Pathology Study Guide 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A disease that is caused by physicians or their treatment is known as

A

Iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The term used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown is

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infection contracted from the acute care facility

A

Nosocomial Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells, is called

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The Initial response of body tissues to local injury is

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by a vascular occlusion is an

A

Infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Depriving tissues of oxygen and nutrients caused by an arterial vessel narrowing is referred to as

A

Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as a

A

Hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

New growths that invade and destroy adjacent structures and have the ability to spread are considered

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The study of neoplasms or tumors is called

A

Oncology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The major metastatic route of carcinomas is

A

Lymphatic Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The retrovirus known to contribute to AIDS is

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteolytic Metastasis

A

Destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteosclerotic metastasis

A

Additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Pneumonia

A

Additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Callus

A

Additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Ascites

A

Additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Edema

A

Additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Emphysema

A

Destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Pneumothorax

A

Destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteoporosis

A

Destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (Brittle Bone Disease

A

Destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What composition in technical factors should be made for Additive diseases?

A

Increase kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What composition in technical factors should be made for Destructive diseases?

A

Decrease kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For what purpose is a CXR obtained after endotracheal tube insertion?

A

To verify tube placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The hereditary disease process characterized by the excretion of viscous mucus blocking the air passages is know as

A

Cystic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A viral infection of the subglottilc region of the trachea is know as

A

Croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria that have a waxy coast permitting existence outside the host for long periods will cause what disease process?

A

Tuberculosis

29
Q

The general term used to describe obstruction of the airways leading to ineffective exchange of respiratory gases is known as

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

30
Q

Thrombi that develop in the deep venous system of the lower extremity and are trapped in the lung circulation are called

A

Pulmonary Emboli

31
Q

A condition. of diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume is called

A

Atelectasis

32
Q

Air in the cavity surrounding the lung is known as

A

Pneumothorax

33
Q

What disease process manifests its earliest signs as blunting of the normal sharp angle between the diaphragm and the rib cage?

A

Pleural Effusion

34
Q

Herniation of the meninges in the lumbar of cervical region is known as

A

Meningocele

35
Q

The disease process that begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane causing synovial proliferation is called

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

36
Q

The most common form of degenerative arthritis that has osteophyte development is

A

Osteoarthritis

37
Q

The fluid-filled sacs located near the joints may become inflamed, which results in what disease process?

A

Bursitis

38
Q

A disease process usually caused by accelerated bone resorption results in

A

Osteoporosis

39
Q

Blood with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is know as

A

Gout

40
Q

Primary malignant tumors arising from the bone marrow in long bones in children and young adults usually causing localized pain are indicative of what specific sarcoma?

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

41
Q

The classic radiographic appearance of multiple punched-out osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the skeletal system is suggestive of what type of cancer?

A

Multiple Myeloma

42
Q

Discontinuity of two or more fragments is considered a

A

Complete Fracture

43
Q

A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is know as what type of fracture?

A

Pathologic Fracture

44
Q

Suspected non accidental trauma is another name for

A

Battered Child Syndrome

45
Q

A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 and C3 is known as a

A

Hangman’s Fracture

46
Q

Which imaging modality is most commonly used to demonstrate rotator cuff tears?

A

MRI

47
Q

Which imaging modality is most commonly used to demonstrate tears in the meniscus of the knees?

A

MRI

48
Q

What term means heat?

A

Calor

49
Q

What term means pain?

A

Dolor

50
Q

What term means redness?

A

Rubor

51
Q

What term means swelling?

A

Tumor

52
Q

Increased size of the cells

A

Hypertrophy

53
Q

Loss of uniformity of individual cells

A

Dysplasia

54
Q

Number of cells in the tissue increases

A

Hyperplasia

55
Q

Reduction in number or size of cells

A

Atrophy

56
Q

Inhalation of high concentrations of coal dust

A

Anthracosis

57
Q

Long, thin fivers producing major fibrosis of the lung found in building materials

A

Asbestosis

58
Q

Most common pneumoconiosis results from inhalation of silica dioxides

A

Silicosis

59
Q

Approximately 45 degrees to the long axis of the bone

A

Oblique fracture

60
Q

At a right angle to the long axis of the bone

A

Transverse Fracture

61
Q

Compaction of bone resulting in a decreased length or width

A

Compression fracture

62
Q

Encircles the bone shaft

A

Spiral Fracture

63
Q

Fracture exits without angulation or separation

A

Undisplaced Fracture

64
Q

Loss of contract with normal articulation

A

Dislocation

65
Q

More than two fragments

A

Comminuted

66
Q

Partial loss of joint continuity

A

Subluxation

67
Q

Repeated stresses causing a bone response

A

Fatigue/Stress Fracture

68
Q

Small Bony Fragment pulled from a prominence

A

Avulsion