M100 Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

What best describes the 3 Army readiness assessment levels?

A

Tactical, Operational, Strategic

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2
Q

Understand what describes the army’s ability to provide adequate forces to meet the demands of the national military strategy?

A

Strategic Readiness is the Army’s ability to provide adequate forces to meet the demands of the National Military Strategy (NMS).

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3
Q

Where does readiness level come from to support for combatant commander’s operational requirements –

A

Operational readiness is the Army’s ability to support Combatant Commanders operational plans with trained and ready forces in the quantity and with the capabilities required to achieve Global Force Management Allocation Plan (GFMAP) and other operational requirements.

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4
Q

. What are the 3 phases of ReARMM

A

Modernize, Train, and Mission

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5
Q

FOUR major components of unit’s status reporting report

A

P, S, R, T – Personnel-P, Training-T, Personnel Equipment-S, Equipment Serviceability-R

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6
Q

THREE specific areas that units must focus training programs on

A

METS, Weapons Qual, Collective Live Fire Tasks Proficiency

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7
Q

. What best describes set of collective tasks developed by proponent and approved by HQDA that reflects units designed capabilities approved by HQDA

A

Standardized METL

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8
Q

Who validates a BCT for deploying for a Combatant Commander

A

FORSCOM

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9
Q

What principle of training focuses on leaders completing training events as close to combat environment as possible

A

Train as you fight

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10
Q

Army Train management cycle entail?

A

Process of prioritizing training, planning and preparation, execution, and the evaluation and assessment of training. The commander drives the training management cycle by prioritizing training and assessing unit training proficiencies. Long-, mid-, and short-range planning is conducted to support the execution of training. Continuous feedback through evaluation and other key inputs provides the commander information to assess unit training proficiencies accurately.

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11
Q

Collective task that should be considered when prioritizing training

A

High Payoff Task

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12
Q

Which readiness assessment directly informs joint force readiness review and quarterly readiness report to congress?

A

Army Strategic Readiness Assessment

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13
Q

When and where do regionally aligned forces (RAF) training requirements take place

A

RAF training intended to take place within 12 months of latest arrival date; Div/Corps – WFX; BCTs – CTCs

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14
Q

What is the impact on a division when one of it’s brigades is scheduled for combat training center (CTC)? –

A

division owns it; augmentees, OPFOR for train ups; HQ Division involved in augmentees; It is not uncommon for a sister brigade to serve as the support unit – providing OC coverage and OPFOR to help the BCT obtain the requisite METL proficiency prior to deploying to the CTC.

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15
Q

What best describes inputs a division would consider when putting together annual command training requirements?

A

They include war plans, unique capabilities (forced entry), higher command training guidance, ReARMM, RAF, directives, policies, and etc.

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16
Q

. Who is responsible for training of the BCT?

A

DIVISION

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17
Q

What are the common components of Division command training guidance?

A

prioritization of MET; proficiency levels and timelines; time management cycle; major training events and deployments; collective live fires & EXEVALs; leader development and certification; individual training guidance

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18
Q

How far out should an active component division commander provide a contribution to group learning?

A

12 months/ 1 year

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19
Q

What best describes the purpose of unit training briefs?

A

Get it approved and operating within guidance

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20
Q

What drives the planning timeline of division long range CTG

A

1/3 : 2/3 Rule – The planning timeline really drives the need for the subordinates leway to get lead time and resources; Commanders issue training guidance early enough in the process to ensure subordinates have sufficient time to plan and resource their own training effectively.

21
Q

What best describes why units need to forecast training ammo at least 12 months in advance?

A

inform production decisions of movement of ammo on the installation

22
Q

. What is one of the primary inputs for developing brigade and division budget estimates?

A

detailed training plan

23
Q

What can units do ahead of time as part of their training to ensure efficient and rapid deployment if alerted

A

All of the above

24
Q

What Army program assists Commander’s in establishing and maintaining a unit’s posture?

