess, Cushing’s, Conn’s (too much aldosterone)

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34
Q

What vitamin is given to alcoholics and why?

A

Vitamin B1- Thiamine

to prevent a type of brain damage called Wernicke encephalopathy- trio of symtpoms:
-confusion
-ataxia (inability to coordinate voluntary movement = liver flap!! If this is present then check ammonia!!)
-eye abnormalities

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35
Q

What is the normal units of alcohol a week for men and women?

A

14 units

Bottle of wine=10units

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36
Q

Could an alcoholic/heavy drinking present with blood in their vomit, if so, how?

A

liver damage –> portal hypertension –> varices in oesophagus –> vomiting with blood

They might present being distended abdomen with ascites, pain and jaundice

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37
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

not enough cortisol and aldosterone—> synacthen test

FATIGUE
ABDO PAIN
VOMITING
LOW BP
LOW SODIUM
hyperpigmentation- darkened skin
low mood
loss of appetite and unintentional weight loss
increased thirst

replace hormones + adrenal crisis/”Addisonian crisis” = give hydrocortisone

hydrocortisone (most of it given in morning) and fludrocortisone

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38
Q

What would be the most likely cause of splenic atrophy?

A

Bleeding—> anaemia—> !!coeliac disease !!

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39
Q

Can you stop taking steroids suddenly?

A

No, it has to be gradual as it can interfere with the adrenal glands + hormones.

ADRENAL CRISIS

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40
Q

How is acute cholecystitis treated?

A

antibiotics: cephalosporin (cefruoxime) OR piperacillin/tazobactam (tazocin) AND metronidazole

surgery: laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week of diagnosis

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41
Q

How do gallstones present and how are they treated?

A

Female, Fertile, Fat, Fair, and Forty

biliary colic pain/cholecystitis/epigastric, right quadrant, right shoulder pain/after fatty foods –> diagnosed by ultrasound

asymptomatic (80% of people are) = no treatment

symptomatic = laparoscopic cholecystectomy

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42
Q

How do you treat alcoholic hepatitis?

A

prednisolone

calculate Maddrey’s function by using bilirubin and prothrombin time

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43
Q

What is Mirizzi’s syndrome?

A

a complication of gallstones causing common hepatic duct obstruction

very rare

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44
Q

What does the ‘double-duct’ sign indicate?

A

dilatation of the common bile duct and pancreatic ducts –> pancreatic cancer

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45
Q

What is the treatment for a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

calculate Glasgow Blatchford bleeding score (GBS)
PPI
terlipressin acetate
Stop NSAIDs/aspirin

give abx before endoscopy

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46
Q

How do you test for Cushing’s?

A

Overnight dexamethasone test

24hr urinary free cortisol

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47
Q

What is the difference anatomically between inguinal and femoral hernias?

A

femoral: inferior and lateral to pubic tubercle

inguinal: mid-point inguinal canal and direct hernias will reappear when pushed on

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48
Q

What can taking growth hormone make you at risk of developing?

A

Type 2 Diabetes

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49
Q

How do you treat hyperthyroidism?

A

carbimazole (ATD therapy) = to treat Grave’s

propranolol = Initial treatment to control symptoms (tremor, anxiety)

radioactive iodine: used in patients who relapse following ATD (anti-thyroid drugs) therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment

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50
Q

What is the most common complication of ERCP?

A

acute pancreatitis

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51
Q

What is cholestasis?

A

reduced or stopped bile flow

can be caused by COCP or abx e.g. co-amoxiclav or pregnancy WHEREAS hepatitis/hepatocellular would be from paracetamol, sodium valporate etc

itchy but NO rash
Yellowing of the skin and whites of the sclera
Loss of appetite
right upper quadrant pain

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52
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign and what is the treatment?

