Sim Questions Flashcards
Who monitors UHF guard emergency frequency?
What is the minimum taxiway width? Runway width?
30 feet; 80 feet (60 for max effort)
What are the taxi obstruction clearances?
Do not taxi an aircraft within 25 feet of obstructions without wing walkers. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least 10 feet
To minimize FOD potential while taxiing, use what engine setting?
low speed ground idle
How do you prevent skidding of the nose wheel?
By avoiding abrubt steering changes or by asymmetrical power and brake applications
What deviations are called out for heading, altitude, and airspeed?
heading: +/- 10 degrees
airspeed: +/- 10 knots
altitude: +/- 100 feet
Momentary minor corrections or deviations for stabilized approaches are acceptable and defined as: airspeed ______ from target; bank angle ______ from target; rate of descent _______ from target
airspeed: +10/-5 kts from target
bank angle: +/- 15 degrees from target
rate of descent: +/- 300 FPM from target
What UHF frequency is LRAFB ATIS broadcasted on?
251.1 (ch 16)
What call sign does 189 AW (AR ANG) use?
ROCK/PUMA/HIVE/CHEAT/PETRA/GOONY/HAWG/PROPS/SHAGGY/OUTLAW/HAWG
The radar altimeter is set to what altitude for departure/instrument approaches?
Set the radar altimeer to the HAT/Height above aerodrome (HAA) during instrument approaches [AFMAN11-2C-130HV3 5.12.4]
What instrument approach category is the C-130H? When will the next higher category be used?
Category “C” aircraft. If approach speeds exceed 140 knots, the minimums for category “D” will be used [AFMAN11-2C-140HV3 6.19]
For PAR approaches, Decision Altitude (DA) and visibility will be no lower than what values?
200 feet HAT and RVR 2400 (730 meters) or 1/2-mile visibility (800 meters) with no RVR readout available [AFMAN11-2C-130HV3 6.19.3.4)
Are you authorized to fly an RNAV (RNP) approach in a C-130H?
Not until aircraft navigation equipment is upgraded/certified, aircrews are rained, and MAJCOM/A3 has issued operational approval [AFMAN11-2C-130HV3 6.19.7]
“Established on track” for a VOR or TACAN procedure is defined as what? LOC? NDB?
VOR/TACAN: within half-full scale deflection
LOC: within full scale deflection
NDB: +/-5 degrees of required bearing of NDB
The stabilization points for instrument approaches is at _____ feet and ____ feet _____________.
500’ and 1000’ above touchdown
While on an ILS approach, do not descent below localizer minimums if the GSI indicates what?
if the aircraft is more than half-scale below or full scale above the glideslope [AFMAN11-202V3 16.8.9]
The ______ may never be used as the sole means of identifying the MAP
middle marker (MM) [AFMAN 11-202V3 16.8.10)
If being vectored for a PAR, what do you fly in case of lost communications?
Proceed with a published instrument approach procedure or previousy coordinated instructions. Change tansponder to appropriate codes.
Maintain last assigned altitude or the MSA/ESA, whichever is higher, until established on a segment of the published approach [FIH pg.13)
When performing an instrument takeoff, when do you raise the gear? Flaps?
When the airplane is in a definite climb as indicated by the altimeter and VVI, retract the gear.
Make an initial climb of at least 300 fpm, and retract flaps after airplane accelerates to a minimum of 20 knots above take-off speed. [TO 1C-130H-1 2-73]
When is radar service terminated when your aircraft is being vectored to a final approach course or when providing your own navigation on published routes to a final approach course?
landing is completed or when instructed to change advisory frequency at uncontrolled airports, whichever occurs first [AIM pg. 372]
Once an abort decision is made, what would you say is a key objective of any abort?
How do you call an abort?
On Takeoff: Any crewmember noting a safety of flight malfunction before hearing “go” or “rotate” (if refusal speed is greater than takeoff speed) will state “reject” and a brief description of the malfunction [AFMAN 11-2C-130H3 5.7.2]
If an engine failure occurs before reaching ______, the airplane must be stopped
refusal speed [TO 1C-130H-1 3A-14]
Define Vr
Based on the runway available - defined as the max speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at take-off power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available,
What is refusal speed based on?
with two engines (symmetrical power) in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller windmilling and maximum anti-skid braking.
Balanced CFL is based on accelerating to? Unbalanced?
accelerate, lose an engine, and then either continue the takeoff with the remaining serviceable engines or stop in the remaining distance that makes up the balanced field length / Vmcg or Vrot, whichever is less, becomes the Vcef speed
At what power setting is CFL based on?
Computed TO power, not exceeding 19,600 inch-pounds of torque
Define Vmcg
the minimum airspeed at which the airplane may lose an outboard engine during the TO ground run and still maintain directional control
When computing Vmcg for takeoff, when should the without-nosewheel steering option be used?
the lack of nosewheel steering is intended to represent reduced control on the ground due to wet, icy, or sand-covered runways [TO 1C-130H-1-1 3-24]
What is the minimum a pilot must check when handed the mini TOLD chart?
