3

Question 1

With the EHSI range set to 40 nm, nearby airport runways within the FMC databases show as:
a. A red diamond with two sold white lines parallel to each other
b. Two solid white lines with a dashed centreline extending 14.2 nm from the runway symbol, runway number and circuit direction
c. Two dashed lines with one solid centreline extending 20.2 nm from the runway symbol, runway number is shown but not circuit direction

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Can weather radar returns be displayed in FULL (ROSE) VOR mode?
a. Yes
b. No

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which answer best represents the display characteristics of the “Expanded ILS mode”?
a. Weather radar returns cannot be displayed, orientation is track up
b. Weather radar returns can be displayed, orientation is heading up. Aircraft is at the centre of 360 degree compass rose
c. Weather radar returns can be displayed, orientation is heading up. Aircraft is displayed as a white triangle at the bottom of the display. Compass arc shown is 70 degrees

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which one of the answers listed below best represents the display of active waypoints and active routes:
a. Active waypoints are displayed in white, and tracks as dashed white lines
b. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as dashed white lines
c. Active waypoints are displayed in blue and tracks as dashed white lines
d. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as solid magenta lines

Answer 4

D

Question 5

Tuned VOR beacons are shown as?
a. Blue triangles
b. Green triangles
c. Red squares
d. Magenta stars
e. Green hexagon

Answer 5

E

Question 6

Nearby VOR’s which are not tuned are displayed as:
a. Blue squares
b. Green squares
c. Blue hexagons
d. Magenta stars
e. White stars

Answer 6

C

Question 7

Navaids can only be displayed in MAP mode.
a. True
b. False

Answer 7

A

Question 8

The heading trend vector is available in all EHSI display modes.
a. True
b. False

Answer 8

B

Question 9

Wind direction/speed indications are available in all EHSI display modes.
a. True
b. False

Answer 9

B

Question 10

All airports, including farm airstrips that are not in the FMC navigation database, can be displayed by pressing the “Airport” switch on the EHSI mode control panel.
a. True
b. False

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Which statement is correct about ‘Conditional Waypoints’?
a. They can be entered manually by the flight crew
b. They are events which are defined by a geographically fixed position by radial distance
c. There are four types – passing through an altitude, radial, DME distance, and intercepting a course
d. Only altitude conditional waypoints are displayed on the EHSI

Answer 11

D

Question 12

Provisional or modified routes are displayed as:
a. A dashed magenta line
b. A solid magenta line
c. A dashed white line
d. A solid white line

Answer 12

C

Question 13

A B767 approaching a waypoint which is associated with a holding pattern. On the EHSI screen you note that the pattern is displayed in as a solid blue line. This means that:
a. The holding pattern is active, and the aircraft will enter the holding pattern
b. The holding pattern is inactive and the aircraft will not enter the pattern, instead continuing to follow the solid magenta route it is presently on

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Which statement is correct regarding holding pattern and procedure turns that are displayed on the EHSI screen?
a. Active holding patterns and procedure turns are shown in magenta. Inactive in blue and modified in white
b. Active holding patterns and procedure turns in blue. Inactive in magenta and modified in white
c. Active holding patterns and procedure turns are displayed in white. Inactive in magenta and modified in blue

Answer 14

A

Question 15

The left EADI screen suddenly goes blank. The left EHSI screen is still fully operational. You would suspect:
a. A failure of the right symbol generator
b. A failure of the left symbol generator
c. A failure of the centre symbol generator
d. A failure of the left flight director system
e. An over-temp of the EADI screen or a power failure to it

Answer 15

E

Question 16

The B767 standby RMI’s are “BOOTSTRAPPED”. This means that:
a. If the left IRS fails, you can expect that the First Officers EHSI will also have failed
b. If the left IRS fails, you can expect the First Officers EADI will also have failed
c. If the left IRS fails, you can expect that the First Officers RMI will also have failed

Answer 16

C

Question 17

The left FMC has failed whilst in MAP mode, what indications would you get on the EHSI?
a. The “ATTITUDE” flab being displayed
b. All EHSI flags will show
c. The left EHSI screen will blank, and the centre SG will need to be selected to restore MAP function
d. The “MAP” flags will appear, and FMC cross-side inputs will need to be selected to MAP function
e. No change in EHSI display as the EHSI position display information is supplied by the symbol generator

Answer 17

D

Question 18

Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the:
a. Cool bypass air.
b. Hot stream.
c. Bleed air.

Answer 18

A

Question 19

Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is:
a. Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown.
b. Plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background.
c. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without current track and heading information.
d. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information at the top of the screen.

Answer 19

D

Question 20

On a B767 EHSI display, either a full or expanded compass scale is available in:
a. VOR (NAV) and ILS.
b. Plan and VOR (NAV).
c. Map and ILS.
d. Plan and Map.

Answer 20

A

Question 21

If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicted (sensed) quantity, the system will:
a. Automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations.
b. Alert the pilots to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message.
c. Recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity.
d. Automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations.

Answer 21

B

Question 22

In a large transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks could cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling manoeuvres. This is prevented by:
a. Flying the aircraft in balance during all stages of flight.
b. High speed fuel pumps.
c. Baffles in the fuel tanks.
d. Fuel orifices.

Answer 22

C

Question 23

The bank angle limit select knob on the AP/FDS control panel has an “AUTO” selection. When set to “AUTO”, the autopilot will:
a. Limit the bank angle in HDG select mode to 15° at high TAS increasing progressively to 25° as a TAS decrease
b. Limit the bank angle in HDG select mode to 15° below 250 kt TAS increasing progressively to 25° as TAS increases above 250kt TAS.
c. Limit the bank angle to a standard rate one turn at all speeds d. Limit the bank angle to 15°to LNAV only

Answer 23

A

Question 24

In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI’s selected to map mode, a failure of the Captain’s (L) FMC will cause:
a. The Captain’s Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI.
b. The Captain’s Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side FMC.
c. The Captain’s Map display to show and FMC FAIL flag, with the FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC.
d. The Captain’s Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ATLN) map switch, which feeds the Captain’.

Answer 24

B

Question 25

On the typical EHSI display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during a descent. When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale the aircraft is:
a. 1000ft below the profile.
b. 400ft above the profile.
c. 400ft below the profile.
d. 1000ft above the profile.

Answer 25

B

Question 26

On a conventional Macmeter/ASI (MASI), as masked Mach speed display indicates that:
a. The power supply to the instrument has been interrupted.
b. The instrument has failed.
c. The data from the CADC is unreliable.
d. The Mach number is below M0.6.

Answer 26

C

Question 27

A digital flight data recorder provides a record of:
a. Airframe configuration, engine parameters attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices.
b. Airframe configuration, engines parameters, altitude and ADC data.
c. Control positions, aircraft configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data
d. Airspeed, altitude, heading and cockpit voices.

Answer 27

C

Question 28

A method of airflow control in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine is:
a. Variable nozzle guide vanes.
b. Variable propelling nozzles.
c. Variable stator vanes.
d. Variable rotor blades.

Answer 28

C

Question 29

The item of information not displayed on the EADI of B767 is:
a. AFDS pitch mode annunciation.
b. Groundspeed.
c. IAS.
d. Heading.

Answer 29

D

Question 30

The CSD of a large jet aircraft electrical system is required to control:
a. AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency.
b. DC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency.
c. DC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity.
d. AC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity.

Answer 30

A

Question 31

The artificial feel system of a powered flight control system operates by feeding back control forces based on:
a. The difference between static pressure and pitot pressure.
b. The difference between ambient pressure and total pressure.
c. The difference between ambient pressure and dynamic pressure.
d. The difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure.

Answer 31

A

Question 32

The fuel quantity system on a modern jet transport aircraft may use capacitance type probes with compensators. The compensators are design to correct for variations in fuel:
a. Viscosity.
b. Temperature.
c. Density.
d. Volatility.

Answer 32

B

Question 33

Bleed air for thermal ice protection and modern jet transport aircraft should be used:
a. For long periods cyclically in icing conditions.
b. Continuously in all phases of flight.
c. Continuously in icing conditions.
d. For short periods cyclically in icing conditions.

Answer 33

C

Question 34

On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display the track trend vector shows:
a. The predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals.
b. The angle of bank required for a rate one turn based on a current airspeed.
c. The recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern based on a track crossing the holding fix.
d. The recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern based on heading crossing the fix.

Answer 34

A

Question 35

The fuel boost pumps in a jet transport category aircraft fuel system are located:
a. In the fuel control unit.
b. In the fuel manifold.
c. In the fuel tanks.
d. In the nacelle.

Answer 35

C

Question 36

Rudder is controlled by the FCC’s:
a. During multi-autopilot operations
b. Whenever any of the auto pilots are engaged

Answer 36

A

Question 37

During multi-autopilot approaches, the busses are parallelled. Bus isolation occurs at:
a. 500 ft agl
b. 1000 ft agl
c. 1500 ft agl

Answer 37

C

Question 38

The bank limit switch is set in the “AUTO” position. What happens to bank angle when speed is increased?
a. Bank angle is unaffected
b. Bank angle increases to maintain a “constant rate turn”
c. Bank angle decreases

Answer 38

C

Question 39

The bank limit switch is set to 25 degrees. Which statement below is most correct?
a. The angle of bank will always be 25 degrees regardless of speed
b. The angle of bank will always be equal to or greater than 25 degrees
c. The maximum bank angle will be 25 degrees, with actual angle decreasing as speed increases

Answer 39

C

Question 40

The aircraft is currently using VNAV and LNAV. You wish to turn right to avoid a storm along your LNAV path. Which statement is most correct regarding the selection of heading mode.
a. You should push the heading HOLD switch then rotate the heading selector knob to the desired heading.
b. Turning the heading selector will automatically in itself disengage LNAV
c. You should press the heading selector knob to first disengage LNAV mode, then turn the knob to the desired heading

Answer 40

C

Question 41

Setting the MCP heading window simultaneously sets the heading bug on both EHSI’s:
a. True
b. False

Answer 41

A

Question 42

When power is first applied, the heading window will open at what value?
a. 000M
b. 270T
c. 090T
d. 180M

Answer 42

A

Question 43

When does the Hdg window open to the LOC inbound course when the LOC mode is engaged?
a. When the Localiser frequency is selected on the radio panel
b. When the Localiser MCP switch is pressed
c. At the localiser capture point

Answer 43

C

Question 44

When the localiser switch is pressed but LOC is not yet captured, the LOC annunciation appears?
a. In green letters on the EHSI
b. In white letters on the EADI below the active mode which is in green letters above it
c. In green letters on the EADI below the active mode which is in the white letters above it

Answer 44

B

Question 45

At glide-slope capture during operations in VNAV:
a. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a white “G/S” annunciation
b. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation is replaced by a yellow “G/S” annunciation
c. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a green “G/S” annunciation
d. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a green “ILS” annunciation

Answer 45

C

Question 46

The 767 AFDS can:
a. Only capture the G/S after the Localiser has been captured
b. Only capture the Localiser if the glideslope has already been captured
c. Capture the LOC or G/S in either order of occurrence or both at the same time if necessary

Answer 46

C

Question 47

The AFDS can capture the Localiser as long as the aircraft’s intercept track-line:
a. Is displaced at no less than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
b. Is displaced at no less than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
c. Is displaced at no greater than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
d. Is displaced at no greater than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line

Answer 47

C

Question 48

The AFDS can capture the glideslope as long as the aircraft intercept track-line:
a. Is displaced at no less than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
b. Is displaced at no less than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
c. Is displaced at no greater than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
d. Is displaced at no greater than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line

Answer 48

D

Question 49

With the aircraft approaching to land, and current active pitch mode being VNAV, at what point will the VNAV EADI annunciation be replaced by a G/S annunciation?
a. At Localiser capture point
b. Always at 1500 agl
c. Always when the other two A/P’s engage
d. At glideslope capture point

Answer 49

D

Question 50

The aircraft’s current mode is “VNAV PATH” and A/T is armed. Pressing the V/S switch?
a. Automatically disengages the entire A/P system
b. Automatically disengages VNAV mode, the V/S bar light illuminate, and the speed and vertical speed windows open at their respective current values
c. Automatically disengages VNAV mode, the V/S switch bar illuminates, and the vertical speed window opens at the current value
d. Speed mode will not engage

Answer 50

B

Question 51

Pressing the FLCH switch, when the A/T is armed, and the aircraft was previously operating in VNAV mode. Which one of the answers below is most correct?
a. The A/T will engage in “SPD” mode, and the vertical speed window will open
b. The A/T EADI thrust annunciator will be “FLCH”, the speed window will open, and the FLCH switch bar light will illuminate
c. The A/T will disengage along with VNAV, the active pitch mode will be FLCH, and the FLCH switch bar light will illuminate. The speed window will remain closed and the SPD switch bar light will illuminate