A

A positive Rovsing’s sign is characterised by right lower abdominal pain upon palpation of the left side of the lower abdomen –> acute appendicitis

appendicitis can also cause right sided tenderness on PR exam

Treatment:
-Group and save, coag and lactate!!
-laparoscopic appendectomy: an ultrasound is NOT needed before unless it’s a young woman to rule out other causes of pain
-IV abx BEFORE surgery

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53
Q

What is Boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus that occurs as a result of repeated episodes of vomiting. The rupture is usually on the left side.

sudden onset of severe chest pain
vomiting
Subcutaneous emphysema

Diagnosis is CT contrast swallow.

Treatment is with thoracotomy and lavage, if less than 12 hours after onset
surgery delayed beyond 12 hours is best managed by insertion of a T tube to create a controlled fistula between oesophagus and skin.

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54
Q

What is an insulinoma?

A

tumour deriving mainly from pancreatic Islets of Langerhans cells

hypoglycaemia
rapid weight gain
high insulin

CT pancreas

surgery

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55
Q

What is the difference between a MRCP and an ERCP?

A

MRCP should be done first unless gallstones have definitely been confirmed

MRCP = MRI
ERCP = endoscopy

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56
Q

What is alcoholic ketoacidosis?

A

non-diabetic form of ketoacidosis that occurs in people who regularly drink large amounts of alcohol. Often alcoholics will not eat regularly and may vomit food that they do eat, leading to episodes of starvation

It typically presents with a pattern of:
Metabolic acidosis
Elevated anion gap
Elevated serum ketone levels
Normal or low glucose concentration

treatment: infusion of saline & thiamine

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57
Q

What are the causes of pancreatitis?

A

GET SMASHED

gallstones
ethanol
trauma
steroids
mumps
autoimmune
scorpion sting
hypertriglycerides/hypercalemia
ERCP
drugs

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58
Q

What is Kaolin?

A

a drug used to treat diarrhoea

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59
Q

If someone has dysphagia of solids and liquids from the start, what are you thinking?

A

It is achalasia: can give a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance on a barium swallow –> pneumatic (balloon) dilation or Heller surgical procedure

if it was foods to start then eventually affected liquids, think more oesophageal cancer

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60
Q

What is the most common presentation of large bowel obstruction?

A

constipation BEFORE vomiting

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61
Q

What are the common symptoms for pre-hepatic, hepatic and post-hepatic jaundice?

A

hepatic = itchy (pruritus), pain/painless (cancer if painless?), fevers, loss of appetite

pre-hepatic = fatigued, dizzy, SOB, tachy

post-hepatic = painless if cancer obstructing, dark urine, pale stools

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62
Q

What size does a gallbladder need to be removed?

A

10mm = 1cm

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63
Q

What are the complications of thyroid surgery?

A

hypocalcaemia (cramps/spasms)
injury to recurrent laryngeal nerve
haematomas

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64
Q

What are the causes and lab tests for pre-hepatic, hepatic and post-hepatic jaundice?

A

pre = low Hb –> haemolysis, sickle cell, Rhesus incompatibility at birth

hepatic uncon = high AST, ALT and GGT –> Crigler-Najjar syndrome, Gilbert’s syndrome, ‘Physiological jaundice of the newborn’

hepatic con = high AST and ALT –> hepatitis, primary biliary cholangitis, Dubin-Johnson disease

post = high AST, ALT, GGT, ALP –> gallstones, cancer, primary biliary cholangitis

low albumin = chronic
long clotting times/factors = acute

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65
Q

How is ulcerative colitis seen on an CT, treated and what are the investigations?

A

Lead pipe appearance of the colon and pseudopolyps

faecal calprotectin
Flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred

inducing remission = topical (rectal) aminosalicylate

maintaining remission = topical (rectal) aminosalicylate +/- oral aminosalicylate

severe relapse or 2 or more exacerbations in a year = oral azathioprine

severe flare up = IV hydrocortisone

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66
Q

What is the difference between ischaemiac colitis and mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Mesenteric ischaemia:
-caused by an embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery which supplies the small bowel
-patients have a history of atrial fibrillation
-severe, sudden onset abdo pain-high** lactate**, soft but tender abdo, abdo pain–> urgent surgery

Ischaemiac colitis:
-pain after a meal intermittent severe pain
-compromised blood flow to the large bowel
-‘thumbprinting’ may be seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage–> supportive management

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67
Q

What are the different types of hiatus hernias?