A

Command Deployment Discipline Program – CDDP

25
Q

What division or higher controlled training event specifically tests the contingency response ability to rapidly assemble, prepare it’s equipment and personnel, and deploy?

A

Level III

26
Q

Combatant Commands and other joint forces contain service components; why do the COCOMs have service components?

A

training and logistics

27
Q

The JFLCC provides the force estimate in terms of what?

A

capabilities

28
Q

JFLCC serves as OPCON during exercises

A
29
Q

Which is the primary role of division HQ?

A

Principal tactical warfighting formation during LSCO.
Division Primary role is to serve as a tactical headquarters commanding brigades.

30
Q

Primary command post for Division

A

Main CP

31
Q

Which CP allows the division commander to make personal assessments of the situation?

A

TAC

32
Q

Divisions core functions at the tactical level?

A

Task-organizing, employing, integrating, and synchronizing brigades and battalions.

33
Q

Which organization commands one or more expeditionary signal battalions enhanced in LSCO? –

A

Theater Tactical Signal Brigade or Corps Signal Brigade

34
Q

Which organization is the Army’s global enterprise service provider?

A

NETCOM (Network Enterprise Technology Command)

35
Q

Which organization commands multiple signal battalions and provides signal support in the operational and strategic area in the theater of operations?

A

Theater Signal Brigade

36
Q

Name division of electromagnetic warfare that projects power in and through the electromagnetic spectrum by implementing active and passive actions to deny enemy capabilities and equipment?

A

Electromagnetic Attack

37
Q

– What is the maneuver space essential for facilitating control within OE and impacts all portion of the OE in military operations?

A

Electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)

38
Q

Divisions of EM warfare?

A

Electromagnetic Attack (EA); Electromagnetic Protection (EP); Electromagnetic Support (ES)

39
Q

What is NOT a planning function of CEMA?

A

THE PLANNING FUNCTIONS ARE: Plan, Integrate, and synchronize. Enable security and defense of friendly networks; Protect personnel, facilities, and equipment; Manage/de-conflict EMS use thru spectrum management operations (SMO); Ensure planning, integration and synchronization of interrelated actions to ensure communication, intelligence, electromagnetic protection.

40
Q

Which activity is not an SF core activity?

A

Core Activities ARE:
Unconventional Warfare (UW)
Foreign Internal Defense (FID)
Counterinsurgency (COIN)
Security Force Assistance (SFA)
Military Information Support Operations (MISO)
Civil Affairs Operations (CA)
Foreign Humanitarian Assistance (FHA)
Direct Action (DA)
Special Reconnaissance (SR)
Counterterrorism (CT)
Hostage Rescue and Recovery
Countering Weapons of Mass Destruction (C-WMD)
Preparation of the Environment (PE)

41
Q

Who has OPCON of deployed SOF upon establishment of the JTF?

A

sojtf

42
Q

Which operation is an example of SOF employed activities during LSCO

A

TF Viking

43
Q

T/F SOF have unique skills, capabilities, knowledge, and competencies that require SOFI3 throughout the competition continuum

A

True

44
Q

What describes how protection tasks support the commander’s intent and concept of operations and uses the commanders guidance to establish the priorities of support?

A

scheme of protection

45
Q

What is the joint protection function?

A

All efforts to secure and defend the effectiveness and survivability of mission related military and nonmilitary personnel, equipment, facilities, information, or infrastructure deployed or located within or outside the boundaries of a given operational area to maintain mission effectiveness.

46
Q

What is a prioritized list of assets or areas normally identified by phase of the operation and approved by the JF Commander that should be defended against air and missile threats?

A

CAL critical asset list

47
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating the security of the operational area in accordance with the JFC directives and priorities?

A

security and coordinator NOT CENTER/FACILITY

48
Q

Which of following SOF element is not a SOF LNO package between CF, SOF, and MNF forces?

A

SOJTF