Introduction, Intelligence Issues Flashcards

1
Q

Question ID #11989: Which type of dynamic assessment involves providing an examinee with additional cues, suggestions, or feedback and is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test to preserve the applicability of the test’s norms?
Select one:

A.
Functional behavioral assessment

B.
Test-teach-retest

C.
Graduated prompting

D.
Testing the limits

A

The correct answer is D.

Testing the limits is one type of dynamic assessment and involves providing an examinee with additional cues, suggestions, or feedback.

Answer A: The term “functional behavioral assessment” refers to a type of behavioral assessment that entails determining the function or purpose of behavior by identifying its antecedents and consequences.

Answer B: Test-teach-retest is a type of dynamic assessment that involves following the initial assessment with an intervention designed to modify the examinee’s performance and then reassessing the examinee.

Answer C: Graduated prompting is a type of dynamic assessment that involves giving the examinee a series of verbal prompts that are graduated in terms of difficulty level.

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2
Q

Question ID #12319: ____________ refers to the variability in amount and type of information derived from interviews with individuals.
Select one:

A.
Information variance

B.
Criterion variance

C.
Convergent validity

D.
Discriminant validity

A

The correct answer is A.

In most unstructured interviews, information variance is caused by the wide differences in content and phrasing due to factors such as theoretical orientation and style of the interviewer.

Answer B: Criterion variance is the method for removing extreme values from a set based upon its variance. This type of variance was used when developing the criteria for structured interviews.

Answer C: To establish convergent validity, it is important to show that measures that should be related are related.

Answer D: To establish discriminant validity, it is important to show that measures that should not be related are not related.

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3
Q

Question ID #12321: Which type of scores permits comparisons between an examinee’s test performance and the performance of individuals in the norm group?
Select one:

A.
Criterion-referenced scores

B.
Norm-referenced scores

C.
Self-referenced scores

D.
Content-referenced scores

A

The correct answer is B.

Examples of norm-referenced scores are percentile ranks and standard scores. These types of scores permit comparisons between an examinee’s test performance and the performance of individuals in the norm group.

Answer A: Criterion-referenced scores are also known as domain-referenced and content-referenced scores. They permit interpreting an examinee’s test performance in terms of what the examinee can do or knows with regard to a clearly defined content domain or in terms of performance or status on an external criterion.

Answer C: Self-referenced scores are provided by ipsative scales, which permit intraindividual comparisons (i.e., comparisons of an examinee’s score on one scale with their scores on other scales.

Answer D: Content-referenced scores are the same as criterion-referenced scores and permit interpreting an examinee’s test performance in terms of what the examinee can do or knows with regard to a clearly defined content domain.

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4
Q

Question ID #12325: Which of the following refers to the degree to which test scores are free from the effects of measurement error?
Select one:

A.
Validity

B.
Content validity

C.
Reliability

D.
Criterion validity

A

The correct answer is C.

Reliability refers to the degree to which test scores are free from the effects of measurement error.

Answer A: Validity refers to the degree to which a test measures what it was designed to measure.

Answer B: Content validity is the extent to which a measure covers the construct of interest.

Answer D: Criterion validity is the extent to which an individual’s scores on a measure are correlated with other variables (known as criteria) that one would expect them to be correlated with.

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5
Q

Question ID #12326: During the evaluation of single cases, such as in clinical diagnosis and treatment planning, clinicians rely on past judgment, clinical experience, and theoretical background to interpret and integrate test scores. However, for personnel decisions and academic predictions, statistical formulas may be more readily used. Which of the following is a basic approach for combining test results?
Select one:

A.
Multiple regression equations

B.
Actuarial risk predictions

C.
Clinician-based predictions

D.
Multiple hurdle approach

A

The correct answer is A.

Multiple regression equations are developed by correlating each test or subtest with a criterion. The higher the correlation, the greater is the weight in the equation. The correlation of the entire battery with the criterion measure indicates the battery’s highest predictive validity.

Answer B: Actuarial risk assessments are a statistically calculated prediction of the likelihood that an individual will pose a threat to others or engage in a certain behavior (e.g., violence) within a given period. The data in this type of prediction is from a specific, measurable variable (e.g., gender, age) that has been validated as a predictor.

Answer C: A clinician-based prediction is based on the decision maker’s intuition, experience, and knowledge. In other words, classifications, diagnoses, and predictions about behavior rely on the clinician’s judgment.