Answer 51

B

Question 52

The aircraft is on descent to 8,000 ft in FLCH mode. The A/T is armed, and the speed is 260 KIAS. The aircraft is nearing 10,000 ft amsl and the pilot wishes to slow the aircraft to 250 KIAS so as not to exceed the speed limitation below 10,000 ft. Which statement below is most correct?
a. The pilot need only reduce the speed window value to 250 KIAS by using the MCP speed selector knob
b. The pilot must first open the speed window by pressing the IAS/MACH selector button
c. Speed cannot be adjusted by the pilot, as it is controlled by the FMC when in FLCH mode.
d. The pilot must first press the MCP speed switch before a new speed can be selected

Answer 52

A

Question 53

VNAV mode cannot be disengaged by pressing the FLCH or SPD.
a. Tue
b. False

Answer 53

B

Question 54

The speed window is normally closed when the FMC is flying the aircraft in VNAV.
a. True
b. False

Answer 54

A

Question 55

During takeoff, at what minimum altitude does the thrust reference change from Takeoff (TO) to Climb (CLB) upon selecting a new mode?
a. 1,000 ft radio altitude
b. 1,500 ft agl
c. 500 ft agl
d. 400 ft radio altitude

Answer 55

D

Question 56

Which one statement is most correct regarding the powering up of the engines in N1 mode?
a. Throttle movement stops when the first engine reaches the reference N1 value. The pilot may have manually advanced the lagging power lever
b. Throttle movement continues until the last engine reaches the reference N1 value. A power lever may have be manually retarded by the pilot

Answer 56

A

Question 57

The thrust that an engine is developing is held after what speed during takeoff roll:
a. 50 kt
b. 60 kt
c. 80 kt
d. V1
e. Vr

Answer 57

C

Question 58

Which statement is most correct about the operation of the “Altitude Hold” switch as the aircraft climbs through 17,000 ft if the EADI annunciations is “VNAV SPD”?
a. It will cause the aircraft to pitch up and capture 17,000 ft
b. The “SPD” switch and “ALT HOLD” switch bar lights extinguish
c. The EADI annunciations will be “N1” and “ALT HOLD”
d. The airspeed window will close
e. The AFDS commands altitude existing when switch is pushed

Answer 58

E

Question 59

Which statement below is incorrect?
a. Auto throttle can be engaged in N1, and SPD modes
b. Auto throttle can be engaged during VNAV operations
c. Auto throttle can be engaged in FLCH mode
d. Auto throttle operates whenever a MCP - FD mode is selected, irrespective of the A/T switch position

Answer 59

D

Question 60

The function of positive pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to:
a. Limit the cabin altitude to a value below the aircraft altitude
b. Limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times
c. Limit the maximum differential pressure
d. Limit the maximum rate of change of cabin pressure

Answer 60

C

Question 61

Before conditioned air enters the aircraft cabin, the last cooling unit the air passes through, (in an air-cycle system) is the:
a. Primary heat exchanger
b. Secondary heat exchanger
c. Ram-air bypass valve
d. Expansion turbine

Answer 61

D

Question 62

The purpose of cooling doors (ram air doors) in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to:
a. Regulate the volume of air passing through the heat exchangers
b. Increase the ram air flow to the cabin
c. Cool the air in the air cycle machine
d. Increase the bleed air flow through the air cycle machine

Answer 62

A

Question 63

The function of the mixing valve in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to:
a. Blend ram air with bleed air to control cabin temperature
b. Mix dry air with humidified air to provide a comfortable environment
c. Regulate the mixture of cold and hot air for distribution into the passenger and crew cabins
d. Regulate the mixture of fresh and recirculated air to ensure adequate oxygen supply

Answer 63

C

Question 64

The air conditioning system of a jet transport category aircraft has a water separator designed to:
a. Dry out the moist cool air to prevent respiratory infections
b. Remove water which has condensed in the system during the cooling process
c. Increase the humidity of the air flowing to the passenger cabin
d. Prevent ice forming in the cabin vents

Answer 64

B

Question 65

Two main types of air conditioning systems found on large jet transport category aircraft are the:
a. Freon and the vapour cycle
b. Air cycle and the vapour cycle
c. Freon and the closed refrigerant cycle
d. The open cycle and the air cycle

Answer 65

B

Question 66

The purpose of the cabin compressor in a twin piston engine aircraft is to:
a. Pressurise the cabin air
b. Ventilate the cabin
c. Warm the cabin air
d. Cool the cabin air

Answer 66

A

Question 67

Humidifiers are necessary in the air conditioning system of a jet transport category aircraft to:
a. Remove the moisture which was condensed during the cooling process
b. Increase the humidity of the ram cooling air
c. Prevent the bleed air from overheating the cabin
d. Replace the moisture which was removed during the cooling process

Answer 67

D

Question 68

Isolation valves are used to:
a. Separate the pneumatic duct into sections
b. Control bleed air from the engines
c. Isolate the air conditioning system

Answer 68

A

Question 69

How is cabin temperature controlled when passenger load distribution is not even?
a. Pack output is varied
b. Passengers are moved to even the temperature
c. A zone temperature control system is used

Answer 69

C

Question 70

Trim air comes from the:
a. Conditioned air manifold
b. ACM outlet duct
c. Pneumatic duct

Answer 70

C

Question 71

The function of the condenser in a vapour-cycle cooling system is to:
a. Change the Freon pressure before it enters the compressor
b. Transfer heat from the Freon to outside air
c. Increase water-vapour content in the cabin
d. Transfer heat from cabin air to the Freon

Answer 71

B

Question 72

In cruise, the outflow valve which was partially open is set to the fully closed position. The differential pressure indicator would show:
a. An increase
b. No change
c. A decrease

Answer 72

A

Question 73

The cooling effectiveness of the heat exchangers is controlled by the:
a. Bypass valve
b. ACM
c. Inlet and exit doors

Answer 73

C

Question 74

The aircraft rate of climb is:
a. Always slower than the cabin
b. The same as the cabin
c. Usually faster than the cabin

Answer 74

C

Question 75

Pressurised aircraft are required to be fitted with:
a. An aural and/or visual warning if the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft
b. A source of ram air for pressurisation
c. Automatic drop-down of oxygen masks in the event of a cabin pressure failure below 25,000 ft
d. An oxygen supply, sufficient for all aircraft occupants including the crew, for at least 60 minutes

Answer 75

A

Question 76

The primary component that maintains cabin pressure is the:
a. Air-con pack(s)
b. By-pass valve
c. Out-flow valve(s)
d. Diff pressure valve
e. Lapse-rate valve

Answer 76

C

Question 77

If the aircraft climbs at 1000 fpm with 1500 fpm rate-of-climb incorrectly set on the controller, the cabin will:
a. Climb at 1500 fpm
b. Descent at 500 fpm
c. Climb at 1000 fpm
d. Will not climb until max diff is reached

Answer 77

C

Question 78

The “THRUST HOLD” annunciation on the EADI appears at what speed during the takeoff roll:
a. 50 kt
b. 80 kt
c. 100 kt
d. V1
e. VMCG

Answer 78

B

Question 79

An aircraft may be fitted with a ram-air valve: This valve:
a. Is always open during normal operations
b. Should be closed during normal operations
c. Is closed at max diff operations
d. Can be opened to relieve excess pressure

Answer 79

B

Question 80

On descent, the crew forget to adjust the cabin altitude on the normal controller to the destination port. As the descent is continued, the aircraft will descend to the same altitude as the cabin. If the descent is continued the:
a. Cabin will ‘hold’ its original altitude
b. Cabin will automatically descend at about 500 fpm
c. Outflow valves will fully open
d. Cabin will descend at the same rate of as the aircraft

Answer 80

D

Question 81

If any residual cabin pressure remains during approach, it is normally “dumped” during landing. This allows:
a. Passengers more time to “clear” their ears
b. The aircraft doors to be opened at the terminal
c. Less strain on the aircraft structure
d. The outflow valves to be almost fully closed

Answer 81

B

Question 82

A pressurised aircraft has to have a means of rapidly “releasing” all aircraft cabin pressure, during some form of abnormal, or emergency operation. This would normally be achieved by an emergency switch in the cockpit which:
a. Opens the ram air valve
b. Closes the outflow valve(s)
c. Shuts off the air-conditioning packs
d. Opens the outflow valve(s), or dump valve(s)

Answer 82

D

Question 83

Vapour cycle cooling systems, as compared to air cycle systems, are usually:
a. Less efficient
b. More efficient during ground operations
c. Not capable of as much cooling capacity
d. Not as efficient during ground operations

Answer 83

B

Question 84

A vapour cycle cooling system:
a. Uses Freon (a refrigerant) in the cooling process
b. Utilises engine bleed air for cooling
c. Combines ram and engine bleed air for cooling
d. Has limited use during ground operations

Answer 84

A

Question 85

Whilst climbing or descending, the aircraft cabin is under the “control” of the rate controller. On cruise, the aircraft cabin is under:
a. Differential (isobaric) control
b. Pressure relief control
c. Negative pressure relief control
d. Cabin by-pass valve control

Answer 85

A

Question 86

If the cabin rate of climb is too high, the rate controller should be adjusted to cause the:
a. Cooling turbine to spin faster
b. Outflow valve to close
c. Ram-air duct to open
d. Outflow valve to open

Answer 86

B

Question 87

What effect will an increase in altitude alone have on the L.P. Compressor?
a. Discharge pressure will rise.
b. RPM will increase.
c. RPM will decrease.

Answer 87

B

Question 88

The use of bleed air from a gas turbine engine compressor will result in:
a. An increase in RPM and a decrease in EGT.
b. An increase in EGT, required thrust and an increase in SFC.
c. A decrease in RPM and a lower SFC.

Answer 88

B

Question 89

Burning fuel in the combustion chamber is necessary to:
a. Increase the volume and velocity of the gases.
b. Raise the pressure and keep volume constant.
c. Increase the density of the gases.

Answer 89

A

Question 90

At which times is the surge bleed valve open and closed during normal operations of a gas turbine engine? (Often referred to as the HBOV, handling bleed off valve)
a. Closed from idling to design RPM.
b. Closed until compressor stall occurs.
c. Open from idling to nearly design RPM then closed up to max RPM.

Answer 90

C

Question 91

A small increase speed in a slow flying jet leads to a small initial decrease in thrust because:
a. A combustion back pressure increases.
b. RAM pressure decreases.
c. Difference between exhaust and intake velocities is reduced.

Answer 91

C

Question 92

EPR is a ratio of:
a. Compressor outlet pressure to exhaust pressures.
b. Compressor discharge pressure to turbine discharge pressure.
c. Compressor inlet pressure to jet pipe pressure.

Answer 92

C

Question 93

A turbofan is more propulsive efficient than a turbojet because:
a. It accelerates a large mass of air to a relatively low velocity.
b. It accelerates a small mass of air to a relatively high velocity.
c. It accelerates a large mass of air to a relatively high velocity.

Answer 93

A

Question 94

Turbo props are designed for which type of flying (compared to turbo jet)?
a. High speed long routes.
b. High speed short routes.
c. Low speed short routes.

Answer 94

C

Question 95

The primary engine power gauge of a turbo prop is the:
a. EPR gauge.
b. Torque gauge.
c. Fuel flow indicator.

Answer 95

B

Question 96

What is the function of a safety coupling in a turbo prop engine?
a. To allow reverse pitch in ground operation.
b. To disconnect the propeller in the event of an engine over speed.
c. To decouple the engine from the gear box in the event of a propeller over speed.

Answer 96

C

Question 97

The fuel flow transmitter in the fuel system of a transport category jet aircraft is located:
a. At the inlet of the high pressure pump.
b. At the inlet to the fuel control unit.
c. At the outlet from the fuel control unit.

Answer 97

C

Question 98

Taking off in rain in a turbo jet, the igniter pulse will be selected to continuous. In this case, the spark will be:
a. High value at low voltage.
b. High value at high voltage to prevent flame out.
c. Low value at high voltage.

Answer 98

C

Question 99

What section of the APU supplies compressed air to start the main engines?
a. Exhaust.
b. Turbine.
c. Compressor.

Answer 99

C

Question 100

The map mode of an aircraft with an EFIS shows:
a. Engine and system status.
b. Waypoints.
c. Fuel quantity

Answer 100

B

Question 101

The function of a static inverter in the AC power system in a large jet transport aircraft is:
a. To provide 115v AC to selected instruments at all times.
b. To provide 28v DC in the event of a total generator failure.
c. To provide 115v AC in the event of a total generator failure.

Answer 101

C

Question 102

The purpose of a hydraulic priority valve is:
a. To shed non-essential services due to a loss of system pressure.
b. To shed non-essential services due to loss of system fluid.
c. To select an alternate system pressure in the event of primary pressure loss.

Answer 102

A

Question 103

Two 12v 36 A/H batteries are connected in parallel, the resultant output of:
a. 24v 36 A/H.
b. 12v 72 A/H.
c. 24v 18 A/H.

Answer 103

B

Question 104

As an aircraft accelerates from subsonic speeds to supersonic speeds, the co-efficient of drag (CD) will:
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase and then decrease.

Answer 104

C

Question 105

Wing sweep results in an increase in the stalling angle of attack. This is because:
a. The swept wing is more efficient at low speeds.
b. The swept wing CL is less than a straight wing CL for any given body angle.
c. The swept wing is less efficient at high speeds.

