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BMS 150 Test 1 > BMS quiz Q&As: > Flashcards

BMS quiz Q&As: Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE for memory (aka secondary response) to infection?

a. It is qualitatively different from the primary response.

b. It increases in magnitude compared to the primary response.

c. All of these statements are true.

d. It occurs more quickly compared to the primary response.

A

c. All of these statements are true.

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2
Q

Choose the TRUE statement regarding neutrophils:
Question 2Answer

a. Neutrophils are the most numerous white blood cell (WBC) in the blood stream

b. Neutrophils reside within tissues

c. Neutrophils are derived from the lymphoid progenitor cells

d. Neutrophils are long-lived cells

A

a. Neutrophils are the most numerous white blood cell (WBC) in the blood stream

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3
Q

Choose the FALSE statement below:

a. Each lymphocyte bears a single type of receptor with a unique specificity

b. Lymphocytes bearing receptors specific for ubiquitous self-molecules can be deleted at an early stage in lymphoid cell development

c. Interaction between a foreign molecule and a lymphocyte receptor capable of binding that molecule with high affinity leads to lymphocyte activation

d. Differentiated effector cells that are produced from the division of an activated lymphocyte - the parental cell - will bear receptors with a different specificity from that of the parental cell.

A

d. Differentiated effector cells that are produced from the division of an activated lymphocyte - the parental cell - will bear receptors with a different specificity from that of the parental cell.

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4
Q

Identify the mismatched items:

a. Neutrophil : precursor to macrophages

b. Dendritic cell : antigen presentation

c. Plasma cell : antibody secretion

d. Megakaryocyte : platelets

A

a. Neutrophil : precursor to macrophages

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is the most correct as it relates to innate immunity?

a. It has numerous, highly selective specificities.

b. It has responses that improve with repeated exposures to the same antigen

c. It occurs rapidly (begins within minutes to hours of infection).

d. It is highly variable

A

c. It occurs rapidly (begins within minutes to hours of infection).

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6
Q

Identify the mismatch between receptor and ligand:

a. SR-A : antibodies

b. Mannose receptor : carbohydrates on bacterial cell walls

c. CR3 : complement protein

d. Toll-like receptor : Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A

a. SR-A : antibodies

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7
Q

When a phagocyte engulfs a bacterium, the bacterium is taken up into a:

a. Peroxisome

b. Golgi apparatus

c. Phagosome

d. Lysosome

A

c. Phagosome

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8
Q

Which microbicidal (microbial-killing) option is NOT used by macrophages?

a. Reactive oxygen species

b. Hydrolytic enzymes

c. Low pH (acid)

d. NETs

A

d. NETs

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9
Q

Which adhesion molecule is expressed on vascular endothelial cells and is responsible for TIGHT binding of circulating leukocytes during the emigration phase of inflammation?

a. ICAM-1

b. E-selectin

c. Mucin-like CAM

d. LFA-1 (aka Integrin)

A

a. ICAM-1

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10
Q

Which of the following options does NOT cause vasodilation?

a. CXCL8 (aka IL-8)

b. Nitric oxide

c. C3a

d. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)

A

a. CXCL8 (aka IL-8)

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11
Q

Choose the acute phase reactant (protein secreted by the liver during systemic inflammation):

a. IgA

b. IL-6

c. CRP (C-reactive protein)

d. CXCL-8 (IL-8)

A

c. CRP (C-reactive protein)

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12
Q

Which of the following PRRs (pattern recognition receptors) is most likely to bind an intracellular PAMP (pathogen associated molecular pattern)?

a. Mannose-binding lectin

b. Toll-Like Receptor 2

c. NOD-like receptor

d. C1q

A

c. NOD-like receptor

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT an anti-viral activity that is promoted by a Type-1 interferon?

a. Increased cytotoxic T-cell proliferation

b. Inhibition of viral assembly

c. Increased HLA-1 expression

d. Increase mRNA degradation

A

a. Increased cytotoxic T-cell proliferation

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14
Q

Choose the TRUE statement regarding pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs):

a. NOD-like receptors can sense PAMPs and DAMPs in the cytosol

b. Mannose-binding lectin is a PRR specialized for recognizing viruses that live within the cell

c. Toll-like receptors tend to recognize patterns of cellular damage, such as increased urate or denatured cytosolic proteins

d. Toll-like receptor signaling triggers inflammasome activation

A

a. NOD-like receptors can sense PAMPs and DAMPs in the cytosol

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15
Q

How is the classical pathway of complement activated?

a. Complement component 3 (C3) binds to a pathogen.

b. Complement component 3b (C3b) binds to a pathogen.

c. Mannose-binding lectin binds to mannose on a bacterium.

d. C1q attaches to an antibody that has bound a pathogen

A

d. C1q attaches to an antibody that has bound a pathogen

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16
Q

Choose the coreceptor that is found on a cytotoxic T-cell.

a.CD8

b.CD19

c.CD80/86

d.CD4

A

a.CD8

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17
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the endogenous pathway of antigen presentation?

a. The antigenic peptide is translocated into the rough endoplasmic reticulum with the help of CLIP.

b. Antigenic peptides are phagocytosed.

c. The antigenic peptide is degraded in a proteosome.

d. The antigenic peptide is loaded onto an HLA-II.

