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Deck 1 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Natural killer cells belong to which cell type?

A

Lymphocytes (large granular lymphocytes)
NK cells bridge the innate and adaptive arms of the immune system.

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2
Q

High levels of which immunoglobulin are found in breast milk?

A

IgA

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3
Q

Capturing, processing and presenting the antigen to T cells are the only functions of which type of cell?

A

Dendritic cells

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4
Q

How can the mechanism of action of the immunosupressive agent azathioprine best be described?

A

Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis in all mitotic cells

Tacrolimus blocks T cell activation.

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5
Q

Haemolytic disease of the newborn and transfusion reactions are examples of what?

A

Antibody-mediated hypersensitivity (type II)
Type II reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies that react against antigens bound to specific cells or tissues. These antibodies interact with the Fc receptors on a range of effector cells

Mediators = IgM,IgG,Complement

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6
Q

anaphylactic reaction is an example of which type of reaction?

A

immediate hypersensitivity (type I)

Mediator = IgE

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7
Q

Viral systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and hepatitis and RA are examples of which type of reaction?

A

type III reaction

Mediators = IgG

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8
Q

Type IV examples

A

poison ivy (contact) and tuberculin / Mantoux test (delayed).
Graft rejection

Mediators = T-Cells

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9
Q

Which test is most sensitive in detecting pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A

NAAT (polymerase chain reaction or strand displacement amplification) is more than 95% sensitive in detecting Chlamydia or Gonorrhoea from the endocervical specimen.

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10
Q

Which immunoglobulin has the highest molecular weight?

A

IGM

Weight = 900
First antibody type to be synthesized by neonates

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11
Q

Which immunoglobulin has the LOWEST molecular weight?

A

IGA

Weight =390

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12
Q

What proportion of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections is asymptomatic in immune-competent patients?

A

CMV infection in adults is asymptomatic in 90% of cases

(f primary infection occurs in pregnancy, then there is a 40–50% risk of fetal transmission. Between 22% and 38% of the infected fetuses will develop symptoms.

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13
Q

3 types of lymphocytes:

A

B cell
T cell
Natural Killer Cells

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14
Q

Which cells form the adaptive immune system?

A

f B and T (Cd4) cell lymphocytes that have immune memory.

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15
Q

Type 5 reaction examples:

A

Myasthenia Gravis
Graves Disease

Mediators = IgM,IgG,Complement

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16
Q

Which term best describes the fetus?

A

Allograft

17
Q

What does IGG do for the fetus?

A

Key to fetal immunity as crosses the placenta

18
Q

At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the fetus start?

A

12 weeks

19
Q

When does fetal production of IgM start?

A

Fetal productIon IgM starts around week 10 to 11.

20
Q

What condition is decreased in pregnancy?

A

RA

Th1 suppression in pregnancy improves Rheumatoid arthritis

21
Q

What condition worsens in pregnancy?

A

SLE

Increased Th2 activity by contrast results in higher rates of SLE flare ups

22
Q

Which HLAs are upregulated/downregulated during pregnancy?

A

during pregnancy at the trophoblast:
HLA-A and HLA-B are downregulated
HLA-E and HLA-G are upregulated

23
Q

Which complement protein recruits other complement proteins to form MAC (membrane attack complex)?

A

C5b

24
Q

What are the rules for giving Anti-D?

A
  1. All RhD negative pregnant women who have not been previously sensitised should be offered routine antenatal prophylaxis with anti-D Ig (RAADP) either with a single dose regimen at around 28 weeks, or two-dose regimen given at 28 and 34 weeks
  2. Following birth, ABO and Rh D typing should be performed on cord blood and if the baby is confirmed to be D positive, all D negative, previously non-sensitised, women should be offered at least 500 IU of anti-D Ig within 72h following delivery.
  3. Following potentially sensitising events, anti-D Ig should be administered as soon as possible and always within 72h of the event.
  4. In pregnancies <12 weeks gestation, anti-D Ig prophylaxis is only indicated following ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, therapeutic termination of pregnancy and in cases of uterine bleeding where there is repeated, heavy bleeding or associated with abdominal pain. The minimum dose should be 250 IU.
  5. For potentially sensitising events between 12 and 20 weeks gestation, a minimum dose of 250 IU should be administered within 72h of the event.
  6. For potentially sensitising events after 20 weeks gestation, a minimum anti-D Ig dose of 500 IU should be administered within 72h of the event. A test for FMH is required
25
Q

Tumor markers:

A

Breast cancer = Ca27-29 AND Ca15-3

Peritoneal cancer = Ca-125

Pancreatic/Colon cancer = Ca19.9

Trophoblastic Disease = HCG

colorectal = CEA

Hepatocellular Cancer = AFP

Medullary carcinoma thyroid = Calcitonin

26
Q

Live Vaccines:

A

BCG
MMR
Varicella
Polio (oral)

27
Q

Inactivated vaccines:

A

Influenza
Hepatitis A
Pertussis

28
Q

Toxoid Vaccines

A

Diptheria
Tetanus

29
Q

Polysaccharide Vaccines:

A

HIB
Meningococcal A&C
Pneumococcal

30
Q

Subunit/Genetically modified vaccines:

A

Hepatitis B

31
Q

What is suppressed in pregnancy and aids immune tolerance of fetus?

A

Th1

32
Q

Which complement protein is the product of all 3 activation pathways

A

The outcome of all 3 pathways is that C3 is cleaved into C3a and C3b.

33
Q

Which cytokine has increased production during pregnancy and are thought to enhance fetal survival?

A

Interleukin 10

34
Q

What cell type displays the rhesus antigen in Rhesus positive patients?

A

Erythocrytes

35
Q

Which cell types act as professional antigen presenter cells (APCs)?

A

There are 3 types of professional APC’s
Dendritic Cells
Macrophages
B-Cells

36
Q

Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

A

IgG

37
Q
A

Deck 1 (12 decks)

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