Answer D: In a multiple hurdle approach, the individual, or applicant, must pass each step of the selection process to advance to the next step. Failure at any step disqualifies the individual from further consideration.

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6
Q

Question ID #12342: ____________ occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same but their mean scores on the predictor differ.
Select one:

A.
Statistical predictions

B.
Slope bias

C.
Intercept bias

D.
Clinical predictions

A

The correct answer is C.

Intercept bias, or unfairness, occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same but their mean scores on the predictor differ.

Answer A: Statistical predictions are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and specific criteria, and they make use of a multiple regression equation or similar statistical technique.

Answer B: Slope bias occurs when there is differential validity and, consequently, the predictor is more accurate for one group than another.

Answer D: Clinical predictions are based on the decision maker’s intuition, experience, and knowledge. In other words, classifications, diagnoses, and predictions about behavior rely on the clinician’s judgment.

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7
Q

Question ID #12343: ____________ refers to acquired knowledge and skills, is affected by educational and cultural experiences, and includes reading, numerical skills, and factual knowledge.
Select one:

A.
Fluid intelligence

B.
Crystallized intelligence

C.
Convergent thinking

D.
Divergent thinking

A

The correct answer is B.

Crystallized intelligence is reflected in an individual’s general knowledge, vocabulary, and reasoning based on acquired information.

Answer A: Fluid intelligence does not depend on specific instruction, is relatively culture-free, and enables an individual to solve novel problems and perceive relations and similarities.

Answer C: Convergent thinking relies on rational, logical reasoning and involves the use of logical judgment and consideration of facts to derive the correct solution to a problem.

Answer D: Divergent thinking involves nonlogical processes and requires creativity and flexibility to derive multiple solutions.

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8
Q

Question ID #12344: Which of the following is one of the most common ways data is collected from a large group of people and includes personality traits, attitudes, and preferences?
Select one:

A.
Multi-informant reports

B.
Self-report

C.
Observational study

D.
Psychophysiological measures

A

The correct answer is B.

Self-report is one of the most common ways social scientists collect data from a large group of people. This information may include personality traits, moods, thoughts, attitudes, preferences, and behaviors.

Answer A: Multi-informant reports are a form of data collection that compile information from several sources (e.g., family, friends, clinicians, etc.).

Answer C: Direct observation is also known as “observational study.” It is a method of collecting evaluative information in which the evaluator watches participants in their usual environment without altering that environment. Direct observations may be structured or unstructured.

Answer D: Psychophysiological measures are data collection methods that involve the monitoring of a physiological function, such as heart rate or perspiration, as it correlates to a client’s psychological or emotional state.

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9
Q

Question ID #12345: Which of the following techniques include(s) objective comments about a child’s appearance and non-negative comments about their behavior or demeanor?
Select one:

A.
Descriptive statements

B.
Reflective statements

C.
Labeled praise

D.
Critical statements

A

The correct answer is A.

Descriptive statements give attention to the child, encourage the child the continue doing what they are doing, and point out to the child what behavior is expected of them. An example of a descriptive statement would be “You look happy today.”

Answer B: Reflective statements mirror what the child says and can be either literal or interpretive. Reflection helps clarify and organize the child’s thoughts and feelings.

Answer C: Labeled praise indicates approval and helps guide and encourage the child to behave in a particular way.

Answer D: Criticism elicits negative emotional reactions and defensiveness from a child and disrupts the development of rapport. Better tactics for altering undesirable behavior are to make rule-based corrections, invitational statements, and to ignore the behavior.

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10
Q

Question ID #12727: ____________ is (are) typically easy to replicate as there is a fixed set of closed questions that are used, which means it is easy to test for reliability.
Select one:

A.
Structured direct observation

B.
Unstructured interviews

C.
Structured interviews

D.
Unstructured direct observation

A

The correct answer is C.

Structured interviews are typically easy to replicate as there is a fixed set of closed questions that are used, which means it is easy to test for reliability. They have some limitations, including that they are not flexible and the answers may lack detail.

Answer A: Structured direct observations are most appropriate when standardized information needs to be gathered and result in quantitative data.

Answer B: Unstructured interviews are more flexible, and thus the questions can be adapted as needed and generate vast amounts of qualitative data because of the detail included in the answers.

Answer D: Unstructured direct observations look at the natural occurrence and provides qualitative data. Weaknesses of this approach include participant and observer bias.

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