A

c. The antigenic peptide is degraded in a proteosome.

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18
Q

Which cell is UNABLE to present antigen via HLA-I?

a.Macrophages

b. Red blood cells

c.Endothelial cells

d.Dendritic cells

A

b. Red blood cells

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19
Q

Choose the protein that prevents a cytosolic (intracellular) antigen from being loaded onto an HLA-II in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Question 4Answer

a. TAP

b. Invariant chain

c. CD28

d. HLA-DM2

A

b. Invariant chain

20
Q

Choose the antigen that is most likely to be presented on an HLA-1.

a.A toxin that circulates through the bloodstream

b.A bacterium that lives and reproduces on the extracellular matrix

c. A virus that binds to and enters a cell

d.A parasite that spends its life cycle in the lumen of the large intestine

A

c. A virus that binds to and enters a cell

21
Q

Which transcription factor drives the differentiation of a naive T cell to a regulatory T cell (Treg)

a. GATA-3

b. FoxP3

c. T-bet

d. ROR-gamma-t

A

b. FoxP3

22
Q

Which of the following statements about follicular T-cells (Tfh) are FALSE?

a.Tfh cells typically remian in secondary lymphoid organs after activation to interact with B-cells

b.The polarizing cytokine is IL-12

c. Tfh cell differentiation is dependent on high IL-12 and IL-2 concentrations

d.B cell maturation and development in the germinal zone is dependent on CD40L and IL-21 from Tfh cells

A

c. Tfh cell differentiation is dependent on high IL-12 and IL-2 concentrations

23
Q

A naive helper T cell interacts with an APC presenting an antigen. The TCR binds to the antigen on the HLA, the co-receptor binds to the HLA, but there is no CD28 costimulator interaction. What will the helper T-cell do?

a.The helper T cell becomes a partially-activated effector T cell

b.The helper T cell will rearrange its TCR to increase its specificity

c.The helper T cell is rendered anergic.

d.Its activity will not change, and it will remain naive.

A

c.The helper T cell is rendered anergic.

24
Q

Choose the cytokine that is NOT associated with polarization of a naive T helper cell to a Th17 cell?

a.IL-6

b.IL-23

c.TGF-beta

d.IL-4

A

d.IL-4

25
Q

Which pair of signals is needed for a Th1 helper cell to activate a macrophage?

a.CD28-CD80/86 as well as TCR-HLA interaction

b.iCOS-iCOSL as well as IL-4 production

c.CD40-CD40L as well as IL-4 production

d.CD40-CD40L as well as IFN-gamma production

A

d.CD40-CD40L as well as IFN-gamma production

26
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of diphtheria toxin?

a.Inhibits protein synthesis

b.Inhibits DNA synthesis

c.Inhibits mRNA synthesis

d.Inhibits protein folding

A

a.Inhibits protein synthesis

27
Q

Which virulence factors are expressed by group A Streptococcus?

a.Pathogenic streptococci will produce coagulase, while others will not

b.Pathogenic streptococci will be beta-hemolytic, while others will not.

c.Pathogenic streptococci will be catalase positive, while others will not.

d.Pathogenic streptococci will produce beta-lactamases, while others will not.

A

b.Pathogenic streptococci will be beta-hemolytic, while others will not.

28
Q

After analyzing a patient’s sputum and observing the cells under a microscope, you were able to see the presence of gram-positive cocci arranged in linear chains. This bacteria grows on blood agar plates and is gamma-hemolytic. What are you most likely observing?

a.Commensal Staphylococcal bacteria

b.Commensal Streptococcal bacteria

c.Pathogenic Staphylococcal bacteria

d.Pathogenic Streptococcal bacteria

A

b.Commensal Streptococcal bacteria

29
Q

Which part of the respiratory system is least likely to contain natural microbiota?

a.laryngopharynx

b.trachea

c.primary bronchi

d.respiratory bronchioles

A

d.respiratory bronchioles

30
Q

As a fastidious microorganism, in order to survive in culture, Haemophilus influenzae requires all of the following EXCEPT:

a.Chocolate agar

b.X factor

c.V factor

d.Blood agar

A

d.Blood agar

31
Q

Which co-stimulatory interaction between B-cell and follicular T helper cell is needed to induce cytokine production by the follicular T helper cell for B-cell activation?

a.HLA-2 (B-cell) and TCR (T helper cell)

b.CD40 (B-cell) and CD40L (T helper cell)

c.CD80/86 (B-cell) and CD28 (T helper cell)

d.iCOSL (B-cell) and iCOS (T helper cell)

A

d.iCOSL (B-cell) and iCOS (T helper cell)

32
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding B-lymphocyte development?

a.B-lymphocytes reach full maturity once activated in a lymphoid follicle.

b.IL-7 guides development from hematopoetic stems cells (HSC) into the lymphoid linage.

c.B-lymphocytes are released as mature but naïve lymphocytes from the Bone marrow.

d.B-lymphocytes develop from common lymphoid progenitor cells in the thymus.