Answer 105

B

Question 106

On swept wing aircraft, nose up pitch at the stall is caused by:
a. Wing tip stall and rearward C of G movements.
b. Wing tip stall and rearward C of P movement.
c. Wing tip stall and forward C of P movement.

Answer 106

C

Question 107

Which is not an advantage of a swept back wing compared to a straight wing?
a. Higher MCRIT.
b. Less gust sensitivity.
c. More effective trailing edge devices.

Answer 107

C

Question 108

The angle of attack required for max range cruise does not vary with gross weight.
a. True
b. False

Answer 108

A

Question 109

Specific fuel consumption (SFC) decreases with increasing inlet air temperature.
a. True
b. False

Answer 109

F

Question 110

Airflow behind a normal shock wave is always subsonic.
a. True
b. False

Answer 110

A

Question 111

Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio.
a. True
b. False

Answer 111

A

Question 112

Both maximum endurance and maximum climb angle occur at L/D max.
a. True
b. False

Answer 112

A

Question 113

To achieve maximum angle of climb, you would climb at:
a. VMO using climb power.
b. VIMD using climb power.
c. VIMD using maximum thrust.

Answer 113

C

Question 114

Transport type aircraft have a large speed band where the rate of climb is fairly constant. This is because:
a. Drag is small compared to thrust and doesn’t vary with speed.
b. For this band, the power available and power required curves are nearly parallel.
c. The excess power means that drag is largely irrelevant.

Answer 114

B

Question 115

Airflow through an expansion wave, will exhibit the following characteristics:
a. Behind the wave the air will be subsonic with no change in direction.
b. Behind the wave the air will be supersonic and will change direction.
c. Behind the wave the air will be supersonic with no change in direction.

Answer 115

B

Question 116

An internal flexible seal attached to the leading edge of a control surface is designed to:
a. Provide control force feedback to the pilot.
b. Assist control load balancing.
c. Limit control movement travel.

Answer 116

B

Question 117

Specific fuel consumption increases as engine RPM approaches design RPM.
a. True
b. False

Answer 117

B

Question 118

Maximum range is achieved at CL/CD max.
a. True
b. False

Answer 118

B

Question 119

Below the tropopause, a constant mach number cruise climb would produce a constant IAS.
a. True
b. False

Answer 119

B

Question 120

During a constant altitude cruise, a reduction in gross weight will require a reduction in wing angle of attack to maintain optimum lift co-efficient for subsonic cruise.
a. True
b. False

Answer 120

B

Question 121

Most modern turbofan engines have two or more spools (shafts) because:
a. This allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal rpm
b. Manufacturing is made simpler and cheaper
c. Maintenance is simplified
d. Shaft strength is increased

Answer 121

A

Question 122

An ideal jet engine air intake delivers air to the compressor with:
a. No turbulence and pressure lower than ambient
b. No turbulence and temperature higher than ambient
c. No turbulence and velocity higher than ambient
d. No turbulence and pressure higher than ambient

Answer 122

D

Question 123

Air that is bypassed in a turbofan engine:
a. Goes to the rear of the combustion chambers for cooling purposes
b. Does not pass through the compressor
c. Is stored for later use
d. Is used to drive the air turbine

Answer 123

B

Question 124

One compressor bleed outlet is for cabin pressurisation and air conditioning. Another is used to:
a. Reduce combustion chamber back pressure
b. Give a balance to the air losses
c. Prevent compressor stall and surge when operating off design RPM
d. Cool the brakes

Answer 124

C

Question 125

The turbofan is more efficient than the turbojet because:
a. It accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively low velocity
b. It accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively high velocity
c. It accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively low velocity
d. It accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively high velocity

Answer 125

A

Question 126

Apart from bigger, stronger fan blades, a turbofan enjoys better foreign object damage (FOD) protection to the main engine than a pure turbojet because:
a. These engines have intake screens
b. Most of the air bypasses the engine
c. The most foreign objects are smaller than the blades
d. The engine rpm is lower

Answer 126

B

Question 127

A turbofan is not as efficient as a turboprop at low speeds. This is because the turbofan has:
a. A lower air mass accelerated to a lower velocity
b. A higher air mass accelerated to a higher velocity
c. A lower air mass accelerated to a higher velocity
d. A higher air mass accelerated to a lower velocity

Answer 127

D

Question 128

A turboprop cannot operate at the high speeds of a turbofan because the turboprop has:
a. Inadequate power output
b. Gearbox rpm limitations
c. Shockwaves at the propeller blade tips at high Mach number
d. No wing sweep

Answer 128

C

Question 129

A free turbine turboprop uses a smaller starter motor than other turboprops because:
a. Of the need to save weight
b. Of the simpler design
c. Only the engine core is rotated for starting
d. The engine has a whole is lighter

Answer 129

C

Question 130

One way to increase the performance of a jet engine would be to:
a. Introduce the air into the engine at a lower speed
b. Increase the engine operating temperature
c. Alter the angle of the nozzle guide vanes
d. Reduce engine operating rpm

Answer 130

B

Question 131

Of a turbofan’s total air intake, 20% passes through the core. This bypass ratio is nearest to:
a. 4:1
b. 5:1
c. 1:4
d. 1:5

Answer 131

A

Question 132

Turboprops are generally designed for which type of flying (compared to turbojets):
a. High speed long routes
b. Low speed long routes
c. High speed short routes
d. Low speed short routes

Answer 132

D

Question 133

An aircraft may need to dump fuel. To ensure that the total fuel supply is not dumped:
a. Manual shut-off of fuel when enough has been dumped
b. Automatic shut-off of fuel when a preset amount has been dumped
c. Use of standpipes in the fuel dumping system with low level float switches
d. Use of a timer controlled cut-off switch

Answer 133

C

Question 134

A turbofan produces less thrust at take-off than a similar size turboprop because:
a. The turboprop is very efficient at modestly accelerating a large mass of air as quick
b. The propeller blades can “bite” the air faster
c. The fan is experiencing Mach Number interference at take-off rpm
d. A turbofan cannot be run at full thrust at take off because of noise considerations

Answer 134

A

Question 135

During a multi-autopilot Category III auto land, an approach sub mode of ROLLOUT is enunciated on the Flight Mode Annunciator roll mode to replace LOC at approximately 5 ft RA. Concerning auto-throttle operation when ROLLOUT is engaged:
a. The auto-throttle remains in IDLE mode until A/T disengagement
b. The auto-throttle mode changes to THR HOLD
c. The auto-throttle is disarmed when ROLLOUT becomes the engaged roll mode
d. The auto-throttle mode changes to GA when ROLLOUT is engaged roll mode

Answer 135

A

Question 136

The inputs considered to be “outer loop” in an autopilot system are:
a. Attitude and yaw damper
b. Pitch and roll
c. Altitude and heading
d. Yaw and pitch

Answer 136

C

Question 137

One reason why jet aircraft use kerosene and not AVGAS is that kerosene has:
a. A higher flashpoint
b. Less calorific value
c. Less viscosity
d. Less chemical instability

Answer 137

A

Question 138

Shortly after take-off, a swept wing aircraft encounters a downdraft. Best recovery technique would be to?
a. Maintain airspeed, even if it means increasing vertical sink rate.
b. Lower aircraft nose to prevent stall, then zoom climb using high alpha.
c. Raise aircraft alpha to stick-shaker speed.

Answer 138

C

Question 139

If a turbojet thrust reverser unlocked light comes on during flight:
a. The situation is not potentially serious, keep an eye on it
b. The situation is potentially serious, be prepared to reduce thrust if the lever comes up
c. The situation is not serious as it is impossible for a reverser to deploy in flight
d. The situation is potentially critical, shut down the engine if yaw, loss of airspeed or buffet is detected

Answer 139

D

Question 140

The main reason for stating an upper limit to fuel temperature is:
a. To allow the greatest temperature rise through the engine
b. To ensure the fuel lubricant properties are maintained
c. To stop chemical breakdown of the fuel
d. To ensure vapour release (vapour lock) does not occur

Answer 140

D

Question 141

An APU auto-shutdown will not be caused by:
a. Over-speed
b. Under-speed
c. Low oil pressure
d. Fire

Answer 141

B

Question 142

The document in which you would find the optional fuels approved for a particular aircraft is:
a. In the CAR’s
b. In ERSA
c. In the aircraft flight manual
d. In the company policy document

Answer 142

C

Question 143

The additives normally found in F35 jet fuel (Jet A-1) used in Australia is:
a. Anti-boil
b. No additives normally
c. Anti-ice
d. Anti-bacterial

Answer 143

D

Question 144

The engine instrument which would not be found on a turbofan aircraft is:
a. Oil pressure
b. N1
c. Torque
d. Fuel flow

Answer 144

C

Question 145

An APU does not directly provide:
a. Shaft power to drive an electric generator
b. Hydraulic pressure
c. Bleed air for air conditioning
d. Bleed air for pneumatics

Answer 145

B

Question 146

The in-flight problem a turbine engine with low flight idling RPM may have is:
a. Excessive turbine temperature on climb and in cruise
b. Flame out on descent
c. Excessively rapid acceleration
d. Maximum RPM may not be available

Answer 146

B

Question 147

A desirable quality of jet fuel is:
a. High viscosity
b. Lubricant properties
c. Lowest possible calorific value
d. Low flash point

Answer 147

B

Question 148

Air turbine starters for gas turbine engines normally:
a. Cannot be used if the APU or another engine or compressed air source is not available
b. Have a cockpit light to warn of low air pressure
c. Are used on small turbine engines
d. Can be used to supply the pneumatic system

Answer 148

A

Question 149

The safeguards used to prevent inadvertent engine thrust reverser deployment in flight are:
a. Thorough crew training
b. An auto-stow mechanisms and mechanical and electrical interlocks and isolation valves which prevent full reverse thrust unless the thrust levers are at idle and the reversers are fully deployed
c. Hydraulic pressure required to activate deployment
d. Guarded buttons

Answer 149

B

Question 150

In a gas turbine engine with a free power turbine:
a. The free power turbine shaft is independent of the other engine spools
b. The free power turbine drives the compressor
c. The free power turbine is driven by the compressor

Answer 150

A

Question 151

The advantages of an axial flow compressor compared to a centrifugal flow compressor of the same frontal area in a gas turbine engine are:
a. Higher pressure ratios and greater mass airflow
b. Ruggedness and compactness
c. High resistance to FOD (foreign object damage)
d. Higher SFC (specific fuel consumption)

Answer 151

A

Question 152

A torque meter in a turboprop aircraft is required for the operation of the:
a. Auto-feather system
b. Beta range
c. Pitch lock
d. Propeller governor

Answer 152

A

Question 153

A transport jet aircraft is filled to maximum fuel by volume (full tanks) with kerosene of a low specific gravity. Compared to using kerosene fuel with a higher specific gravity, the maximum range of the aircraft with the low SG kerosene will be:
a. Reduced
b. Increased
c. unaffected

Answer 153

A

Question 154

Regarding the measurement of temperature in a gas turbine engine:
a. EGT measures turbine entry gas temperature
b. TOT measures combustion chamber gas temperature
c. JPT measures jet pipe gas temperature
d. ITT measures compressor outlet temperature

Answer 154

C

Question 155

With regard to thermal ice protection systems using engine bleed air:
a. When used on an engine intake, thermal ice protection should be regarded as de-icing system
b. Thermal ice protection is only available while taxiing
c. Thermal ice protection is only available in flight
d. When used on an engine intake, thermal ice protection should be regarded as an anti-icing system

Answer 155

D

Question 156

The purpose of the fuel system filter bypass in a gas turbine engine is:
a. To save wear on the filter when the fuel is warm
b. To ensure fuel flow even though the filter is blocked
c. To maintain a constant pressure differential
d. To recirculate the fuel

Answer 156

B

Question 157

One of the limitations of an air starting system on gas turbine engine is:
a. The requirement for an APU, another engine or a ground unit to provide compressed air
b. The possibility of thermal runaway
c. The low engine RPM achieved with air starts
d. The limited air supply available

Answer 157

A

Question 158

The function of a negative torque system (NTS) in a turboprop is to:
a. Disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of an engine overspeed
b. Increase the propeller blade angle to prevent the turbine from being driven by the propeller
c. Prevent the propeller from reversing its direction of rotation
d. Stop the pilot not flying (PNF) from accidentally feathering the engines in flight

Answer 158

B

Question 159

The EPR gauge in a jet aircraft measures:
a. The pressure increase through the engine
b. The pressure ratio between the exhaust air and intake (ambient) air
c. The pressure ratio between the compressor and combustion chamber
d. The torque on the main drive shaft

Answer 159

B

Question 160

The N1 gauge indicate in a turbofan engine indicates:
a. Fan RPM
b. High pressure compressor temperature
c. Turbine speed
d. Turbine temperature

Answer 160

A

Question 161

As a turbofan powered aircraft climbs through the tropopause, thrust will:
a. Increase
b. Remain constant
c. Reduce at the same rate as below the tropopause
d. Reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause

Answer 161

D

Question 162

The use of bleed air from a gas turbine engine for various services will result in most loss of performance during:
a. Start and taxi
b. Take-off, climb and cruise
c. Climb, cruise and descent
d. Take-off and climb