A

Sliding = more common, upper stomach moves into the chest area, can cause GORD

paraesophageal = larger portions of the stomach or even other parts of the bowel that are pushed up into the chest, surgery required

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68
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Rare condition in which one or more tumors grow in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine. The tumors are called gastrinomas. These gastrinomas produce large amounts of the hormone gastrin.

Gastrin causes the stomach to produce too much acid, which leads to peptic ulcers

High serum gastrin levels and a reduced gastric pH

diarrhoea, belly pain, acid reflux–> long term complication of GORD

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69
Q

How do you tell the difference between a duodenal and a gastric ulcer?

A

gastric = worse with eating

duodenal = better with eating

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70
Q

What is bile-acid malabsorption and how do you treat it?

A

watery green diarrhoea post cholecystectomy

idiopathic, or seen in patient’s with Crohn’s disease

treatment = cholestyramine

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71
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis?

A

commonly caused by Grave’s disease and can be seen in pregnancy

TSH down, T4 and T3 up

give carbimazole unless:
first trimester of pregnancy give Propylthiouracil - second trimester, the woman should be switched back to carbimazole

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72
Q

How is acute cholangitis investigated and managed?

A

Ultrasound
CT
MRCP/ERCP

antibiotics: cefuroxime and metronidazole
SEPSIS 6

Ursodeoxycholic acid –> primary biliary cholangitis

IV fluids, pain relief, relief of biliary obstruction and removal of cause

73
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

Bilateral tremor at rest and on action; no family history, unaffected by alcohol
-Anxiousness
-Unintentional Weight loss
-Hyperreflexia

74
Q

What is a duodenal/peptic ulcer?

A

mostly caused by H.pylori (diagnosed by stool tool), NSAIDs, stress, alcohol, obesity

X-ray!!!

x-ray is free air under the diaphragm, pain, rigid abdomen on examination, dark and tarry stools

treatment if H.pylori:
-3 drugs: PPI (lansoprazole 30mg or omeprazole 20-40mg) and two antibiotics (amoxycillin and clarithromycin)
2 times a day
1 week
-stop NSAIDs
-laparoscopic repair

75
Q

What is the difference between Crigler-Najjar, Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

CN = mutation in UGT gene autosomal recessive, persistant jaundice first few days of life, Kernicterus (brain damage that can result from high levels of bilirubin in a baby’s blood)–> phenobarbital (type II), liver transplant (type I), phototherapy (babies), plasmapheresis and albumin infusions

DJ = MRP2 gene mutation autosomal recessive, black liver

Gilbert’s = autosomal recessive, asymptomatic between episodes

76
Q

How do you treat Crohn’s disease?

A

prednisolone = starting remission 1st line
Mesalazine = starting remission 2nd line

Azathioprine = maintaining remission

Infliximab = SEVERE active/fistulating- IV or subcut

Last line = Methotrexate

77
Q

What are the main causes of pancreatitis, how do you treat it and what is the most serious complication of acute pancreatitis?What blood results may suggest pancreatitis?

A

alcohol and gallstones

acute respiratory distress syndrome is caused when the pancreas is inflammed, it makes the vessels leaky and makes it harder to breathe –> death

hypocalcaemia, increase in amylase and LIPASE in > 24hrs, ultrasound, cullen’s sign (bruising around belly button) and Grey Turner’s sign (bruising on flank)

treatment: pain management, fluids, avoid food so have IV feeding to give bowels a rest, potential abx

78
Q

What are the side effects of steroids?

A

Hypokalaemia
AVN in the hip
Cushing’s
can’t give to diabetics
mouth ulcers/oral thrush- rinse mouth out after inhaler use (not prednisolone as this is given orally)
acne
bruising
osteoporosis
stomach ulcers
glaucoma/cataracts

79
Q

How do you treat IBS?

