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MIMS > More Old MCQS > Flashcards

More Old MCQS Flashcards

1
Q

what effect does increased ATP have on insulin secretion?

A

increases it

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2
Q

can peptide bonds involving proline residues act as hydrogen bond acceptors?

A

yes

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3
Q

is formation of a peptide bond exergonic or endergonic?

A

endergonic

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4
Q

what gives the C-N bond in peptide bond double bond characteristics?

A

electrons from the N atom of the bond delocalising into the bond

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5
Q

what is normal BMI range?

A

18.5-25

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6
Q

what is normal blood glucose range when fasting?

A

3.9-5.5

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7
Q

what is normal blood glucose range when fed?

A

below 7.8

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8
Q

do allosteric enzymes display michaelis menten kinetics?

A

no

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9
Q

is insulin a glycoprotein?

A

no

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10
Q

what enzymes is allostery usually associated with?

A

multi-subunit

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11
Q

what effect does ATP have on PFK?

A

inhibits it

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12
Q

what effect does fructose 2,6-bisphosphate have on PFK-1?

A

activates it

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13
Q

what are the H bonds between in alpha helices?

A

residue i and residue i+4

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14
Q

what secondary structure are the haemoglobin subunits mainly composed of?

A

alpha helices

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15
Q

does lowering pH stabilise the deoxy form of haemoglobin?

A

yes

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16
Q

what level of 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate stabilises the oxy form of haemoglobin?

A

low

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17
Q

what causes sickle cell anaemia?

A

replacement of a glutamine residue with a valine in the beta subunit

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18
Q

which amino acid is acetylated in histones?

A

lysine

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19
Q

which amino acid can be transaminated to form oxaloacetate?

A

aspartate

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20
Q

what is standard molar free energy change equal to?

A

-RTlnKeq

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21
Q

what angles are alpha helices associated with?

A

dihedral

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22
Q

what is an enzyme that is inhibited by citrate and ATP?

A

PFK

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23
Q

what is an enzyme present in mitochondrial matrix that is inhibited by phosphorylation and activated by insulin?

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase

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24
Q

what is an enzyme in liver that is inhibited by glucagon and alanine?

A

pyruvate kinase

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25
Q

is phosphorylation a covalent modification?

A

yes

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26
Q

what does penicillin inhibit?

A

glycopeptide transpeptidase

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27
Q

which type of diabetes are ketosis and acidosis more common in?

A

type 2

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28
Q

what is the Φ (Phi) bond between?

A

the N and the alpha C

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29
Q

what is the Ψ (Psi) bond between?

A

the alpha C and the carbonyl C

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30
Q

can gel filtration separate proteins in their native conformation?

A

yes

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31
Q

does gel filtration separate proteins according to their native charge to mass ratio?

A

no

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32
Q

does penicillin form a covalent bond with an essential amino acid residue in the active site of its target enzyme?

A

yes (serine)

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33
Q

does insulin contain intramolecular disulphide bonds?

A

yes

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33
Q

can calcium ions activate pyruvate oxidation in the CAC?

A

yes

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34
Q

what is an enzyme that catalyses phosphorylation of other enzymes?

A

PFK

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34
Q

what is an enzyme activated as a consequence of insulin-induced dephosphorylation?

A

glycogen synthase

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35
Q

what is an integral membrane protein whose inhibition leads to stimulation of insulin secretion?

A

atp-sensitive potassium channel

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35
Q

where does fatty acid biosynthesis occur?

A

cytoplasm

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36
Q

what circumvents the energy barrier between PEP and pyruvate?

A

oxaloacetate

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37
Q

which amino acid is associated with immune function?

A

vitamin A

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38
Q

what is the function of glycogen phosphorylase?

A

catalyses glycogen breakdown

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39
Q

what does fatty acid synthase do?

A

catalyses FA synthesis

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40
Q

what does isocitrate dehydrogenase do?

A

catalyses breakdown of isocitrate in the CAC

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41
Q

what does pyruvate dehydrogenase do?

A

catalyses conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA

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42
Q

what does pyruvate kinase do?

A

catalyses last step of glycolysis

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43
Q

what does phosphofructokinase do?