Answer 162

D

Question 163

In a turboprop installation, the term “power plant” refers to:
a. The compressor, combustion chamber and turbine
b. The gas turbine engine, gearbox and propeller
c. The gas turbine engine and gearbox
d. The propeller and gearbox

Answer 163

B

Question 164

The reverse thrust system on a turbojet aircraft has interlocks to prevent:
a. Full reverse thrust from being applied at low speed
b. Full reverse thrust until the reversers are in the full reverse position
c. The propeller from going into negative pitch
d. The fan from reversing direction in flight

Answer 164

B

Question 165

With reference to a gas turbine engine:
a. TIT is the temperature of the gas between the high pressure and low pressure compressor
b. EGT is the temperature of the gas entering the turbine
c. JPT is the temperature of the gas exiting the combustion chamber
d. TGT is the temperature of the gas between the turbine stages
e. N2 is the temperature of the gas at the front of the high pressure compressor

Answer 165

D

Question 166

A turbo jet is maintaining a constant flight level and the TAS is increased from 180 kt to 460 kt. Thrust available at maximum thrust will:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Decrease then increase
d. Increase then decrease
e. Remain constant

Answer 166

C

Question 167

The fuel flow transmitter in the fuel system of a large jet transport category aircraft is located:
a. At the inlet to the high pressure pump
b. At the outlet from the high pressure pump
c. At the inlet to the fuel control unit
d. At the outlet from the fuel control unit

Answer 167

D

Question 168

As the thrust levers of a turbojet engine aircraft are advanced for take-off:
a. Airflow increases, causing a higher fuel flow and RPM
b. Fuel flow increases, causing a higher EGT and increased RPM
c. EGT increases, causing a higher mass airflow and increased fuel flow
d. Thrust increases, causing increased exhaust gas velocity

Answer 168

B

Question 169

The pressure rise in the centrifugal compressor of a gas turbine engine occurs in:
a. The impeller only
b. The diffuser only
c. Both the impeller and the diffuser
d. The stator vanes

Answer 169

C

Question 170

Gas turbine engine compressor blades do not usually require thermal anti-ice (TAI) protection because:
a. The temperature rise through the compressor raises the temperature above freezing
b. The centrifugal action of the rotor blades prevents ice accretions
c. The high pressures prevent ice formation
d. The nose cone prevents ice formation in the rest of the compressor

Answer 170

A

Question 171

On a wet day take-off in a jet engine aircraft, the igniter plugs may be selected to continuous ignition. In this case the characteristics of the spark will be:
a. High value (joules) at low voltage to prevent overheating the nozzle guide vanes
b. Low value (joules) at high voltage to preserve the igniter plugs and the ignition unit
c. High value (joules) a high voltage to ensure a fast relight in the event of a flame out
d. Low value (joules) at low voltage to conserve battery power

Answer 171

B

Question 172

With an air turbine starter system on a large modern jet engine, the starter is disengaged:
a. Automatically by the trip spring after pre-set time period
b. Automatically by the starter clutch at a predetermined RPM
c. Manually by the starter control solenoid at a suitable idle RPM
d. Manually by the disengage switch when the peak TOT has been reached

Answer 172

B

Question 173

The primary purpose of the of the APU in a large jet transport category aircraft is for:
a. In flight engine starting
b. Electrical and pneumatic supply on the ground
c. In flight electrical supply
d. In flight pneumatic supply

Answer 173

B

Question 174

The design feature which is not an advantage of the annular combustion chamber design in a modern gas turbine engine, compared to other multi-chamber designs is:
a. Improved combustion efficiency
b. Less cooling air is required
c. Elimination of flame propagation problems between chambers
d. Reduced weight and cost
e. Compact
f. Greater structural integrity

Answer 174

F

Question 175

A particular turbine fuel has a specific gravity of 0.80 at a given temperature. A temperature rise of 20oC will result in a calorific (energy) value for the fuel which is:
a. The same energy value as for the original temperature per litre of fuel
b. The same energy value as for the original temperature per kg of fuel
c. Less energy than for the original temperature per kg of fuel
d. More energy than for the original temperature per kg of fuel
e. More energy than for the original temperature per litre of fuel

Answer 175

B

Question 176

The function of the torque meter in a turboprop powered aircraft is to:
a. Brake the propeller
b. Feather the propeller
c. Lock the propeller at the fine pitch lock
d. Monitor shaft output power

Answer 176

D

Question 177

A probable result of a hot start in a gas turbine engine is:
a. Stable turbine temperatures
b. Torching the exhaust section
c. Excessive compressor temperatures
d. Excessive turbine RPM

Answer 177

B

Question 178

Regarding the measurement of temperature in a gas turbine engine:
a. EGT measures turbine entry gas temperatures
b. TOT measures combustion chamber gas temperature
c. JPT measures jet pipe gas temperature
d. ITT measures compressor outlet temperature

Answer 178

C

Question 179

The ram air effect on a turbojet engine results in a conversion of:
a. Pressure energy in the airstream into heat
b. Velocity of the airstream into kinetic energy
c. The kinetic energy in the airstream into pressure
d. Heat energy in the airstream into velocity

Answer 179

C

Question 180

Boost pumps in the fuel system of a large jet transport category aircraft are generally:
a. Piston type
b. Variable displacement type
c. Impeller / Centrifugal type
d. Plunger type

Answer 180

C

Question 181

Regarding the functioning of the reverse thrust system on a high by pass turbo fan engine:
a. Blocker doors are used to reverse the hot stream
b. Clamshells or buckets are used to reverse the cold stream
c. Target deflectors are used to divert the cold stream
d. Blocker doors are used to divert the cold stream

Answer 181

D

Question 182

The take-off run of a turbofan powered aircraft will be increased by:
a. Increased density
b. Low altitude
c. Low temperature
d. Increased altitude

Answer 182

D

Question 183

The use of bleed air on take-off in a large turbojet engined aircraft will result in a:
a. Lower EGT
b. Higher EGT
c. Increased RPM and surging
d. Decreased RPM and surging

Answer 183

B

Question 184

The effect of a change in temperature on the specific gravity of AVTUR is:
a. Variations in temperature have no effect on the specific gravity
b. Specific gravity increases as temperature increases
c. Specific gravity decreases as temperature increases

Answer 184

C

Question 185

The section of the APU which supplies compressed air to start the main engines on a large jet transport aircraft is:
a. The compressor
b. The diffuser inlet
c. The turbine
d. The exhaust

Answer 185

A

Question 186

The purpose of the air shroud on an atomiser type (duplex) fuel spray nozzle in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine is:
a. To diffuse the fuel and give a more even spray pattern
b. To reduce carbon deposits around the nozzle tip and cool the nozzle
c. To impart a swirl to the fuel and reduce axial velocity
d. To slow the air down as it enters the combustion chamber

Answer 186

B

Question 187

The function of variable inlet guide vanes in a gas turbine engine is:
a. To prevent compressor blade stall when the engine is operating at low RPM
b. To straighten the airflow entering the compressor at high RPM
c. To reduce the axial velocity of the airflow entering the compressor
d. To reduce the compressor back pressure at design RPM

Answer 187

A

Question 188

The gas turbine engine component which acts to straighten the airflow before exiting the engine is:
a. The nozzle guide vanes
b. The last stage turbine blades
c. The exhaust cone
d. The rear turbine exhaust cone support struts in the jet pipe

Answer 188

D

Question 189

Turbofans and turbojets are preferred over turboprops for speeds over about 350 kt because:
a. Turboprops have reduced propulsive efficiency at high speeds
b. Turboprops are considered too noisy at high speeds
c. Turboprops cannot carry as much payload as turbojets at high speed
d. Turboprops are not as aesthetically pleasing as turbofans in flight

Answer 189

A

Question 190

The most common type of starter motor found on large modern jet transport category aircraft turbine engines is:
a. Gas turbine starters
b. Electric starters
c. Air turbine starters
d. Cartridge starters

Answer 190

C

Question 191

The effect on the maximum static thrust output of a turbojet engine at Mean Sea Level with changes in ambient temperature and pressure is:
a. Static thrust increases with an increase in temperature and pressure
b. Static thrust decreases with an increase in temperature and pressure
c. Static thrust decreases with a decrease in temperature and increased pressure
d. Static thrust decreases with an increase in temperature and decreased pressure

Answer 191

D

Question 192

The changes in the gas flow within the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine are:
a. Volume increases, temperature increases, pressure decreases or remains constant
b. Velocity decreases, temperature decreases, pressure increases or remains constant
c. Volume decreases, temperature increase, pressure decreases
d. Velocity decreases, temperature increases, pressure increases

Answer 192

A

Question 193

Air in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine is slowed to:
a. Provide better mixtures for combustion
b. Reduce possibility of flame out
c. Contain the flame in a smaller area
d. Keep the combustion chamber walls cool

Answer 193

B

Question 194

Turbine fuel requires:
a. High viscosity
b. High calorific value
c. High compressibility
d. Low chemical stability

Answer 194

B

Question 195

A particular turbofan engine has 3 shafts. N1 refers to:
a. The fastest shaft
b. The slowest shaft
c. The compressor shaft
d. The shortest shaft

Answer 195

B

Question 196

A symptom of a ‘hung’ start with a gas turbine engine is:
a. Falling engine temperature
b. Starter motor disengagement
c. No rise in RPM above self sustain speed
d. Increasing fuel flow

Answer 196

C

Question 197

Operating a jet engine at design rpm will give the:
a. Greatest fuel burn per hour
b. Greatest SFC
c. Minimum SFC
d. Minimum fuel burn per hour

Answer 197

C

Question 198

Modern jet engine design RPM is:
a. Maximum RPM
b. Slightly in excess of maximum RPM
c. Slightly less than maximum RPM
d. About 80% maximum RPM

Answer 198

C

Question 199

With regard to transport category aircraft fuel systems, the true statement is true:
a. Fuel gauges provide the only method of accurately determining fuel on board before commencing a flight
b. Measurement of fuel quantity on board may only be conducted on a level surface
c. Fuel on board may be determined by use of readings from dipsticks combined with tables and a sight gauge to correct for uneven terrain
d. Fuel used meters are the only reliable method of accurately determining fuel on board before commencing a flight

Answer 199

C

Question 200

The purpose standpipes serve in an aircraft fuel system is:
a. They allow quick and accurate determination of fuel tank contents
b. They prevent unintentional dumping of the entire fuel tank contents
c. They provide easy transfer of fuel between tanks
d. They give constant information about relative fuel levels in different tanks

Answer 200

B

Question 201

The ideal air-fuel mixture ratio for kerosene is:
a. About 5:1
b. Greater than 15:1
c. 15:1
d. About 130:1

Answer 201

B

Question 202

The component of a gas turbine engine which directs the airflow into the compressor is:
a. The stator vanes
b. The nozzle guide vanes
c. The diffuser
d. The inlet guide vanes

Answer 202

D

Question 203

A TCAS display shows a target which is annotated with the symbols +05^ What does this mean?
a. To avoid the traffic you need to climb at a rate greater than 500 fpm
b. The traffic is 500 ft above you and climbing
c. The traffic is above you and climbing at a rate greater than 500 fpm
d. The traffic is 500 ft above you and climbing at a rate at least 500 fpm
e. You are 500 ft above the traffic which is climbing

Answer 203

D

Question 204

The altitude alerting system will provide an alert if the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude. What is the normal deviation allowed before this alert is provided?
a. 100 ft
b. 300 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 1000 ft

Answer 204

B

Question 205

The EHSI display control panel allows for weather radar returns to be displayed in certain modes only. The allowable modes are:
a. MAP, VOR, ILS and PLAN
b. MAP, VOR and PLAN
c. VOR, ILS and PLAN
d. MAP, expanded VOR and expanded ILS
e. MAP, full VOR and full ILS

Answer 205

D

Question 206

The FMS displays includes both boxes and dashes. Concerning these boxes and dashes, which
of the following statements is correct?
a. An entry must be made into the dashes and the FMS computer will calculate an answer in the boxes
b. If any entry is made into the boxes, the FMS computer will calculate and answer in the boxes
c. An entry can be made into either the boxes or the dashes and the FMS computer will calculate an answer in the dashes or boxes respectively
d. An entry must be made into the boxes and an entry should be made into the dashes if the data is known

Answer 206

D

Question 207

The LH side SG fails. What will occur?
a. The LH EADI and EHSI will go blank
b. The RH EADI and EHSI will go blank
c. All EFIS screens will go blank
d. Nothing will occur as the standby SG will cut in automatically

Answer 207

A

Question 208

To alert the crew to a problem, transport aircraft are fitted with warning systems. These display the problems in one of three classifications: Warnings, Cautions and Advisories. The glare shield in the front of each pilot will contain a Master Warning and a Master Caution Light. Should a problem occur in a “glass cockpit” aircraft, the appropriate Master Light illuminated and the aural warning (if any) sounds. Pushing the light will achieve which of the following:
a. The Master light will extinguish, the aural warning will cease and the message will extinguish
b. The Master light will go to flashing mode, the aural warning will cease but the message will remain displayed
c. The Master light will extinguish, the aural warning will cease but the message will remain displayed
d. The Master light will extinguish, the aural warning will sound intermittently and the message will remain displayed

