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PBR 2 > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Multiple phalangeal well defined lucencies (cystic) and multiple vascular soft tissue nodules/masses with calcifications are seen in?

A

Maffucci syndrome

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2
Q

Small tarsal navicular bone with fragmentations and increased radiodensity in a pediatric patient is seen in

A

Kohler Disease

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3
Q

This manifests as multiple linear bands of sclerosis parallel to the long axis of the bone.

A

Voorhoeve disease

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4
Q

Normal value for Bohler angle and critical angle of Gissane (degrees) for calcaneal fracture assessment

A

20-40 and 120-140

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5
Q

Eponym for intra articular fracture of the radial styloid process

A

Hutchinson/Chauffer fracture

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6
Q

Meniscofemoral ligament that extends from the medial femoral condyle, passes in front of the posterior cruciate ligament, and attaches to the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus.

A

Ligament of Humphrey

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7
Q

Mucopolysaccaridose characterized by abnormal storage and excretion in the urine of KERATIN SULPHATE

A

Morquio syndrome

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8
Q

TRUE of pyknodystosis EXCEPT:
A. Other name is Toulouse-Lautre syndrome.
B. Pathognomonic lesion is acro-osteolysis.
C. Resorption of distal phalanx (tuft).
D. Appears as a blunted chalk.

A

D. Appears as a blunted chalk.

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9
Q

Triad of degenerative joint disease

A

Joint space narrowing
Sclerosis of the apposing margins
Marginal osteophyte formation

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10
Q

ILIOPECTINEAL LINE THICKENING in radiographs are seen in what disease entity?

A

Paget Disease

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11
Q

Part of the pes anserinus:

A

Sartorius tendon
Gracilis tendon
Semitendinosus tendon

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12
Q

Borders of the quadrilateral space

A

Teres minor
Teres major
Long head of the triceps
Diaphysis of the humerus

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13
Q

In an enlarged densely radio-opaque vertebra (ivory) vertebra. The most likely diagnosis is

A

Paget Disease

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14
Q

Differential diagnosis for pseudopermeative lesions

A

Aggressive osteoporosis
Hemangioma
Radiation

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15
Q

Most common cause of osteomalacia

A

Renal osteodystrophy

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16
Q

Most common carpal bone associated with avascular necrosis

A

Lunate

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17
Q

Most common location of osteochondritis dessicans

A

medial epicondyle of the knee

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18
Q

Most common location of meniscocapsular separation

A

site of MCL

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19
Q

Most common skeletal dysplasia

A

Achondroplasia

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20
Q

Most common cause of dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

21
Q

Most commonly injured ankle ligament

A

anterior talofibular ligament

22
Q

Most frequently encountered bone abnormality in MRI.

A

Contusion

23
Q

First sign of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Soft tissue swelling

24
Q

The characteristic pencil-in-cup deformity of the distal phalanx is seen in what seronegative spondyloarthropathy

A

Psoriasis

25
Q

The following statements are true regarding synovial chondromatosis, EXCEPT?

Primary form resembles PVNS on radiographs.

Secondary form is believed to be from trauma, with shedding of articular cartilage to the joint.

Multiple calcified loose bodies is virtually pathognomonic.

MRI shows synovial hypertrophy with hemosiderin deposits.

A

MRI shows synovial hypertrophy with hemosiderin deposits.

26
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding pigmented villonodular synovitis.

A. Frequently calcifies.
B. Also called giant cell tumor of tendon sheath.
C. May affect any joint, bursa or tendon sheath.
D. MRI is virtually pathognomonic with synovial hypertrophy and hemosiderin.

A

A. Frequently calcifies.

27
Q

Most common involved joint in hemophilia?

A

Knee

28
Q

Disease with keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia and rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Sjogren’s Disease

29
Q

Diaphyseal and metaphyseal vessels DO NOT perforate the open growth plate in:

A

Children

30
Q

Diaphyseal and metaphyseal vessels MAY perforate the open growth plate in

A

Infant

31
Q

Characterized by an Erlenmeyer flask deformity?

A

Fibrous dysplasia
Osteopetrosis
Niemann-Pick disease

32
Q

What are the radiologic signs of activity in chronic osteomyelitis

A

Periostitis
Poorly defined areas of osteolysis
Changes from prior X-ray

33
Q

What is the most common site of neonatal septic arthropathy

A

Hip

34
Q

Phemister’s triad of TB arthropathy

A
  1. Marginal erosions
  2. Absent / mild joint space narrowing
  3. Regional / juxta-articular osteoporosis
35
Q

What is/are the most common joint/s affected in TB arthropathy?

A

Hip
Knee

36
Q

What is the most frequent intramedullary spinal cord tumor in adults?

A

Ependymoma

37
Q

What tumor produces focal enlargement and, occasionally, an exophytic growth involving the
cord?

A

Astrocytoma

38
Q

Characteristic arthritis of REITER’S Syndrome EXCEPT:

a. Involvement of the synovial joint, entheses, and symphyses.
b. Predilection to small joints of the foot, calcaneus, ankle, knee, and sacroiliac joints.
c. Bone erosion w/ adjacent proliferation
d. Paravertebral ossification
e. None of the above

A

None of the above

39
Q

Ivory vertebra is seen in the following except:
A. Lymphoma
B. Infection
C. Mets
D. Paget Dse.
E. None of the above

A

None of the above

Mnemonic: LIMPH
L ymphoma
I nfection
M ets & Myelosclerosis
P aget Dse.
H emangioma

40
Q

Assoc w/ RA:
Urethritis + arthritis+ conjunctivitis

A

Reiter Syndrome

41
Q

Assoc w/ RA:
RA+ splenomegaly + leukopenia

A

Felty Syndrome

42
Q

Assoc w/ RA:
Keratoconjunctivitis + xerostomia + connective tissue disesad

A

Sjogren Sydrome

43
Q

Assoc w/ RA:
RA + pneumoconiosis

A

Caplan Syndrome

44
Q

Young, MULTIparous

A

Osteitis condensans ilii (pubic instability)

  • benign sclerosis of the ilium adjacent to the sacroiliac (SI) joint, typically bilateral and triangular in shape.
  • BILATERAL, SYMMETRICAL
45
Q

Pseudogout Triad:

A

Pain
Chondrocalcinosis
Joint destruction

46
Q

Most serious stress fracture and rarest

A

Femoral neck fracture

47
Q

RA + splenomegaly + leukopenia

A

FELTY SYNDROME

48
Q

Urethritis +ARTHRITIS+ conjuctivitis

A

REITER SYNDROME

PBR 2 (10 decks)

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