Plaies de pression, Périné, G-U Flashcards

1
Q

Which patients are at highest risk for developing pressure ulcers (5)

A
  • elderly with femoral neck fracture (66%)
  • quadriplegics (60%)
  • Neurologically impaired (quadraplegic, paraplegic)
  • spina bifida
  • cachectic patients
  • Chronically hospitalized patients
  • Palliative patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or false - Pressure sores are directly related to increased mortality in patients

A

False - patients succumb to their overall disease burden which leads to severe malnutrition, immobility and decreased tissue perfusion that allow pressure sores to form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In decreasing order, which areas are most susceptible to pressure ulcers (5)

A
  • sacrum (36%)
  • heel (30%)
  • ischial tuberosity (20%)
  • trochanter (20%)
  • scalp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 4 extrinsic factors that affect the development of pressure ulcers

A
  • Shear (stress parallel - superficial necrosis)
  • Pressure (stress perpendicular - deep necrosis)
  • Friction
  • Moisture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name 5 intrinsic factors that increase patient’s risk of developing pressure ulcers

A
  • sepsis
  • decreased autonomic control (incontinence)
  • infection
  • increased age
  • sensory loss/spasticity
  • vascular disease
  • anemia
  • malnutrition
  • altered level of consciousness
  • comorbidities (diabetes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the scale used for assessment of pressure ulcers and which factors (4) are most predictive

A

Braden Scale
Most predictive
- perception
- mobility
- friction
- moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which factors (7) are taken into consideration in the Braden Scale

A
  • sensory perception
  • skin moisture
  • activity
  • mobility
  • friction
  • shear
  • nutritional status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does a low score on the Braden scale represent

A

Increased risk of developing a pressure ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel stages

A

Stage 1
- Non-blanchable erythema on intact skin
- seen within 30 mins and erythema gone after 1hr

Stage 2
- partial thickness loss
- presents clinically as a blister, abrasion or shallow open ulcer
- Within 2-6 hours and erythema lasting more that 36hrs

Stage 3
- full-thickness tissue loss down to but NOT through fascia
- subcutaneous fat may be exposed

Stage 4
- full thickness tissue loss with involvement of underlying muscle, bone, tendon, ligament, cartilage or joint capsule

Unstagable
- full thickness skin or tissue loss with unknown depth (obstructed by slough or eshar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 5 things you can do to prevent pressure ulcer formation in patients

A
  • adequate skin care
  • adress spasticity (diazepam, baclofen, dantrolene)
  • pressure dispersion (padding of at least 4 inches, alternate weight baring positions)
  • suport surfaces (alternating air mattress, static pads, low air loss mattress, fluid debs
  • minimize head of bed elevation
  • incontience management
  • optimize patient nutrition
  • treat other comorbidities (ie. diabetes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Kosiak’s principle

A

Kosiak’s principle

Tissue can tolerate increased pressure if interspersed with pressure free periods.
- Seated must be listed for 10 seconds every 10 minutes
- Supine must be turned every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which laboratory studies should you order before proceeding to surgical intervention for a patient with a pressure ulcer (5)

A
  • CBC
  • Glucose/HbA1c
  • ESR/CRP
  • Albumin
  • Pre-albumin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What levels of albumin and pre-albumin should you target for a patient with a pressure ulcer

A

Albumin = 3g/dl
Pre-albumin = 20mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List 5 management options for a patient who has developed a pressure ulcer

A
  • relieve pressure
  • infection control
  • control of extrinsic factors (ie. shear, moisture, etc)
  • debridement (surgical or topical)
  • adequate dressings/wound care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You suspect that your patient with a pressure ulcer is colonized with pseudomonas. What is your dressing of choice for this patient?

A

Dakin solution soaked dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

You suspect that your patient’s pressure ulcer has an underlying osteomyelitis. What is the best next step in confirming your diagnosis?

A

Bone biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the goals of reconstruction for the management of pressure ulcers (8)

A
  • debridement of all devitalized tissue
  • complete excision of pseudo-bursa
  • ostectomy of devitalized bone (down to clinically hard, healthy bleeding bone)
  • adequate hemostasis
  • obliteration of dead space with well vascularized tissue
  • selection of flaps that do no jeopardize future flap coverage
  • tension free closure
  • pressure offloading or reconstructed area
  • flap as large as possible with suture lines away from area of direct pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name 3 surgical treatment option for a SACRAL ulcer

A
  • Lubosacral fasciocutaneous perforator flap
  • Fasciocutaneous/myocutaneous gluteal rotation flaps
  • Gluteal myocutaneous V-Y advancement flap
  • SGAP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name 3 surgical treatment options for a ISCHIAL ulcer

A
  • gluteal fasciocutaneous/myocutaneous rotation flap
  • posterior hamstring or biceps femoris (myocutaneous V-Y advancement flap)
  • Posterior thigh flap (fasciocutaneous V-Y)
  • Tensor fascia lata flap ** can be sensate**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name 3 surgical treatment options for a TROCHANTERIC ulcer

A
  • tensor fascia lata flap myocutaneous V-Y advancement
  • TFL with vastus lateralis rotation flap
  • Tissue expansion
  • Girdlestone procedure
21
Q

Name 4 complications that can occur following surgical intervention for pressure ulcer

A
  • hematoma
  • Infection
  • Dehiscence
  • Recurrence (fasciocutaneous has higher recurrence than myocutaneous)
22
Q

Name 6 post-operative considerations in the patient with pressure ulcer

A
  • pressure off loading for 3-6 weeks
  • culture directed antibiotics by microbiology
  • Control of spasticity
  • optimization of nutrition
  • AROM and PROM of uninvolved extremity
  • bowel regimen/ostomy care
  • sitting protocol
  • patient education
23
Q