Answer 208

C

Question 209

You are about to conduct a coupled ILS approach in an aircraft equipped with a conventional AP and instruments have APP selected on the AP control panel. You are maintaining an altitude by use of ALT HOLD. Which of the following statements is correct concerning cancellation of ALT HOLD?
a. As the GS bar becomes active, ALT HOLD must be cancelled manually
b. ALT HOLD will be automatically cancelled at GS capture
c. ALT HOLD cannot be manually cancelled but must be set to the missed approach altitude
d. ALT HOLD can only be cancelled by use of the GA function

Answer 209

B

Question 210

Pilot input to the flight management computer (FMC) is made via the control/display unit (CDU). Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the use and function of the CDUs?
a. The entered flight plan can be displayed in full
b. Both pilots can simultaneously enter information
c. Distance to the next way point can be displayed
d. Fuel remaining on board can be displayed

Answer 210

B

Question 211

Your aircraft is making a coupled ILS approach. On the EADI the decision height (DH) marker and the radio altitude (RA) display will both change colour at a certain time. Which of the following statements correctly reflects these changes?
a. The DH changes from white to amber and the RA changes from magenta to amber
b. The DH changes from amber to magenta and the RA changes from amber to white
c. The DH changes from amber to white and the RA changes from amber to magenta
d. The DH changes from magenta to amber and the RA changes from white to amber

Answer 211

D

Question 212

The captains FMC fails. Both EHSI’s now receive their input from the F/O’s FMC. Concerning the scale control, which of the following statements is correct?
a. The captains scale control will override the F/Os scale control
b. The F/O’s scale control will override the captains scale control
c. The same range must be set on each HSI panel
d. Both scales revert to 80nm and cannot be changed
e. Each scale control can operate independently

Answer 212

B

Question 213

You have both the LOC and GS engaged. Which mode is displayed?
a. ILS on the EADI
b. APP on the EADI
c. LOC on the EHSI
d. ILS on the EHSI

Answer 213

D

Question 214

How often must the Navigation Data Bases of the FMC be updated?
a. Every 6 months
b. Every 3 months
c. Every 6 weeks
d. Every 28 days

Answer 214

D

Question 215

During a Category 3 ILS landing, the enunciator changes to ROLL OUT. What effect does this have on the auto throttle?
a. A/T goes to HOLD
b. A/T disengaged on selection of thrust reversal
c. A/T selects IDLE for 5 seconds and then disengages

Answer 215

B

Question 216

Which of the following correctly describes the speed used for maximum range flight?
a. At high levels, fly at VIMD
b. At low levels, set design RPM and accept the resulting IAS
c. At high levels, fly at the altitude where design RPM will give results in an IAS equal to 1.32 x VIMD
d. At low levels, fly at VIMD

Answer 216

C

Question 217

Your aircraft is descending with the engines at flight idle in VNAV PATH. A sudden wind change has resulted in a significant increase in airspeed. What indication would show?
a. The vertical deviation indicator on the EHSI will show you are low
b. Thrust required on the CDU
c. The speed rake will extend automatically
d. DRAG REQUIRED will show on the EADI

Answer 217

D

Question 218

The master warning system is subdivided into Warnings, Cautions and Advisories. After the system has been activated, it is common practice to press the Master or Warning Caution Light. What happens when this is done?
a. Only Advisory lights will go out
b. The Master Warning or Master Caution light will go out
c. The next page of display messages will appear
d. All lights are cancelled and will go out

Answer 218

B

Question 219

You have your flaps selected to the full down position. Under what circumstances will they automatically partly retract?
a. If the “g” load limit is exceeded, the flap lever will not move to the new position
b. If the “g” load limit is exceeded and the flap lever will move to the new position
c. If the flap IAS limit is exceeded, the flap lever will not move to the new position
d. If the flap IAS limit is exceeded and the flap lever will move to the new position

Answer 219

C

Question 220

The anti skid system does not provide anti skid protection when:
a. Landing with the foot brakes depressed
b. Landing on standing water
c. Auto-braking is being used is set to maximum braking
d. Stored air pressure type emergency brakes are being used

Answer 220

D

Question 221

You are conducting a couped ILS in APP mode and you wish to disengage the APP mode after LOC and G/s is captured. To do this you would:
a. Press the APP switch
b. Turn off the AP
c. Turn off the FD
d. Turn off the AP and both FD’s

Answer 221

D

Question 222

Which of the following symbols and colours is used by TCAS as the RA traffic?
a. A red circle
b. A red square
c. An amber circle
d. A white diamond

Answer 222

B

Question 223

TCAS has advised you with an aural message “TRAFFIC TRAFFIC” and a symbol on the EHIS screen of traffic nearby, but which at the moment is not a threat. After the aural warning stops, what happens to the symbol?
a. It remains on screen as an amber circle, changing to a white diamond as it gets further away
b. It is removed from the screen immediately the aural warning stops
c. It remains on the screen as a white circle
d. It remains on the screen for 30 seconds after the aural warnings ceases and is then removed

Answer 223

A

Question 224

You are in flight with no AP engaged and the FD OFF. The first FD switch turned ON will engage the FD in which mode?
a. VS and HDG HOLD
b. ALT HOLD and HDG HOLD
c. VS and TRACK (oM)
d. ALT HOLD and TRACK (oM)

Answer 224

A

Question 225

You are in flight and engage the AP by pushing the COMMAND SWITCH (CMD). Concerning the mode the AP will engage in, which of the following choices is correct?
a. It will engage in the active FD mode
b. If no FD ON, it will engage in ALT HOLD and HDG HOLD
c. It will engage in the active FD mode, except TO and GA

Answer 225

C

Question 226

You have armed the AT. Which of the following correctly sets out the different modes which will engage it?
a. N1, SPD, VNAV, FLCH, TO
b. N1, SPD, VNAV, FLCH, GA
c. VNAV, FLCH, GA, TO, SPD
d. VNAV, FLCH, GA, VS, SPD

Answer 226

B

Question 227

To obtain maximum benefit from antiskid system, the pilot should:
a. Apply maximum pressure on the footbrakes before touchdown and hold that pressure on the brakes throughout all of the landing roll
b. Apply maximum pressure on the footbrakes as soon as possible after touchdown and hold that pressure on the brakes throughout all of the landing roll
c. Use a rapid pumping of the footbrakes to produce maximum pressure and reduce this pressure momentarily before re-applying maximum pressure throughout all of the landing roll
d. Apply any pressure on the footbrakes before touchdown and hold that pressure on the brakes throughout all of the landing roll

Answer 227

B

Question 228

You are in VNAV mode. Which of the following is the correct function of the IAS/MACH SELECTOR?
a. Pushing it will hold the current speed (IAS or MACH)
b. Pushing it alternately changes Speed Window between current IAS/MACH and a blank display
c. Pushing it permits manual speed selection for FMC use
d. Pushing it alternately changes Speed Window between present IAS and present MACH

Answer 228

B

Question 229

You push the APPROACH SWITCH (APP) and the bar appears. Concerning this arming of engaging, which of the following statements is correct?
a. LOC capture can occur when intercept track angle is within 120o of localiser course
b. G/S capture can occur when intercept track angle is within 120o localiser course
c. LOC capture must occur before F/S capture is allowed
d. After capture, both LOC and G/S appear in white in each ADI

Answer 229

A

Question 230

If one or more A/Ps are engaged, they can be disengaged by a single push of the AUTOPILOT DISENGAGE SWITCH on the yolk. What is achieved if this switch is pressed a second time?
a. The A/Ps are re-engaged in their original modes
b. The aural warning is silenced and the A/P disconnect light is extinguished
c. The A/Ps are turned OFF from their standby status

Answer 230

B

Question 231

The auto-throttle (A/T) system moves both thrust levers together, maintaining their relative positions. Which statement is correct concerning this system?
a. Manual thrust lever positioning will result in an A/T disconnect
b. The second thrust lever to reach a forward or aft limit will cause both levers to stop moving
c. Manual positioning of the thrust levers will inhibit the A/T system such that repositioning will not occur
d. The first thrust lever to reach a forward or aft limit will cause both levers to stop moving

Answer 231

D

Question 232

Concerning A/P rudder control, which statement is correct?
a. The A/P always controls the rudder together with the ailerons and elevator whenever at least one A/P is engaged
b. The A/P always controls the rudder together with the ailerons and elevator whenever at least two A/Ps are engaged
c. The A/P always controls the rudder together with the ailerons and elevator whenever at least two A/Ps are engaged during a multi A/P ILS
d. The A/P always controls the rudder together with the ailerons and elevator during any A/P ILS

Answer 232

C

Question 233

In which of the following ways can a go-around (GA) be made?
a. Only automatically by a multi A/P operation
b. Only automatically by a single A/P operation
c. Only manually with FD guidance
d. By single or multiple A/P operation or manually with FD guidance

Answer 233

D

Question 234

Your B767 Yaw Damper Switches are ON and the Yaw Damper Inoperative lights are extinguished. This indicates:
a. The systems are un-powered at the moment
b. Both yaw dampers have failed
c. They system Master Switch is still OFF
d. They system is powered an no fault exists

Answer 234

D

Question 235

What is the relationship between stabiliser trim speed and aircraft speed?
a. There isn’t one, trim speed is constant at all aircraft speed
b. As aircraft speed increases, trim speed decreases
c. As aircraft speed increases, trim speed increases
d. As aircraft speed decreases, trim speed decreases

Answer 235

B

Question 236

Under which of the following sets of conditions would the SPEED BRAKES light illuminate?
a. Anytime the speed brakes are not fully retracted
b. Whenever the speed brakes are armed
c. If the speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED detent and the aircraft is above 800’ radio altitude
d. If the speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED detent and the aircraft is between 800’ and 15’ radio altitude

Answer 236

D

Question 237

TCAS is in TA mode with one engine inoperative. Why is this so?
a. Manoeuvring at low altitude will be dangerous
b. All RA’s will be of scale
c. To prevent RA’s when adequate engine thrust is not available to act on the RA commands

Answer 237

C

Question 238

You are en route from PERTH to ADELAIDE. The HEADING REFERENCE SWITCH is set to NORM. In which mode will the EFIS display M Track indication?
a. Expanded VOR move
b. Full ILS mode only
c. Both MAP and PLAN mode
d. MAP mode only

Answer 238

C

Question 239

EHSI symbols are displayed using different colours, each with its own meaning. Which of the following is not one of these?
a. Green indicates engaged flight mode display, dynamic conditions
b. Amber indicates cautionary information, faults, flags
c. Magenta indicates command information, pointer, symbols, fly-to condition
d. Black indicates warning information, advisory information

Answer 239

D

Question 240

In which of the following EHSI modes is TCAS not displayed?
a. PLAN only
b. Exp VOR
c. Exp ILS
d. MAP

Answer 240

A

Question 241

Concerning the Autopilot (A/P) system and its control over the aircraft, which of the following statements is correct?
a. The A/P controls the aileron and elevator and adds rudder only during a single A/P approach
b. At all times rudder control is the pilots responsibility
c. At all times rudder control is exercised by the A/P
d. The A/P controls the aileron and elevator and adds rudder only during a multi A/P approach

Answer 241

D

Question 242

Your FD has just failed in pitch mode. What will be the result?
a. Both pitch and roll command bars will disappear
b. Only the pitch command bars will disappear
c. Both pitch and roll command bars will disappear and the AP will disconnect

Answer 242

B

Question 243

Take off (TO) is a mode with certain restrictions. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning TO mode?
a. ItisaFDonlymode
b. It can only be engaged on the ground
c. One AP only may be engaged during take off roll in TO mode

Answer 243

C

Question 244

On the ground and in the air, the position of the rudder is shown on the flight deck. How is this achieved?
a. By the use of the rudder trim indicator
b. On the EICAS status display
c. By a mechanical indicator directly linked to the rudder operating mechanism
d. On the EADI display

Answer 244

B

Question 245

An aircraft lands with the auto brakes armed. When will the brakes be applied?
a. Immediately on touch down after the main landing gear truck untilt has occurred
b. After main landing gear truck untilt and wheel spinup have occurred
c. After main landing gear truck untilt and wheel spinup have occurred and revere thrust has been selected
d. After main landing gear truck untilt and wheel spinup have occurred and reverse thrust has been selected and the mechanism is in the reverse position
e. Immediately the pilot selects reverse thrust

Answer 245

B

Question 246

Leading and trailing edge flaps are:
a. Extended separately and independently of each other
b. Extended and retracted simultaneously
c. Extended simultaneously and retracted separately
d. Extended separately but retracted simultaneously

Answer 246

B

Question 247

Which statement is correct in relation to artificial feel? Artificial feed is:
a. Normally used where flight controls are power operated
b. Normally used where flight controls are power assisted
c. Always used where flight controls are power operated
d. Always used where flight controls are power assisted