- verify GW independently from the TOLD card
- Cross-check air minimum control Vmca (one engine INOP in ground effect), takeoff, and landing speeds
- Review and compare the computed distances, ground roll, and climb gradient (if applicable) with the actual conditions, runway available, and departure procedures
Define Vmca
Minimum speed at which a yawing tendency can be balanced with max rudder at a specified ban angle.
What is the airplane configuration for one engine inoperative Vmca?
a. No 1 engine windmilling on NTS
b. Zero bleed air
c. wings level
d. 180 pounds of rudder deflection or surface deflection
e. all other engines at max TO power
f. 50% flaps
g. 5 degrees bank
h. landing gear down
A wings-level attitude requires an increase of approximately ____ (invariant with weight) above the charted one engine inoperative Vmca speeds. A 5-degree adverse bank angle (into the inoperative engine) requires a speed increase of ______ above the charted Vmca speeds at 80,000 pounds. This penalty increases significantly with increased gross weight (_______ at 140,000 pounds). Because of this effect, banked turns into the inoperative engine should _______.
11 KIAS ; 20 KIAS ; 37 KIAS ; be avoided
Given the following, does Vmca increase or decrease?
a. Decrease in OAT:
b. Retracting the flaps:
c. Increase in PA:
d. Reduced power takeoff:
e. Feathered prop:
If a nose wheel shimmy occurs on takeoff, the decision to continue or abort the takeoff will depend on the severity of the shimmy and ________ _______________. If the takeoff is continued, the nose wheel ____________ as soon as directional control permits to reduce the severity of the shimmy.
whether refusal speed has been reached. ; should be raised
It is important to obtain two-engine minimum control speed as soon as possible after takeoff and prior to positioning the flap lever to less than _____. Why?
15%. Positioning is less or opeating the gear/flaps will increase the minimum control speed due to reduction in available hydraulic pressure
During reduced power operations the throttles of operating engines may be advanced up to __________ as directional control permits.
maximum power
If obstacle clearance is a consideration, pilots should be aware that obstacle clearance performance data is based on the assumption that gear retraction is initiated ________ after takeoff and propeller feathering initiated ________ after takeoff.
3 seconds ; 6 seconds
In order to maintain directional control while stopping, the pilot must immediately make maximum use of _________________________.
nosewheel steering, flight controls, and differential braking
Aircrew should minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and extraneous activities that could interfere with flight duties when operating below ______, during critical phases of flight, during periods of increased workload and during ___________.
18,000’ MSL ; periods of increased workload and during all taxi operations
The minimum crew required to operate the H2 in flight is _______
pilot, copilot, engineer
If taxi speed is 20 knots or higher, turn limit on the nose wheel steering is limited to _______
20 degrees
The minimum amount of emergency brake pressure allowing one brake application is ____
2,900 PSI min
What is the recommended airspeed for an air start? Max TIT?
TIT below 200 degrees C
airspeed: 180 KIAS or less
During an air start, the flight engineer should call “NTS” by ______ and the copilot will release the condition lever to RUN at ______ which must occur by _______
10 percent RPM; until light-off
A ground test valve is incorportated in the system so that pressure from the _______ hydraulic system may be used in ground maintenance operations
auxiliary hydraulic system
MEL waiver authority for a training mission is ______
OG/CC
Can a local training flight continue with an inoperative anti-skid system?
Yes - provided
1. flight manual performance limitations are applied
2. Is repaired at first capable repair facility
3. A local training flight may continue if the antiskid fails provided the system is turned off. Multiple landings are prohibited
4. Max effort or formation landing operations are prohibited
If the suction boost pump fails, a ________ decrease in the static system pressure may also be indicated
100 to 200 PSI
If using the manual landing gear selector valve button to lower the gear, the _________ will not be available if the button requires holding to lower the gear
hydraulic pressure
When the name of the approach is followed by a single letter starting with the letter “A”, only ________ are provided on an instrument approach. The suffix letter is not used again for any procedures at that airfield.
circling minimums
If a circling approach is to be flown at the destination, the weather must meet _______
both the ceiling and prevailing visibility minimums
If a circling approach does not have a ceiling requirement published, how do you determine the required ceiling ?
the required ceiling is the HAA plus 100 feet and rounded up to the next one hundred foot value [afman11-202v3 18.14.7]
If a circling approach is required, maintain ______. If approach speeds exceed ___ knots, the minimums for category “D” aircraft will be used
140 KIAS or approach speed, whichever is higher. ; 140 KIAS
The circling minima listed on instrument procedures apply to all approach types on the instrument procedure (e.g. ILS or LOC, VOR or TACAN, etc.). If planning to circle from an approach with vertical guidance, pilots must ensure the aircraft is within the _______ for the aircraft category and above the circling MDA before abandoning the ______
appropriate circling radius; precision glideslope