A

General dietary advice

pain: antispasmodic agents e.g. Mebeverine

constipation: laxatives but avoid lactulose

diarrhoea: loperamide is first-line

80
Q

What is Short Bowel Syndrome?

A

unable to absorb enough nutrients from the foods you eat because you don’t have enough small intestine due to surgery to remove a portion of the small intestine e.g. intestinal diseases (Crohn’s, cancer etc), injuries, or birth defects

bloating
cramping
fatigue, or feeling tired
foul-smelling stool
heartburn
too much gas
vomiting
weakness

eating small, frequent meals; drinking fluid; taking nutritional supplements; and using medications to treat diarrhoea

81
Q

What would hepatomegaly and a history of previous other malignancy suggest?

A

Cancer mets to the liver

82
Q

Someone presents with voice changes and has a history of a gastric band and still quite overweight, what do you think is causing the voice changes and how do you treat it?

A

gastric reflux (GORD) and prescribe anti-acids/gaviscon

83
Q

How are common bile duct stones treated?

A

asymptomatic OR symptomatic = laparoscopic cholecystectomy/ERCP/stenting

84
Q

Can HGV drivers who have diabetes and use insulin still have a license and drive?

A

only if:
there is no hypoglycaemic event in the previous 12 months

regular blood glucose monitoring*, at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving

if diet controlled alone then no requirement to inform DVLA to drive a CAR

85
Q

How do you treat hypOcalcaemia and what are the symtpoms? What does it look like on an ECG?

A

10–20 mL, calcium gluconate injection 10%

paresthesia, muscle spasms, cramps, tetany, circumoral numbness, and seizures

Prolonged QT interval

86
Q

What is the difference between IBS and Coeliac’s disease?

A

IBS = mucus in stool, not fully emptying bowels

Coeliac’s = Dermatitis herpetiformis (rashes), vomiting, weight loss

BOTH have pain, bloating and change in bowel habits

87
Q

What are the risk factors for liver cancer?

A

-alcohol
-hep B + C
-Cirrhosis
-Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) –> -diabetes
-gallstones
-Aflatoxins (toxins produced by certain fungi that are found on agricultural crops such as maize (corn), peanuts, cottonseed, and tree nuts)
-smoking

88
Q

What are the causes of hypothyroidism and symptoms?

A

goitre but THEN shrinks

tired
weight gain
dry skin
hair loss
loss of periods (amenorrhoea)
constipated

-Hashimoto’s thyroiditis = developed countries = high TSH, low T4 and high antithyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies

-iron deficiency = developing countries

-lithium

89
Q

What are the 4D’s of pellagra (vitamin B3 deficiency)?

A

Diarrhoea
Dermatitis
Dementia
Death

90
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children?

A

rotavirus

91
Q

What are the risk factors for gallbladder cancer?

A

gallstones
cholecystitis
latin american/asian
procelain gallbladder- chronic inflammation where calcium builds up
smoking
obesity/diabetes

92
Q

What is the management for constipation in adults?

A

increase fibre and exercise increase fluids

1st: bulk-forming laxatives e.g. ispaghula (NOT IN OPIOID INDUCED CONSTIPATION)
2nd: osmotic laxative e.g. macrogol
3rd: prucalopride for 4 weeks (mostly used in chronic patients)

93
Q

How can you tell from blood results the difference between an upper and lower GI bleed?

A

upper = high urea
lower = low urea

94
Q

What duct involved in the biliary and pancreatic system does NOT cause jaundice when it becomes blocked?

A

cystic duct or gallbladder

95
Q

What type of drugs can cause hyponatraemia?

A

PPIs e.g. oemeprazole

96
Q

What is primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

mostly caused by solitary adenoma

-bones: pain/fractures
-stones: polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones
-groans: constipation, peptic ulcers, pancreatitis
-moans: depression

Bloods: raised calcium, low phosphate, raised or normal PTH
X-ray: pepperpot skull

–> total parathyroidectomy and if not suitable for surgery then give calcimimetics

97
Q

What is the treatment for sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

there is none needed

98
Q

How do you treat oesophageal bleeding: acute and chronic?