Answer 247

C

Question 248

On an EICAS display with multiple pages of messages, pushing the cancel switch will:
a. Cancel all messages
b. Cancel cautions and advisories from the current page and display the next page with warnings, and the cautions and advisories that were not displayed on the previous page
c. Cancel warnings and advisories from the current page and display the next page with cautions carried over the previous page
d. Cancel cautions and warnings from the current page and display the next page with advisories carried over from the previous page

Answer 248

B

Question 249

The function of the Recall switch in the EICAS is to:
a. Recall warnings, which may have been cancelled accidentally
b. Recall advisory messages from previous pages, if the associated fault still exists
c. Recall caution and advisory messages that had been cancelled, if the associated fault still exists
d. Display all EICAS messages on page one

Answer 249

C

Question 250

With reference to the cancellation of GPWS warnings and alerts when in the excessive terrain
closure rate mode and not in the landing configuration:
a. The warning is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the alert requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced
b. The alert is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the warning requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced
c. Positive pilot action will silence both the warning and the alert
d. Reducing the closure rate will silence the warning but the alert requires a heading alteration to be silenced

Answer 250

A

Question 251

The warning systems on the flight deck of a modern transport category aircraft generate a variety of sounds to alert the crew to specific problems. The sound, which indicates an engine fire warning, is:
a. A bell
b. A siren
c. A wailer
d. A voice

Answer 251

A

Question 252

The GPWS will provide no indication for:
a. Excessively sink rate near the ground
b. An early touchdown in the landing configuration
c. Going below the glide-path
d. Sink rate after take-off

Answer 252

B

Question 253

TCAS symbols on an EHSI display may appear as filled or outlined shapes of various colours. Other traffic will be displayed as a:
a. Blue filled circle
b. White outlined diamond
c. Amber filled circle
d. Red outlined circle

Answer 253

B

Question 254

TCAS II Proximate Traffic appears on the EHSI as:
a. White filled diamond
b. Amber filled circle
c. Red filled squares
d. Red outlined circle

Answer 254

A

Question 255

The warnings which have priority over TCAS resolution advisories (RA’s) are:
a. Stall
b. Windshear
c. GPWS
d. All of the above

Answer 255

D

Question 256

On aircraft equipped with automatic GPWS voice callouts of radio altitude and minimums, the “minimums, minimums” voice alert occurs when the aircraft arrives at the decision height set on:
a. The captain’s radio altimeter
b. The first officer’s radio altimeter
c. Either the captain’s or first officer’s radio altimeter, whichever is higher
d. Either the captain’s or first officer’s radio altimeter, whichever is lower

Answer 256

C

Question 257

The earlier GPWS provided no indication for:
a. Excessive sink rate near the ground
b. Flight toward vertically shear terrain
c. Going below the glide path
d. Sink rate after take off

Answer 257

B

Question 258

With regard to the relative priority of GPWS and TCAS warnings:
a. TCAS TA’s are inhibited during GPWS warnings but RA’s will annunciate
b. TCAS advisories have lower priority than GPWS, or windshear warnings
c. Both TCAS TA’s and RA’s have priority over GPWS warnings
d. The TCAS and GPWS are independent of one another

Answer 258

B

Question 259

With regard to the unsafe take off configuration warning system on a modern jet transport category aircraft, when the aircraft is on the ground:
a. The system is armed when both engines reach take off thrust settings
b. The system is armed when either engine reach take off thrust setting
c. The system is armed when both engines are accelerated towards take off thrust
d. The system is armed when either engine are accelerated towards take off
thrust

Answer 259

D

Question 260

With regards to the operation of TCAS, an intruder with a mode A transponder will be:
a. Invisible to TCAS
b. Displayed as other traffic or proximate traffic or as a traffic advisory
c. Displayed as a traffic advisory or a resolution advisory depending on relative position
d. Be displayed without range and bearing information

Answer 260

B

Question 261

Jet A/C max rate of climb is determined by:
a. Total thrust over weight
b. Total drag over thrust
c. Excess thrust over weight
d. Excess thrust over drag

Answer 261

D

Question 262

To achieve maximum angle of climb, you would climb at:
a. VMO using maximum cruise power
b. Vs using maximum climb power
c. VREF using maximum rated thrust
d. VIMD using maximum climb power

Answer 262

D

Question 263

An emergency climb is initiated once encountering severe low level wind shear. This would be achieved by:
a. Retracting flaps to reduce drag and climbing at 1.1Vs
b. Climbing at 1.1.Vs and climb power
c. Climbing at 1.1.Vs and take-off power
d. Firstly accelerating to normal climb speed before climbing

Answer 263

C

Question 264

When a turbine blade is stressed under high temperature conditions over a period of time, the permanent deformation occurring below the proof of stress of the material is termed:
a. The yield point
b. The fatigue range
c. The percentage elongation
d. Blade creep

Answer 264

D

Question 265

Design rpm is:
a. Max rpm
b. Slightly in excess of max rpm
c. Slightly less than max rpm
d. About 80% max rpm

Answer 265

C

Question 266

Where would you expect to find the highest gas velocity in a jet engine?
a. At the face of the compressor
b. Leaving the diffuser
c. Entering the turbine
d. At the end of the exhaust nozzle

Answer 266

D

Question 267

Where would you expect to find the highest gas temperature in a jet engine?
a. In the jet pipe
b. At the end of the compressor
c. In the combustion chamber
d. At the last stage of the turbine

Answer 267

C

Question 268

Where would you expect to find the highest gas pressure in a jet engine?
a. In the diffuser
b. At the beginning of the jet pipe
c. At the last stage of the turbine
d. At the face of the compressor

Answer 268

A

Question 269

The purpose of the diffuser is to:
a. Lower pressure and lower temperature
b. Raise pressure and lower velocity
c. Raise pressure and raise velocity
d. Raise density and lower temperature

Answer 269

B

Question 270

“Engine core” of a gas turbine engine refers to:
a. The whole rotating assemble
b. That part turned by the starter motor
c. The N1 spool
d. The accessory drive shaft

Answer 270

B

Question 271

A turbojet engine in comparison with a turbofan engine has:
a. A bypass ratio less than 1:1
b. A bypass ratio more than 1:1
c. No bypass air
d. A reduction gearbox for the compressor

Answer 271

C

Question 272

Ram effect:
a. Has a negligible effect on the efficiency of a jet engine as the speed varies
b. Lowers the efficiency of a jet engine as speed increases
c. Raises the efficiency of a jet engine as speed increases

Answer 272

C

Question 273

Gas decreases in velocity and increases in pressure when flowing through:
a. A convergent duct
b. A divergent duct
c. A parallel duct

Answer 273

B

Question 274

If compressor blade stall occurs:
a. The compressor ceases to rotate in the normal manner
b. The smooth flow of air over the blade breaks away and causes an interruption of flow through the engine
c. The fuel flow to the burners will cease immediately

Answer 274

B

Question 275

What is tertiary creep in a turbine?
a. Creep experienced on the test bench by the manufacturer
b. Normal creep over the life of the engine
c. Creep at a stage where it would be detrimental to continue to run the engine

Answer 275

C

Question 276

Where in the following places is maximum gas pressure obtained?
(Choose the MOST correct answer)
a. In the cooling airflow around the flame tube
b. Within the combustion chamber
c. At the entry to the exhaust unit
d. At the compressor exit

Answer 276

D

Question 277

Burning of fuel in the combustion chambers:
a. Will raise the pressure of the gases
b. Will increase the velocity of the gases
c. Will increase the volume of the gases which in turn will raise the velocity

Answer 277

C

Question 278

The main reason for a maximum gas temperature is:
a. To prevent overheating of the turbine
b. To prevent buckling of the jet pipe
c. To prevent burning of the thermocouples
d. To prevent a thermal runway

Answer 278

A

Question 279

Engine efficiency increases with altitude because:
a. The decrease mass airflow permits an increase fuel/air ratio
b. The lower ambient temperature results in a greater pressure rise through the engine
c. The lower ambient temperature results in greater temperature rise through the engine

Answer 279

C

Question 280

When are the STALL/SURGE bleed valves open and closed on normal engine operation?
a. Open from idling to nearly design rpm, then closed up to max rpm
b. Closed from idling to nearly design rpm, then oped up to max rpm
c. Open over the entire rpm range, unless compressor stall occurs

Answer 280

A

Question 281

What is meant by SFC?
a. Pounds of fuel per pound of thrust per hour
b. The actual amount of fuel per shaft horsepower developed
c. Amount of fuel used in a specified engine rpm range
d. Distance travelled per unit of fuel

Answer 281

A

Question 282

On a free turbine engine, which turbine drives the propeller?
a. Both the HP and LP turbine
b. Only the front HP turbine
c. Only the rear LP turbine

Answer 282

C

Question 283

Why are turbine blades shrouded?
a. To prevent blade tips rubbing against the shroud ring on expansion
b. To prevent gas leaking past blade tips and to increase rigidity
c. To prevent hot gases distorting the turbine blades

Answer 283

B

Question 284

The ram recovery at very high airspeeds is less than expected. This is because of:
a. Intake choking
b. Shock wave interference
c. Temperature rise
d. Unstable air flow

Answer 284

C

Question 285

Pressure through the combustion chambers:
a. Rises steadily
b. Falls steadily
c. Rises initially and then steadily falls
d. Falls initially and then steadily rises

Answer 285

B

Question 286

Most modern transport engines have 2 or more spools because:
a. This allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal RPM
b. Manufacturing is made simpler and cheaper
c. Maintenance is simplified
d. Shaft strength is increased

Answer 286

A

Question 287

To prevent excessive fluid loss in a hydraulic system you would incorporate a?
a. Shuttle valve
b. In line check valve
c. Hydraulic fuse
d. Accumulator

Answer 287

C

Question 288

Turboprops are generally designed for which type of flying:
a. High speed long routes
b. Low speed long routes
c. High speed short routes
d. Low speed short routes

Answer 288

D

Question 289

A reverser unlocked light comes on during flight. Which statement is correct?
a. The situation is potentially serious, be prepared to reduce thrust
b. The situation is not serious
c. The situation is potentially critical, shut down the engine

Answer 289

C

Question 290

Where would you find the optional fuels approved for a particular a/c?
a. In the CARs
b. In ERSA
c. In the a/c flight manual
d. In the company policy document

Answer 290

C

Question 291

What safeguard is used to prevent engine reverser deployment in flight?
a. Electrical locks
b. Mechanical locks
c. Hydraulic pressure
d. Both “a” and “b”

Answer 291

D

Question 292

With regard to the gas turbine cycle, and increase in compression ratio will result in:
a. A lower air temperature at the compressor outlet
b. An increase in specific fuel consumption
c. A higher turbine entry temperature for a given air fuel ratio
d. A decrease in engine power to weight ratio

Answer 292

C

Question 293

With regard to gas flows through an axial compressor, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. The rotor blades will cause an increase in pressure and temperature and a decrease in velocity
b. The rotor blades will cause a decrease of pressure, velocity and temperature
c. The stator blades will cause an increase of pressure and temperature and a decrease in velocity
d. The stator blades will cause a decrease of pressure, velocity and temperature

Answer 293

C

Question 294

There are two basic types of turbines, the impulse and the reaction type; the modern aircraft gas turbine has a combination of both because it uses:
a. An impulse stage immediately followed by a reaction stage
b. Impulse and reaction blades arranged in an alternate sequence around the rotor disc
c. Reaction type nozzle guide vanes in conjunction with an impulse type rotor
d. Blades which have impulse characteristics at their roots and reaction characteristics at their tips

Answer 294

D

Question 295

The by-pass engine is much quieter than the equivalent turbo-jet engine because the:
a. Exhaust gas velocity is reduced by the by-pass air flow
b. Combustion process of the by-pass engine takes place at much lower flame temperatures
c. By-pas air flow shrouds the exhaust gas efflux and prevents noise radiation
d. By-pass air flow increases the proportion of low frequency turbulence in the jet efflux

Answer 295

A

Question 296

In a gas turbine engine having six parallel wired temperature thermocouples the exhaust gas temperature indicator will show the:
a. Sum of all the temperatures measured by the individual thermocouples
b. Highest of the temperatures measured by the individual thermocouples
c. Average of the temperature measured by the individual thermocouples
d. Lowest of the temperatures measured by the individual thermocouples

Answer 296

C

Question 297

In a gas turbine engine the heat of combustion increases the gas stream:
a. Temperature and reduce its volume
b. Volume while the pressure remains reasonably constant
c. Pressure and reduces its velocity
d. Temperature only, without any change in pressure and volume

Answer 297

B

Question 298

The nozzle guide vane in a gas turbine engine:
a. Reduce the gas velocity between combustion and the turbine wheel
b. Are usually of variable angle to correct the angle of attack
c. Deflect the compressor outlet airflow smoothly into the combustion chamber
d. Reduce the gas temperature between combustion and the turbine wheel

Answer 298

B

Question 299

When the thrust lever of a gas turbine engine is advanced the:
a. Mass air flow must increase before an increase in fuel flow can occur
b. Turbine inlet temperature will not increase while the engine is accelerating
c. Power of the turbine is in excess of the compressor load during the acceleration period
d. Fuel flow increases and the combustion chamber pressure decreases