What is a Girdlestone procedure

A

Proximal femur excision and obliteration of the dead space with the vastus lateralis

** used in trochanteric pressure sore ONLY IN NON-MOBILE PATIENTS**

24
Q

How does moisture increased the risk of developing pressure ulcers

A
  • increases friction coefficient
  • neutralized skin pH
  • increased bacterial load
25
Q

Name 5 non-surgical management options for the treatment of pressure ulcers

A
  • High protein diet (1/5g/kg/day)
  • Pressure off=loading
  • Intrinsic and extrinsic factor control
  • Adequate dressings
  • Autolytic and enzymatic debridements
  • VAC therapy
26
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of the following in detecting osteomyelitis
MRI
CT
Bone scan

A

MRI
97% sensitivity
89% specificity

CT
67% sensitibity
50% specificity

Bone scan
81% sensitivity
69% specificity

27
Q

Name 2 topical solutions that can be used in pressure ulcers and their targeted pathogens

A

Dakin solution 0.125%
Acetic acid 2%

28
Q

Name 4 management options for patient with autonomic dysreflexia

A
  • stimulus reduction
  • urinary catheter monitoring (make sure no kinks)
  • regular BP controls
  • Nifedipine
  • Spasm control
  • reduce pressure points (ie. no folds in bed sheets, etc)
29
Q

Name 2 things you can do per-operatively to help remove the ulcer/bursa

A
  • painting of cavity with methylene blue
  • hydro-dissection by injection of tumescence around the bursa
30
Q

At which level of injury can pratients present with autonomic dysreflexia

A

T6 or ABOVE

31
Q

What are common symptoms seen in patients with autonomic dysreflexia

A
  • headaches
  • blurry vision
  • hypotension
  • anxiety/malaise
  • sweating/flushing
  • shivering
32
Q

% mortalité de la gangrène de Fournier

A

20-40%

33
Q

décrive la propagation de l’infection dans une gangrène de Fournier

A

Organisme traverse le Buck’s fascia, s’étend le long du Dartos (scrotum + pénis) et se rend au périné et à l’abdomen via le fascia de Colle et Scarpa

34
Q

Nommer les 7 couches du scrotum

A

1.Peau
2.Graisse sous cutnaée
3.Dartos fascia
4. External spermatic fascia -> permet de protéger les testicules de la fasciite nécrosante
5. Cremasteric fascia + muscle
6.Internal spermatic fascia
7.Tunica vaginalis

35
Q

Quel syndrome est associé à l’atrésie vaginale?

A

Mayer-Rokitanski

36
Q

Décrire la différenciation du système GU chez l’homme et la femme

A

Homme:
- Wolfian system (mesonephric ducts) - - Leydig cells

Femme:
Mullerian system (paramesoneohric ducts)
– Sertoli cells

37
Q

Nommer 5 traitement chirugical pour l’atrésie vaginale

A

-Dilatations (Frank)
-Suspension laparoscopique (Vecchietti)
-Tunnel avec greffe de peau (McIndoe)
-Lambeau vulvo-périnéal (Malaga)
-Reconstruction avec lambeaux : VRM, colon, jejunum, gracilis, pudendal thigh

38
Q

5 buts de la reconstruction vaginale

A
  • Estime de soi
  • Fonction sexuelle
  • Oblitération espace mort
  • Supporter les organes/plancher pelvien et prévenir l’herniation
  • Promouvoir la guérison
39
Q

6 complications spécifiques à a reconstruction vaginale?

A
  • Trop serrée
  • Trop grand
  • Trop de sécrétions
  • Sècheresse
  • Herniation
  • Troubles urinaires/fécal
40
Q

Quelle structure est fracturé dans une fracture du pénis?

A
  • Tunique albuginée
41
Q

4 signes d’une maladie de Peyronie

A
  • Cordon au niveau du pénis, des mains (10%) ou pieds
  • Déviations à l’érection
  • Douleur au coït
  • Nodules
42
Q

4 Indications chirurgicales du Péyronie

A
  • Impossibilité d’avoir une relation sexuelle
  • Maladie stable x6mois
  • Calcification/plaque extensive
  • Traitement conservateur échoué
43
Q

3 façon d’augmenter la longueur d’un pénis

A

-Liposuccion du mons
-Détacher le ligament suspenseur du pénis
-Expansion tissulaire

44
Q

4 buts visés lors de la reconstruction pénienne

A

Miction debout
Fonction sexuelle / érection
Sensation érogène
esthétique

45
Q

3 options de reconstruction pénienne post trauma

A

Réimplantation
Révision d’amputation
Néo-phallus

46
Q

Étapes d’une réimplantation pénienne?

A

Diversion urinaire
Débridement/lavage
Préparation des structures
K-wire l’urètre avec foley
Réparation de l’urète en 2 couches
Réparation de la tunique albuginée
Anastomose artérielle, veineuse et nerveuse
Réparation du fascia de Dartos/peau

  • Temps d’ischémie : Chaud 6h, Froid 16h
47
Q

3 Buts de la reconstruction du scrotum?

A

Protection des testicules
Régulation de température (35C) pour production de sperme
Esthétique

48
Q

Reconstruction pénienne:
site d’anastomose pour artère, veine, nerf

A

Artère: LCFA ou fémorale profonde
Veine: Saphène
Nerf: Pudendal interne ou ilioinguinal

49
Q

6 options pour reconstruction scrotale

A

Enfouir dans la peau des cuisses
STSG
Gracilis
Singapore
ALT pédiculé
Expansion tissulaire