A

oesophageal bleeding/varices is uncontrolled bleeding and an emergency

acute: terlipressin, endoscopic variceal band ligation, Sengstaken-Blakemore tube if uncontrolled haemorrhage, Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) if above measures fail

prophylaxis: propranolol and abx, ligation and shunt as last option

99
Q

A young woman presents with easy bruising and bleeding gums, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

scurvy –> Vit C deficiency

100
Q

What condition can cause pigmented gallstones?

A

sickle cell anaemia

101
Q

What are anal fissures?

A

risk factors: constipation, IBD, STIs

painful
bright red site
rectal bleeding

if fissures are not in the normal posterior midline –> Crohn’s?

management for acute (<6weeks):
high fibre diet
bulk-forming laxatives
lubricants for defecation
topical anaesthetics
pain relief

management for chronic (>6weeks):
as above ^topical GTN and if not effective after 8 weeks then surgery (sphincterotomy) or botoxbilk

102
Q

How do you treat ascites?

A

reduce dietary sodium
fluid restriction
spironolactone
abdominal paracentesis if a lot
prophylactic ciprofloxacin
TIPS shunt potentially (this can cause hepatic encephalopathy)

103
Q

What is Rifaximin used for?

A

a strong abx for:
traveller’s diarrhoea
hepatic encephalopathy
IBS

104
Q

What should you do if a patient who has Addison’s disease gets sick e.g. stomach bug?

A

double the hydrocortisone and keep everything else the same

105
Q

What are the features of a pharyngeal pouch (Zenker’s diverticulum)?

A

dysphagia
regurgitation and food coming back up
neck swelling
foul smelling breath

barium swallow

surgery to treat

106
Q

What are the causes of Cushing’s syndrome and how can you tell the difference?

A

overnight dexamethasone test will tell you if someone has Cushing’s e.g. their morning cortisol will be high

to find the cause of it we look at cortisol and ACTH levels:

high cortisol + low ACTH = adrenal cushings e.g adrenal adenomas, steroids

low cortisol + low ACTH = cushing’s disease e.g. pituitary adenoma

high cortisol + high ACTH = ectopic ACTH e.g. small cell lung cancer

107
Q

What drugs can cause pancreatitis?

A

IBD drugs: azathioprine and mesalazine

diuretics: zides + furosemide

sodium valporate

108
Q

What is needed to diagnose symptomatic and asymptomatic diabetes?

A

symptomatic = one reading

asymptomatic = two readings of the same kind i.e. two HbA1c

109
Q

What are the investigations, findings and treatment for alcoholic liver disease?

A

GGT elevated

AST:ALT ratio is raised (more than 1)

if it is less than 1 then think of NAFLD–> prednisolone

110
Q

What is oesophageal candidiasis?

A

thrush causing pain on swallowing and usually caused by inhaled steroid therapy (inhaler)

may be a history of HIV

111
Q

How does smoking effect Crohn’s and UC?

A

smoking increases risk of Crohn’s

smoking decreases risk of UC

112
Q

What is the Sister Mary Joseph nodule a sign of?

A

sign of mets to periumbilical lymph nodes from GASTRIC cancer

113
Q

What is phaeochromocytoma?

A

rare secreting tumour

hypertension
headaches
palpitations
sweating
anxiety

diagnosis = 24hr urinary metanephrines

surgery and alpha-blocker (phenoxybenzamine)

114
Q

If a patient is to undergo an endoscopy, when should PPIs be stopped?

A

2 weeks before

115
Q

Glasgow-Blatchford scoring system is used before an endoscopy, what scoring system is used after to determine risk of rebleeding and mortality?

A

Rockall score

116
Q

What are the results from a VBG from someone who has had severe diarrhoea?

A

metabolic acidosis + hypokalaemia

117
Q

What is orlistat?