Answer 299

C

Question 300

In a gas turbine engine, which one of the following points experiences the lowest gas velocity, the:
a. Turbine nozzle guide vane outlets
b. Turbine rotor blade outlets
c. Propelling nozzle outlet
d. Compressor outlet duct

Answer 300

D

Question 301

The purpose of the “swirl vanes” is to:
a. Accelerate the air entering the primary combustion zone to increase compression ratio
b. Increase the axial velocity of air entering the primary combustion zone to increase mass flow
c. Divert cooling air from the primary combustion zone to the diffusion zone
d. Guide high velocity air leaving the combustion chamber onto the turbines at the optimum angle
e. Reduce the axial air velocity, and anchor the flame in the primary zone

Answer 301

E

Question 302

What percentage of compressor discharge air enters the snout and flare?
a. 100%
b. 80%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 20%

Answer 302

E

Question 303

What percentage of compressor discharge air enters the primary vs secondary combustion zone?
a. Primary 50%, Secondary 50%
b. Primary 40%, Secondary 60%
c. Primary 60%, Secondary 40%
d. Primary 20%, Secondary 80%

Answer 303

D

Question 304

High airspeed coupled, low engine rpm, and low fuel pressures such as when on descent can cause:
a. A rich mixture flameout
b. A lean mixture flameout

Answer 304

B

Question 305

Rich mixture flameout is more likely:
a. When on descent at high airspeeds, low rpm and fuel pressures
b. During rapid throttle advance, and when in turbulent air conditions

Answer 305

B

Question 306

The hottest section in a combustion chamber occurs in the:
a. First 1/3 of the combustion chamber
b. Last 2/3 of the combustion zone

Answer 306

A

Question 307

“Annular” combustion chamber types, when compared with “can-annular” types, have the advantage of being more space efficient, suffer less pressure loss, and can be shorter in length:
a. True
b. False

Answer 307

A

Question 308

“Reverse flow” annular combustion chambers:
a. Are more suited to large engines with high mass flow
b. Are more efficient than “ through flow” annular types
c. Are more compact than “through flow” types, and reduce engine length

Answer 308

C

Question 309

Turboprops and Turbofans normally have:
a. A greater number of turbine stages than a pure jet type
b. A lesser number of turbine stages than a pure jet type
c. The same number of turbines as does a pure jet type

Answer 309

A

Question 310

Approximately what percentage of core gas stream energy in a pure turbo jet is extracted by the turbine to drive the compressors?
a. 25%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 30%
e. 90%

Answer 310

C

Question 311

In a turbofan power-plant, the highest velocity of the gas stream occurs:
a. At the exhaust propelling nozzle
b. At the compressor discharge
c. In the primary part of the combustion chamber
d. At the turbine nozzle guide vanes
e. At the engine inlet

Answer 311

D

Question 312

Nozzle guide vanes associated with the “impulse type” turbine blades form:
a. A divergent duct
b. A convergent duct
c. A parallel duct

Answer 312

B

Question 313

Nozzle guide vans (NGV’s):
a. Always increase the gas stream velocity
b. Are designed to guide the gas stream on to the turbine blade at the optimum angle
c. Spin in the opposite direction to the turbine wheel they precede
d. Spin in the same direction as the turbine wheel they precede

Answer 313

B

Question 314

“Stagger angle” in a turbine blade:
a. Ensures that the blade tip speed is kept below the speed of sound
b. Allows the better blade sealing at the blade tips
c. Straightens the gas flow path, and ensures that all parts of the blade extract equal energy

Answer 314

C

Question 315

“Honey comb shrouds”, and “knife edge seals”:
a. Straighten the gas path leaving the turbine blades
b. Reduce turbine tip air leakage
c. Assist in cooling the turbine blades
d. Reduce the angle of attack of the gas stream on the turbine blades

Answer 315

B

Question 316

“Fir tree” turbine blade attachments:
a. Prevent blade tip leakage
b. Ensure that centrifugal load is equally shared by all the fir tree serrations
c. Reduce blade clatter when the engine is rotating by wind pressure only, when the engine is stopped

Answer 316

B

Question 317

The turbine “shroud ring”:
a. Reduces blade vibration by stiffening the blade tip
b. Reduces the gas loads on the blade tip
c. Reduces blade vibration by stiffening the blade root
d. Does not require any cooling air supply

Answer 317

A

Question 318

Which statement is most correct?
a. In each turbine “stage” each nozzle guide vane is hotter than its associated turbine blade but less prone to creep stress
b. In each turbine “stage” each nozzle guide vane is hotter than its associated turbine and is more prone to creep stress

Answer 318

A

Question 319

Turbine blade lengths on later turbine stages:
a. Are longer than on earlier turbine stages
b. Are shorter than on earlier turbine stages
c. Are the same length as those on earlier turbine stages

Answer 319

A

Question 320

The jet-pipe immediately downstream of the last stage turbine is:
a. A convergent duct to increase gas stream velocity
b. A convergent duct to decrease gas stream velocity
c. A divergent duct to decrease gas stream velocity
d. A divergent duct to increase gas stream velocity

Answer 320

C

Question 321

Apart from bracing the exhaust area and supporting the turbine shafts, the exhaust struts:
a. Reduce gas stream velocity
b. Increase gas stream velocity
c. Straighten the gas flow making it more axial in nature
d. Provide a measure of back pressure essential to combustion chamber operation

Answer 321

C

Question 322

Oil consumption in a gas turbine engine versus a 4 cycle engine is:
a. Lower, as the oil does into come into contact with the burning gas stream
b. Higher due to the ineffective sealing afforded by the labyrinth seals on the turbine shafts

Answer 322

A

Question 323

When comparing “pressure relief valve” to “full flow” lubrication systems:
a. The pressure relief valve type operates on a constant pressure basis, whereas the full-flow type has variable pressure depending on engine speed
b. The full flow type operates on a constant pressure basis, whereas the pressure relief valve type has a variable pressure depending on engine speed
c. The full flow type does not have any “over-pressure” protection valves fitted, but the pressure relief valve type does

Answer 323

A

Question 324

The engine is being started on a very cold day and it will be the first flight of the day. The oil is very thick. Which answer is most correct?
a. The over-pressure relief valve will open. The oil will pass normally through the oil filter to the user units
b. The oil pressure may be low due to the low oil viscosity, and this low pressure could cause damage to the oil seals, filters and bearings
c. The high oil viscosity would cause the oil filter bypass valve to open. Unfiltered oil would be supplied to the user units, with the exception of the effect of the “last chance filters”

Answer 324

C

Question 325

Which statement is most correct regarding lubricating oil types?
a. Synthetic oils contain undesirable impurities (minerals) such as harmful chemical components
b. Synthetic oils are less likely to produce carbon deposits
c. Synthetic oils and petroleum oils can be mixed without harming engine components
d. Synthetic types are NOT a health hazard if exposed to skin
e. Oils used in gas turbine engines are thicker than those used in 4 cycle piston engines as they must lubricate the external gearbox in addition to the engine bearings

Answer 325

B

Question 326

Fuel/oil heat exchanges:
a. Heat the oil and cool the fuel
b. Cool the oil and heat the fuel

Answer 326

B

Question 327

Which statement is most correct?
a. Oil tanks should be full to the top leaving no air gap, which could cause cavitation (air locks)
b. Oil tanks in high flying aircraft are un-pressurised
c. Oil tanks are pressurised to prevent cavitation, and supply a positive and
constant supply to the pumps
d. At least 4 minutes should e allowed between completion of engine start and full power operation, to allow the oil to warm up, even on warm days

Answer 327

C

Question 328

Water takes longer to separate out of Avgas than for Avtur.
a. True
b. False

Answer 328

B

Question 329

Avtur can hold more water when it is warm than when it is cold.
a. True
b. False

Answer 329

A

Question 330

Water in Avtur ALWAYS gives the fuel a cloudy appearance.
a. True
b. False

Answer 330

B

Question 331

“Baffle plates” in wing fuel cells prevent:
a. Cavitation
b. Fuel moving from one tank to another during turbulent conditions
c. Draining of fuel from the surge tank to the main tanks
d. Over-pressure in the fuel tanks
e. Movement of fuel (surging) in the tanks during acceleration/decelerations, and in turbulent conditions

Answer 331

E

Question 332

Engine bleed air is supplied to the air gap above the fuel in the tanks primarily to:
a. Warm the fuel in the tank
b. Prevent cavitation

Answer 332

B

Question 333

Tail (stabiliser) tanks:
a. Help prevent unsuitable movement of the wing centre of pressure at different angles of attack
b. Extend range, and keep the centre of gravity closer to the centre of lift pressure

Answer 333

B

Question 334

The range of an aircraft refuelled on a cold day versus a hot day is:
a. Unchanged
b. Greater
c. Less

Answer 334

B

Question 335

With regard to a fuels specific gravity, which statement is most correct?
a. It does NOT vary with temperature variations
b. It is less on a hot day
c. It is greater on a hot day

Answer 335

B

Question 336

Which answer correctly describes the requirement for fuel quantity?
a. A minimum of 3 separate checks, differing by no more than 2% of the larger amount
b. A minimum of 2 separate checks, differing by no more than 2% of the larger amount
c. A minimum of 2 separate checks, differing by no more than 3% of the smaller amount
d. A minimum of 2 separate checks, differing by no more than 3% of the larger amount

Answer 336

D

Question 337

Which statement is most correct regarding fuel quantity readings taken using drip-sticks?
a. Readings no NOT need to be corrected
b. Readings need to be corrected for any wing low condition
c. Readings need to be corrected for wing low, and tail high/low conditions

Answer 337

C

Question 338

It is a legal requirement that wing tanks and collector drains be checked for water contamination:
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Before each and every flight of the day
d. Before the first flight of the day, and after refuelling

Answer 338

D

Question 339

Multiple fuel feed stand-pipes are provided to:
a. Only the forward part of the fuel tank, at the lowest part of the tank
b. The outboard section of wing tanks only in aircraft featuring wings with positive dihedral
c. Various parts of the wing fuel tank to assure continuous fuel supply during aircraft manoeuvre

Answer 339

C

Question 340

Aircraft fuel quantity measure is best achieved using:
a. Weight
b. Volume
c. Volumetric capacity
d. Cubic area

Answer 340

A

Question 341

Unusable fuel:
a. Can be fed to the engines via the fuel filter bypass valve
b. Can be fed to the engines by gravity feed only
c. Can be fed to the engines by using low pressure immersion pumps only, not
gravity feed
d. Can NOT be fed to the engines, and forms part of the basic aircraft operating weight and zero fuel weight

Answer 341

D

Question 342

LOW pressure fuel boost pumps are:
a. Submerged in the fuel tank, are electrically powered, and lubricated and cooled by the fuel
b. Mounted on a “cool” part of the engine, are mechanically driven by the accessory engine drive-shaft, are cooled by fuel and lubricated by a splash of oil feed
c. As for “b” above, but are lubricated by the fuel
d. Submerged in the fuel tank, are mechanically driven by the engine accessory drive-shaft, and are cooled and lubricated by the engine oil

Answer 342

A

Question 343

The high pressure fuel pump:
a. Is mounted on the hot section of the engine, and driven by the low pressure compressor shaft
b. Is mounted on the cold section of the engine, and driven by the low pressure compressor shaft
c. Is mounted on the cold section of the engine, and driven by the high pressure compressor shaft
d. Is mounted on the hot section of the engine, and is driven by the high pressure compressor shaft

Answer 343

C

Question 344

Which statement is correct about high pressure fuel pumps?
a. “Gear driven” fuel pump delivery rate is adjusted by the use of a “spill valve”
b. “Variable stroke” fuel pump delivery rate is adjusted by the use of a “spill valve”
c. Neither variable stroke, nor gear driven pumps are adjusted by use of a “spill valve”

Answer 344

A

Question 345

Use of vaporising tubes in a combustion chamber:
a. Ensures a greater weight of fuel is supplied to the combustion chambers
b. Eliminates the need for fuel nozzles
c. Allows more stable combustion at low engine RPM

Answer 345

C

Question 346

A faulty combustion chamber drain valve could cause tailpipe torching.
a. True
b. False

Answer 346

A

Question 347

Using fuselage tank fuel before wing tank fuel:
a. Eliminates the need for stand-pipes in the fuel tanks
b. Provides the centre of gravity positions at landing identical to that at take-off
c. Preserves wing fuel to assist in countering spar stress due to the generations of lift forces

Answer 347

C

Question 348

Except in an emergency, fuel can NOT be jettisoned (dumped) below:
a. 1,000 ft agl
b. 2,000 ft agl
c. Runway circuit height
d. 6,000 ft agl

Answer 348

D

Question 349

Which statement is true?
a. APU’s can supply bleed air only
b. APU’s are self monitoring, and will shut down automatically if a fault develops
c. APU’s normally remain ON during all flight and ground operations
d. All jet aircraft feature APU’s that can be started in flight
e. Refuelling can NOT take place if the APU is running

Answer 349

B

Question 350

Electrical starter/generators:
a. Are used in large engines, and save space and weight
b. Are used in small engines, and save space and weight
c. Are used in small engines but take up more space, and weigh more than if separate starter and generator units were used