A

b.IL-7 guides development from hematopoetic stems cells (HSC) into the lymphoid linage.

33
Q

Which antibody is typically secreted across the mucosa of various structures and can be found in saliva and breast milk?

a.IgM

b.IgA

c.IgG

d.IgE

A

b.IgA

34
Q

The B-cell Receptor (BCR) undergoes two check points in the bone marrow during B-cell development. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the B-cell receptor at this stage?

a.The BCR is composed of a membrane bound IgA immunoglobulin

b.Functional BCR can be secreted immediately by a transitional B-cell.

c.The BCR is checked twice for self-reactivity, if positive, the B-cell becomes an immature/transitional B-cell

d.The BCR is first checked to determine if it is functional/productive.

A

d.The BCR is first checked to determine if it is functional/productive.

35
Q

Which area of a lymph node contains predominantly B-lymphocytes?

a.Reticular capsule

b.Cortex

c.Medulla

d.Paracortex

A

b.Cortex

36
Q

Which of the proteins below is MOST often associated with atopic dermatitis when its function is impaired?

a.Zonulin

b.Occludin

c.Claudin

d.Filaggrin

A

d.Filaggrin

37
Q

Which of the following is a function of leukotrienes?

a.Polarization of a naive Th to a Th2 cell.

b.Stimulation of eosinophil proliferation and activation.

c.Activation of ILC1 cells.

d.Smooth muscle constriction.

A

d.Smooth muscle constriction.

38
Q

Choose the FALSE statement regarding the itching associated with atopic dermatitis.

a. Sprouting of neuronal C-type nerve endings in the epidermis and dermis is associated with increased itching.

b. Histamine and TSLP can stimulate the sensation of itching.

c. Filaggrin deficits and scratching cause loss of moisture from the skin, which can exacerbate itch.

d. ILC1 excitation and release of IL-18 causes sensitization of C-type nerve endings, increasing itch.

A

d. ILC1 excitation and release of IL-18 causes sensitization of C-type nerve endings, increasing itch.

39
Q

Choose the TRUE statement regarding IgE.

a.IgE is secreted across mucosal barriers and serves to inactivate helminth species (worms).

b.IL-10 is the major cytokine that stimulates class switching to IgE.

c.IgE serves as an effector when it is bound to the Fc receptor of granulocytes.

d.IgE secretion is typical of a Th17 response.

A

c.IgE serves as an effector when it is bound to the Fc receptor of granulocytes.

40
Q

What is the function of a Langerhans cell?

a.It destroys bacteria through the process of phagocytosis and free radical generation.

b.It presents antigens obtained via phagocytosis in secondary lymphoid organs.

c.It recognizes bound IgE via its Fc receptor and releases histamine and proteases.

d.It activates mast cells by migrating to the lamina propria and releasing IL-33.

A

b.It presents antigens obtained via phagocytosis in secondary lymphoid organs.

41
Q

A person with a peanut allergy consumes a granola bar that contains traces of peanuts. He rapidly develops facial swelling, hives, and shortness of breath. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is most likely occurring?

a.Type III

b.Type II

c.Type I

d.Type IV
Feedback

A

c.Type I

42
Q

A person develops antibodies that stimulate the TSH receptor - she develops hyper-thyroidism because of activation of the receptor. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is most likely occurring?

a.Type II

b.Type IV

c.Type III

d.Type I

A

a.Type II

43
Q

A person with multiple sclerosis receives a medication that prevents the migration of cytotoxic T-cells into the central nervous system. What type of hypersensitivity is this patient likely experiencing?

a.Type IV

b.Type II

c.Type I

d.Type III

A

a.Type IV

44
Q

Visceral obesity can cause chronic inflammation by:

a. Inhibition of TGF-beta due to excess insulin signaling

b. Activation of C-type lectin PRRs due to excess extracellular glucose

c.Activation of TLRs due to excess free fatty acids

d.Increased IFN-gamma production by distended adipocytes (fat cells)

A

c.Activation of TLRs due to excess free fatty acids

45
Q

Choose the cytokine that is most likely to be secreted by an alternatively-activated (M2) macrophage.

a. IL-23

b. IL-10

c. IL-8

d. IL-33

A

b. IL-10

BMS 150 Test 1 (15 decks)

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