A

pancreatic lipase inhibitor used to manage obesity used for under 1 year:
-BMI 28 with risk factors
-BMI of 30
-continued weight loss

Alli drug can also be used but does not need a prescription as it is a lower dose

Liraglutide can also be used

118
Q

What is a thyroid storm?

A

something triggers a flare up in Grave’s disease e.g. thyroid surgery, infection, trauma, acute iodine

fever
tachy
confusion
hypertension
may be jaundice

-paracetamol
-beta blockers: IV propranolol
-anti-thyroid drugs: e.g. methimazole or propylthiouracil
-dexamethasone
-Lugol’s iodine

119
Q

When would you use these different procedures:
anterior resection
Hartmann’s procedure
left hemicolectomy
right hemicolectomy
Abdomino-perineal excision?

A

anterior resection = rectal tumours

Hartmann’s procedure = in emergencies e.g. bowel perforation or obstruction

left hemicolectomy = distal transverse or descending colon

Abdomino-perineal excision = anal verge

right hemicolectomy = caecal, ascending, or proximal transverse colon

120
Q

What figure would most strongly suggest the need for a liver transplant?

A

arterial pH < 7.3

121
Q

What procedure is used to diagnose liver cirrhosis?

A

transient elastography

122
Q

How do you diagnose Crohn’s?

A

IgG antibodies
high CRP
deep ulcers and skip lesions on endoscopy
“String” sign
inflammation
goblet cells and granulomas on histology
rose thorn ulcers

123
Q

What is globus pharyngis (globus hystericus)?

A

sensation of a lump in the throat when there is noneswallowing food and drink is fine but swallowing saliva is difficult

124
Q

What is the difference between primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) and primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)?

A

PBC: The M rule
Middle age
More woman
affects inside liver
1st line medication is Ursodeoxycholic acid
IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies+AMA and raised ALP

PSC:
all ages
affects inside and outside liver
related to IBD
no medical treatment
p-ANCA
MRCP and MRI to diagnose
link to cholangiocarcinoma

125
Q

When testing for Coeliac’s disease, what must you ask them to do before the test?

A

introduce gluten at least 6 weeks prior to testing

126
Q

What medication must be avoided in suspected bowel obstruction?

A

metoclopramide

127
Q

What cancers are patients at risk of developing if they have Barrett’s oesophagus and achalasia?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus = oesophageal adenocarcinoma

achalasia = squamous cell carcinoma

128
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

can be seen in any type of liver disease

confusion
liver flap
raised ammonia
constructional apraxia: inability to draw a 5-pointed star

TIPSS procedure can cause it
treat with –> lactulose
prophylaxis = rifaximin

129
Q

When do you need to stop Metformin?

A

-chronic kidney disease (eGFR<30)
-recent MI, sepsis, dehydration
-iodine contrast x-rays –> stop on the day and for 48hrs after

130
Q

What is Pummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

oesophageal disorder

triad of:
dysphagia
glossitis
iron deficient anaemia

give –> iron tabblets and dilation of webs

131
Q

What organism most commonly causes cholangitis?

A

E.coli

132
Q

What are the features of Carcinoid tumours?

A

flushing
diarrhoea
ACTH released –> Cushing’s syndrome

give octreotide

133
Q

What is osmotic demyelination syndrome?

A

Due to over correction of hyponatremia and can cause locked in syndrome

134
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

Tapping over parotid (cheek) causes facial muscles to twitch caused by HYPOCALCAEMIA

135
Q

What vitamin should be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Vitamin A- retinol (can also cause night blindness)

136
Q

What would you suspect in someone with a sweet and feacal smelling breath?

A

Acute liver failure

137
Q

If signet ring cells were found on histology, what does this point towards to?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

138
Q

What would a combination of deranged LFTs and ammenorhoea in a young female suggest?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

139
Q

What diagnosis would support a patient who’s been stressed recently and had an isolated bilirubin?