Answer 350

B

Question 351

Large transport jet aircraft use:
a. Air starters
b. Electrical starters
c. Kick starters
d. Starters/Generators

Answer 351

A

Question 352

The first indication of successful ignition is:
a. A rise in N1 rpm
b. A rise in N2 rpm
c. A rise in EGT or TGT
d. A rise in fuel flow

Answer 352

C

Question 353

Which device initiates termination of the starter drive mechanism?
a. The clutch
b. The starter solenoid

Answer 353

B

Question 354

Failure of the starter motor to disconnect can cause starter motor over-speed and damage.
a. True
b. False

Answer 354

A

Question 355

The first indication of an engine reaching self-sustaining speed is:
a. A dramatic rise in EGT
b. A rapid rise in N2 values
c. The engine reaching 55% N2 rpm
d. The disconnection of the starter motor

Answer 355

D

Question 356

The engine is said to have “stabilised” after start when:
a. The N2 rpm reaches 10-15%
b. The N2 rpm reaches 35%
c. N2 rpm peaks and reduces to stabilise at about 55-60% rpm
d. The EGT peaks, reduces and stabilisers, with an N2 speed of about 55% rpm

Answer 356

D

Question 357

Lower than normal air pressure in the starter supply duct:
a. Should NOT produce any starting problems
b. May produce an unsuccessful start

Answer 357

B

Question 358

Thrust reverse can produce up to what percentage of the full forward thrust?
a. 100%
b. 60%
c. 80%
d. 35%

Answer 358

B

Question 359

To select reverse thrust, what pre-requisites, if any, must be satisfied?
a. The spoilers must have deployed
b. No pre-requisites are required
c. There must be weight on the main wheels
d. There must be weight on the main wheels, and the throttle must be at idle

Answer 359

D

Question 360

The decrease in thrust with increased forward speed is NOT as pronounced in:
a. The high bypass turbofan
b. The pure jet
c. The low bypass turbofan
d. Twin spool high bypass turbofan
e. The triple spool high bypass turbofan

Answer 360

B

Question 361

Thrust of a gas turbine engine is least:
a. On a cold day at sea level
b. On a hot day at high airport elevations
c. On a warm, high humidity day in the tropics

Answer 361

B

Question 362

If the ambient air temperature increases, the turbofan/pure jet will be affected in what way, assuming the thrust lever is not moved?
a. Thrust decrease, fuel flow decrease
b. Thrust increase, fuel flow decrease
c. Thrust increase, fuel flow increase
d. Thrust decrease, fuel flow increase

Answer 362

A

Question 363

Subsonic jet turbine engines develop most thrust:
a. At sea level when stationary
b. At the aircraft’s optimum operating altitude
c. At the lowest air density/highest airspeed
d. At the aircraft’s limiting Mach number/maximum altitude

Answer 363

A

Question 364

Engine propulsive efficiency refers to:
a. The proportion of propeller or jet thrust converted into aircraft work
b. The proportion of work done by the engine converted into work done the aircraft
c. The proportion of fuel heat energy converted into aircraft work

Answer 364

A

Question 365

Thrust specific fuel consumption is directly related to:
a. The size and type of combustion chamber only
b. Thermal efficiency only
c. Bypass ratio only
d. The exhaust shape and area only

Answer 365

B

Question 366

The specific fuel consumption of a turboprop aircraft is a ratio of:
a. Fuel flow (lb/hr) /ESHP
b. Fuel flow (lb/sec) /ESHP
c. Fuel flow (lb/hr) /jet thrust
d. Fuel flow (lb/hr) /aircraft velocity expressed in ft per second

Answer 366

A

Question 367

During a 15 minute flight at a constant cruise altitude and engine RPM, the engine produces 4,000 lb of thrust, and consumes 1,000 lb of fuel. The thrust specific fuel consumption is?
a. 0.25
b. 2.5
c. 1.0
d. 1.256

Answer 367

C

Question 368

The thrust lever is advanced, the EGT increased rapidly, but the RPM very little if at all. You should:
a. Increase the thrust lever more
b. Shut down that engine immediately
c. Reduce the power, and then advance the thrust lever again, but more slowly this time

Answer 368

C

Question 369

To shut down a gas turbine engine you:
a. First shut off the fuel
b. Cut off the ignition
c. Switch off the electrical master switch

Answer 369

A

Question 370

The fuel flow, EGT, and compressor RPM indicate normal, but the torque meter reads low. You would suspect:
a. A faulty torque meter
b. Damaged compressor
c. Damaged EGT probe
d. Faulty fuel control unit

Answer 370

A

Question 371

When a turbofan or pure jet engine is shut down in flight at low altitude, you would expect:
a. The compressor speeds to be higher than before engine shut down
b. The compressor to over-speed, making it impossible to re-light the engine
c. Windmill at a speed that allows an in flight start without the use of the starter motor, provided that speed and altitude are within the re-light envelope

Answer 371

C

Question 372

One of the following engine speeds is correctly arranged in rpm sequence. It is:
a. Self-sustaining rpm/light up/engine idle
b. Starter cut-out/self-sustaining rpm/engine idle
c. Light up/self-sustaining rpm/engine idle
d. Starter cut-out/light up/engine idle

Answer 372

C

Question 373

The turbine entry temperature of any gas turbine engine is:
a. Not important
b. The highest gas temperature in the engine
c. Very important, though it cannot be measured directly due to thermocouple limitations

Answer 373

C

Question 374

The power developed by turboprop engines is shown on the:
a. Torque gauge
b. Engine pressure ratio gauge
c. EGT gauge
d. Power turbine rpm gauge
e. Gas generator rpm gauge

Answer 374

A

Question 375

The engine is run-up from idle to max power. You would expect which of the following indications?
a. Increased rpm, EGT, fuel flow, combined with higher air mass flow
b. Increased rpm, EGT, fuel flow, and a reduction in mass air flow
c. Decreased rpm and EGT, but increased fuel flow and a higher mass air flow
d. Increased rpm, and fuel flow, coupled with a decrease in fuel flow and mass air flow

Answer 375

A

Question 376

Air-shrouds in a Brayton cycle engine combustion chamber, are primarily incorporated to do what?
a. Prevent carbon build up on orifices
b. Control fuel flow rate
c. Ensure the fuel air/ratio is at optimum
d. Reduce turbulence in the primary combustion zone

Answer 376

C

Question 377

Compared to a jet, speed/altitude regime, where is a turboprop thrust SFC better?
a. High altitude/low speed
b. Medium altitude/high speed
c. High altitude/high speed
d. Medium altitude/low speed

Answer 377

D

Question 378

Avtur has a higher SG than Avgas. An advantage of this is:
a. Greater temperature rise per unit of volume
b. Lower fire risk, and higher volatility
c. Lower flashpoint temperature, and lower volatility

Answer 378

A

Question 379

With regard to the colour coding of various elements of a typical EHSI display, the combination which is not correct would be:
a. Warnings are coloured red
b. Cautions are coloured amber
c. White indicates command information
d. Green indicates dynamic information or engaged modes
e. Cyan indicates background information

Answer 379

C

Question 380

Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is:
a. Plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background
b. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without track and heading information
c. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information the top of the screen
d. Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown

Answer 380

C

Question 381

The vertical deviation scale on an EHSI Map display shows the pointer at the low end of the display. This indicates that:
a. The aircraft is above the descent profile and a ROD of more than 100 ft/min is required to regain the intended path
b. The aircraft is above the descent profile by at least 400 ft
c. The aircraft is below the descent profile and a ROC of 400 ft/min is required to regain the
intended path
d. The aircraft is below the descent profile by at least 400 ft

Answer 381

B

Question 382

A Symbol Generator (SG) failure in an EFIS with multiple SGs will result in:
a. A warning flag on the EHSI and EADI
b. a blank screen, with alternate switching required to restore the display
c. a caution SG message on the CDU, but no loss of data presentation
d. no change to the displays as back up is fully automated

Answer 382

B

Question 383

Selecting a negative decision height (DH) on the EADI will cause:
a. The DH display to change to magenta and the radio altitude (RA) readout to change to green
b. The DH display to change to amber and the RA readout to remain unaffected
c. The DH to go blank and the RA readout to remain unaffected
d. The DH display and the RA readout to go blank

Answer 383

C

Question 384

The mode which is “track up” on the EHSI is:
a. VOR
b. ILS
c. MAP
d. Both VOR and ILS

Answer 384

C

Question 385

The loss of numeric data which is replaced by dashes on the EHSI display is caused by:
a. Failure of the FMC
b. Unreliable data
c. Symbol generator failure
d. Power failure

Answer 385

B

Question 386

With a typical EHSI selected to MAP mode:
a. The display is “track up” in degrees true
b. The display is “track up” in degrees magnetic
c. The display is “heading up” in degrees true
d. The display is “heading up” in degrees magnetic
e. The display is “north up” in degrees true
f. The display is “north up” in degrees magnetic

Answer 386

B

Question 387

With a typical EHSI selected to PLAN mode:
a. The display is “track up” in degrees true with the plan oriented to North
b. The display is “track up” in degrees magnetic with the plan oriented to magnetic north
c. The display is “heading up” in degrees true
d. The display is “heading up” in degrees magnetic
e. The plan section of the display is oriented to true North with current track at the top
f. The display is “north up” in degrees magnetic

Answer 387

E

Question 388

When flying within Australia and the Flight Instrument heading reference switch is switched to Normal, the indications on the flight instrument displays are:
a. True heading is displayed on all primary heading reference instruments
b. True heading is displayed on the EHIS but magnetic heading is displayed on the RM is
c. True heading is displayed on the RMI but magnetic heading is displayed on the EHSI
d. Magnetic heading is displayed on all primary heading reference instruments

Answer 388

D

Question 389

Concerning the colours of the Decision Height (DH) readout and the Radio Altitude (RA) readout on the EADI as the selected DH is passed on descent:
a. The DH changes from magenta to amber, the RA changes from white to amber
b. The DH changes from white to amber, the RA changes from green to amber
c. The DH changes from green to red, the RA changes from white to magenta
d. The DH changes from cyan to amber, the RA changes from green to amber

Answer 389

A

Question 390

When the localiser and glideslope have been captured and are the engaged modes in pitch and roll, the indications which will be observed on the EFIS are:
a. ILS will be displayed on the EHSI if selected to the ILS mode
b. APP will be displayed on the EADI as engaged pitch and roll modes if a coupled approach is
being made
c. ILS will be displayed on the EADI as the engaged pitch and roll flight modes
d. VOR information will be displayed on the EHSI if selected to LOC mode

Answer 390

A

Question 391

If the screen display of the EFIS suddenly changes to a blank display, the likely cause is:
a. Total FMC failure
b. CRT over-temp or power failure
c. Air data computer malfunction
d. Faulty EFIS brightness control

Answer 391

B

Question 392

A partial loss of EFIS presentation with a wire frame outline and loss of raster scanning can be caused by:
a. FMC failure
b. IRS failure
c. Symbol generator failure
d. overheat

Answer 392

D

Question 393

It is possible, but the least advisable to:
a. You can fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on
b. You can fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on
c. You can fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off
d. You can fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off

Answer 393

D

Question 394

You are descending at 3000 feet/min in vertical speed mode (VS) to the MCP selected altitude of 9000 ft with an autopilot engaged. As you approach this altitude:
a. The vertical speed enunciator will come on and the alt hold enunciator will go out
b. The vertical speed digital display will change to zero
c. The GPWS will advise you aurally that the desired altitude is approaching
d. The VS enunciator will be replaced by ALT CAP and capture then ALT HOLD

Answer 394

D

Question 395

Flight director/autopilot modes are not able to be selected together in:
a. HDG HOLD and V/S
b. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD
c. HDG HOLD and LOC
d. V/S and VNAV PATH

Answer 395

D

Question 396

The First Officer is flying a multiple autopilot equipped aircraft. The autopilot which should be engaged are:
a. R only or C only unless performing an auto-land
b. L and R at all times
c. C and R at all times
d. L, C and R at all times

Answer 396

A

Question 397

The auto-throttle is on and the autopilot is off with the flight director on and ALT HOLD and SPD and HDG SEL engaged. The correct statement is:
a. This situation is not possible
b. The flight director will indicate pitch to hold altitude by way of pitch bar commands
c. The flight director will not engage in this situation
d. The flight director command bars will be hidden in this situation

Answer 397

B

Question 398

Assume autopilot C in a B767 in cruise is engaged and the C autopilot fails. You would know because:
a. The C autopilot engage switch enunciator will extinguish and an audio alarm will sound
b. A GPWS voice warning will tell you
c. All autopilots will disconnect completely
d. All control panel lights will extinguish

Answer 398

A

Question 399

The operation of a parallel connected autopilot system causes:
a. The flight controls in the cockpit to remain still when the autopilot is engaged
b. The flight controls in the cockpit to move when the autopilot is engaged
c. The system to be unavailable for auto-land operations
d. Autopilot to disconnect warning sirens to be unnecessary

Answer 399

B

Question 400

Flight director/autopilot modes, which are pitch modes, are:
a. HDG HOLD
b. HDG SEL
c. LOC and GS
d. V/S and VNAV PATH

Answer 400

D