A

catalyses fructose 6 P to fructose 1,6 bisP in glycolysis

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44
Q

does insulin have 2 subunits encoded by different genes?

A

no

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45
Q

is insulin a glycoprotein?

A

no

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46
Q

is insulin a phosphoprotein?

A

no

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47
Q

is insulin cleaved into 2 portions after secretion?

A

no

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48
Q

is allostery mainly associated with multi or single-subunit enzymes?

A

multi-subunit

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49
Q

what is the effect of ATP on PFK?

A

inhibits

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50
Q

what is the effect of F 2,6-bisp on PFK?

A

activator

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51
Q

what residues are the H bonds between in alpha helices?

A

residue i and i + 4

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52
Q

are all alpha helices amphipathic?

A

no

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53
Q

do the side chains in alpha helices project inwards or outwards?

A

outwards

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54
Q

what is the cause of sickle cell anaemia?

A

replacement of a Glu residue with a Val in the beta-subunit

55
Q

is the oxy form of haemoglobin stabilised by binding to 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate?

A

no

56
Q

what is the precursor of ketone bodies?

A

acetyl-CoA

57
Q

what does Complex II require to oxidise succinate?

A

FAD

58
Q

do uncouplers inhibit respiration?

A

no

59
Q

would inhibitors of glucokinase be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?

A

no

60
Q

would inhibitors of glycogen synthase be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?

A

no

61
Q

would inhibitors of phosphoinositide kinases be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?

A

no

62
Q

would inhibitors of phosphotyrosine kinases be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?

A

yes

63
Q

would inhibitors of protein-tyrosine kinases be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?

A

no

64
Q

what is PKA composed of?

A

catalytic and regulatory subunits

65
Q

what sort of protein is the glutamate kinate receptor?

A

a ligand-gated ion channel

66
Q

what enzyme is activated as a result of insulin-induced dephosphorylation?

A

glycogen synthase

67
Q

what is an integral membrane protein whose inhibition leads to stimulation of insulin secretion?

A

ATP-sensitive potassium channel

68
Q

what is a substrate for cAMP synthesis?

A

ATP

69
Q

what substrate is required for conversion of oxaloacetate to PEP?

A

GTP

70
Q

what substrate is needed for the elongation of glycogen chains?

A

UDP-glucose

71
Q

what type of compound might be useful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?

A

inhibitors of phosphotyrosine phosphatases

72
Q

what is PKA composed of?

A

catalytic and regulatory subunits

73
Q

is glutamate kainate a ligand-gated ion channel?

A

yes

74
Q

what substrate is responsible for the conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate?

A

GTP

75
Q

what does insulin stimulate?

A

glycogenesis, lipogenesis, protein synthesis

76
Q

what residues are cell surface oligosaccharides attached to?

A

serine, threonine, lysine, arginine

77
Q

what do Asn, Gln and Ser all have in common?

A

all polar

78
Q

what doe Leu, Ile and Val all have in common?

A

all branch chain hydrocarbons

79
Q

what does Trp, Tyr and Phe all have in common?

A

aromatic

80
Q

what do Tyr, Ser and Thr all have in common?

A

all hydroxyl groups

81
Q

what is the affinity for the substrate of an enzyme with a high Km?

A

low

82
Q

what is Kcat?

A

the turnover number of an enzyme

83
Q

what are Leu zipper domains made of?

A

2 helices that each bind to a DNA major groove

84
Q

what do PTB and SH2 domains both bind to?

A

phosphorylated tyrosines

85
Q

what does the PH domain bind to?

A

inositol phospholipids for membrane recruitment

86
Q

what inhibits the Raf catalytic domain?

A

the N-terminus of the Raf protein

87
Q

what does phage display involve?

A

using a phage particle expressing the antigen to screen antibodies

88
Q

what is the role of the neonatal Fc receptor?

A

prevents degradation of IgG

89
Q

what does isocitrate dehydrogenase do?

A

catalyses the decarboxylation of isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate.

90
Q

which has a higher Km for glucose, glucokinase or hexokinase?

A

glucokinase

91
Q

which type of reaction involving DNA polymerase will be most error-prone?

A

DNA repair

92
Q

which regions of the human genome is the TTAGGG repeat associated with?