A

Gilbert’s syndrome –> no specific treatment

140
Q

What is the management of perianal fistulas in Crohn’s patients?

A

oral metronidazole

141
Q

What is the management of Barrett’s oesophagus if dysplasia is seen on biopsy?

A

endoscopic intervention

142
Q

What drugs can cause gynaecomastia?

A

-spironolactone
-digoxin
-cannabis
-GnRH agonists e.g. GOSERELIN
-calcium channel blockers

143
Q

What artery is at risk with duodenal ulcers?

A

gastroduodenal

144
Q

What is intestinal angina (chronic mesenteric ischaemia)?

A

triad of severe, colicky post-food abdominal pain, weight loss, and an abdominal bruit

-by far the most common cause is atherosclerotic disease in arteries supplying the GI tract

145
Q

What does ALT and ALP show on blood tests?

A

ALT = hepatocellular damage

ALP = show obstructive disease

146
Q

What is the most affected site in ulcerative colitis?

A

rectum

147
Q

What would be the diagnosis if melanosis coli was seen on biopsy?

A

Laxatives overuse

148
Q

What is De Quervain’s thyroiditis?

A

thyrotoxicosis with a TENDER goitre
High T4, low TSH

149
Q

How do you treat NAFLD?

A

prednisolone

150
Q

What kinds of food can coeliac’s people have?

A

gluten free food:
rice
potatoes
corn (maize)

151
Q

How do you treat hypokalaemia?

A

Give magnesium first before replacing the potassium

If less than 2.5mmol/L give over 4-6 hours

152
Q

What conditions is koilonychia seen in?

A

Spooning of nails = hypochromic anaemia/iron deficiency anaemia

Seen in coeliacs

153
Q

How do you score how severe acute pancreatitis is?

A

Glasgow-Imrie scoring system

154
Q

What type of IBD is most associated with mouth ulcers?

A

Crohn’s

155
Q

How do you treat an Addisonian Crisis?

A

Hydrocortisone IM or IV
1L saline

156
Q

What should diabetics do if they become sick?

A

Type 1:
-stop insulin

Type 2:
-Restart medication when feeling better and drinking and eating for 24-48hrs but if on INSULIN keep taking it

157
Q

What is myxoedema coma?

A

Confusion and hypothermia

Medial emergency —>
IV thyroid replacement, fluids, steroids

158
Q

What is a side effect of taking levothyroxine?

A

Hyperthyroidism features and osteoporosis

159
Q

How do you interpret hepatitis B serology?
HBsAg
anti-HBs
IgM anti-HBc
anti-HBc
anti-HBc IgG
anti-HBe

and what are the symptoms of hepB?

A

surface antigen (HBsAg) = acute disease

if HBsAg is present for > 6 months then this implies chronic disease (i.e. Infective)

Anti-HBs = immunity (either exposure or immunisation)

IgM anti-HBc = acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months

anti-HBc = caught, i.e. negative if immunized

anti-HBc IgG = chronic

anti-HBe = immunity

Constitutional symptoms (e.g. weight loss, fever, fatigue)
Nausea
Anorexia
Right upper quadrant pain
Jaundice (only in 50%)

160
Q

What drugs can cause DKA?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors e.g. dapagliflozin
Beta-blockers
Cocaine

161
Q

How do you treat hepatitis B?

A

-vaccine and for partners (avoid sex, toothbrush, razors etc until)
-do not share needles
-screen for hepatocellular cancer
-antivirals
-AVOID alcohol

162
Q

How do you test for H.pylori?

A

DIAGNOSE: stool test

ERADICATION: urea breath test

163
Q

How would you describe diabetes to a patient?

A

-food is broken down by digestive system and sugar is released as fuel
-insulin from pancreas helps moves sugar into the cells to be used
-caused by genetic and environmental factors

type 1: does not make insulin
type 2: resistant to insulin

-explain complications
-explain management:
GP appointments, diabetic nurses, basal bolus/long acting, home monitoring before and after meals and driving (4 times a day), sick day rules

164
Q

What are the complications of Coeliac’s disease?