A

telomeres

93
Q

is the Pribnow box an important determinant of the transcription start site? (this is the true answer)

A

yes

94
Q

which amino acids forms an isopeptide bond with ubiquitin C-terminus?

A

lysine

95
Q

which structure is essential for the degradation of long-lived proteins?

A

lysosome

96
Q

what do the chromosomal translocations characteristic of non-AIDS Burkitt’s lymphoma involve?

A

the c-Myc gene

97
Q

what proteins does the APC/C CDH1 degrade to regulate Mcm2-7 helicase loading?

A

geminin

98
Q

what does Ribociclib target?

A

CDK4/CDK6

99
Q

is caspase activation needed for cell death induced by MOMP?

A

no

100
Q

how is MOMP regulated?

A

by the balance between pro- and anti-apoptotic members of the Bcl-2 family

101
Q

where do caspases cleave?

A

after Asp residues

102
Q

cofactor used by succinate dehydrogenase?

A

FAD+

103
Q

allosteric inhibitor of PFK-1?

A

citrate and ATP

104
Q

cofactor of the E1 component of the PDH complex?

A

thiamine pyrophosphate

105
Q

what liberates iron from Fe-S clusters?

A

superoxide dismutase

106
Q

what accepts electrons from complex 1?

A

ubiquinone

107
Q

what accepts electrons from conversion of succinate to fumarate?

A

succinate dehydrogenase subunit A

108
Q

what mediates recovery from receptor activated intracellular signaling?

A

Ca2+ pump and cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase

109
Q

what activates protein kinase C?

A

DAG

110
Q

what is the chain-terminating nucleotide used in Sanger sequencing?

A

dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP)

111
Q

what is a type of DNA damage that can be directly reversed by a photolyase enzyme?

A

thymidine dimer

112
Q

what is a modified base commonly found in bacteria that protects the DNA from restriction enzyme cleavage?

A

N6-methyladenine

113
Q

what is an enzyme with reverse transcriptase activity?

A

telomerase

114
Q

enzyme that resolves intertwined DNA molecules at converged replication forks in replication termination?

A

topoisomerase II

115
Q

enzyme that initiates DNA synthesis in bacterial replication?

A

DnaG primase

116
Q

example of a non-receptor tyrosine kinase?

A

SRC

117
Q

example of a small protein that hydrolyses GTP?

A

Ras

118
Q

endogenous mutational process that causes SNV mutations?

A

spontaneous deamination

119
Q

cluster of defined alleles inherited together?

A

haplotype

120
Q

type of genomic variation associated with trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders?

A

indel variant

121
Q

enzyme regulating centrosome duplication?

A

cyclin E/Cdk2

122
Q

protein component of the mitotic spindle?

A

tubulin

123
Q

enzyme required to remove sister chromatid cohesion?

A

separase

124
Q

nuclear volumes occupied by interphase chromosomes?

A

chromosome compartments

125
Q

self-interacting chromosome regions?

A

topologically-associating domains

126
Q

main microtubule organising centre?

A

centrosome

127
Q

complex required to attach chromatids to the mitotic spindle?

A

kinetochore

128
Q

kinase complex with activity required for entry into mitosis?

A

Cdk1/Cdh1

129
Q

protein frequently activated in pancreatic carcinoma

A

KRAS

130
Q

what is necessary for GWAS to work but hampers identification of causal variants?

A

linkage disequilibrium

131
Q

protein that degrades cAMP?

A

phosphodiesterase

132
Q

enzyme that phosphorylates PET tracer FDG to metabolically trap it?

A

hexokinase

133
Q

molecule that is imaging agent used for dissolution dynamic nuclear polarisation?

A

[1-13C]p pyruvate

134
Q

what does pyroptosis require?

A

Gasdermin D, caspase 1

135
Q

how do replicative helicases unwind DNA?

A

by steric exclusion

136
Q

how are the alpha-helices forming a Greek key motif held together laterally?

A

by main-chain H bonding

137
Q

what drives DNA replication?

A

hydrolysis of the bond between the alpha and beta phosphates of the deoxy nucleotide triphosphates

MIMS (15 decks)

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