A

Hyposplenism –> hence give pneumoccocal vaccine
Iron deficiency
Malnutrition
Small bowel T-cell lymphoma

165
Q

What are the differences between Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis?

A

Crohn’s: ENTIRE GI TRACT (ileum mostly)
diarrhoea, abdominal RLQ pain, tenesmus, anorexia, perianal lesions

UC: COLON (rectum mostly)
diarrhoea, faecal urgency, tenesmus, abdominal LLQ pain, fatigue, weight loss

166
Q

What investigations would you order for potential IBD?

A

FBC, vitB12, folate
U&Es
LFTs (sclerosing cholangitis)
CRP
thyroid
Coeliac’s screen

Faecal calprotectin (raised in IBD but not IBS)
Stool culture for C.diff

Sigmoidoscopy (for UC)
Colonoscopy
Abdo x-ray

167
Q

Can surgery cure IBD?

A

Surgery is curable in UC but not in Crohn’s

168
Q

What is the main side effect of carbimazole?

A

Agranulocytosis (neutropenia)

169
Q

Learn the different quadrants of the abdomen and the differential diagnosis for each of them .

A
170
Q

What is hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A

A medical emergency that has a high mortality
Usually presents in elderly people with type two diabetes

Hyperglycaemia over many days (DKA is hours)
NO acidosis or hyperketonaemia
Dehydrated
Lethargic
Drinking and peeing lots

Fluid replace
Only give insulin if the blood glucose does not fall whilst giving fluids
VTE prophylaxis

171
Q

How do you monitor blood glucose in diabetes patients?

A

Measure HbA1c every 3-6 months until stable on medication and then every 6 months

172
Q

How do you manage a ruptured spleen?

A

Conservative:
Small subcapsular haematoma
Minimal intra abdominal blood
No hilar disruption

Laparotomy with conservation:
Increased amounts of intraabdominal blood
Moderate haemodynamic compromise
Tears or lacerations affecting <50%

Resection:
Hilar injuries
Major haemorrhage
Major associated injuries

173
Q

What are the causes of splenomegaly?

A

Myelofibrosis
CML (chronic myeloid leukaemia)
Malaria
Hodgkin’s
Hepatitis
Sickle-cell (but usually atrophied)
Felty’s syndrome

174
Q

What are the causes of hepatomegaly?

A

Cirrhosis
Malignancy
Right heart failure

Others:
Hepatitis
Glandular fever
Malaria
Abscess

175
Q

Explain stoma care to a patient.

A

three types of stomas: can be permanent or temporary:
-colostomy = large bowel (LIF)
-ileostomy = small bowel (RIF)
-urostomy = bladder (RIF)

-provided with a stoma nurse
-Empty bag when it’s 2/3 full and change the bag every 2-4 days
-Bags can be left on in the shower
-At the start take lots of fluids and small amount of fibre for the first two months
-Blockage foods: nuts, sweetcorn, mushrooms
-Diarrhoea foods: fridges, fruit, vegetables, caffeine, alcohol

176
Q

What do you have to mention in a gastroenteritis ISCE station?

A

ALERT TO PUBLIC HEALTH WALES (and for meningitis)

even if you don’t know if you do just say that sentence

177
Q

Explain bowel cancer screening.

A

Men and women aged 60-74 AND in those with our family history of colorectal cancer
EVERY TWO YEARS

A faecal immunochemical test (FIT) kit As sent to you at Home, where are you? Put a single still sample in a bottle and then post it back

Usually get the results within two weeks

An abnormal result just means that there has been blood in your poo so this could be due to cancer or haemorrhoids —> colonoscopy

178
Q

What is mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Generalised severe Abdo pain
Nausea and vomiting
Underlying AF

FBC, U+Es, LFTs
Amylase (rule out pancreatitis)
Clotting factors
ABG!!!! Check lactate (high)
CT with contrast

Refer to senior
2222
A-E
Broad spectrum abx
Urgent surgery
Treat underlying AF