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Flight Dispatch > AIM 2 > Flashcards

AIM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Non-directional Radio Beacon (NDB)

A

L/MF (low to medium frequency)
(weaker) Navaid, normally useable < 18,000’.

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2
Q

VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR)

A

360 useable radials (magnetic directions

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3
Q

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

A

Aircraft and ground equipment enabling
a pilot to determine position

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4
Q

High Altitude VOR

A

range 130 nm

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5
Q

Low Altitude VOR

A

range 40 nm

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6
Q

Terminal VOR

A

super weak

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7
Q

VOR/DME

A

pilot receives ground and distance information

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8
Q

ILS Components

A

-Localizer (LOC/LLZ)
-Glideslope (GS)/Glidepath (GP)
-Marker Beacons
-Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
-Compass Locator

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9
Q

Localizer (LOC/LLZ)

A

primary component, provides azimuth (directional) guidance

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10
Q

What happens when the LOC isnt working?

A

you cant do an ILS

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11
Q

Glideslope (GS)/Glidepath (GP)

A

coupled (connected to) to the LOC
Provides descent (vertical) guidance

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12
Q

What happens when the GS/GP fails?

A

ILS reverts to a non-precision localizer approach

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13
Q

Marker Beacons

A

provides range (distance) information

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14
Q

Compass Locator

A

NDB located at a marker sit

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15
Q

What are the two Compass locators?

A

LMM - Locator Middle Marker (Middle Compass Locator.)
LOM - Locator Outer Marker (Outer Compass Locator.)

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16
Q

CAT 1 ILS MINS

A

DH 200 ft. RVR 2,400 ft

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17
Q

Special Authorization (SA) CAT 1 mins

A

DH 150 feet RVR 1,400 feet
(HUD to DH)

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18
Q

CAT 2 mins

A

DH 100 ft., RVR 1,200 ft

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19
Q

Newly authorized PIC CAT 2 mins

A

DH 150 ft., RVR 1,600 ft.

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20
Q

Category IIIA

A

RVR 700’

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21
Q

Straight-In (S-IN) Landing

A

A landing made on a runway aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course following an instrument approach.

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22
Q

Circling Maneuver

A

A maneuver to align the aircraft with a landing runway when
a S-IN landing is neither possible nor desirable.

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23
Q

Precision Approach Procedure

A

Any instrument approach which utilizes an electronic glideslope.

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24
Q

Non-Precision Approach Procedure

A

Any instrument approach without the use of an electronic glideslope.

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25
Q

Touchdown Zone (TDZ)

A

The first 3,000’ beyond the threshold

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26
Q

Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE)

A

The highest elevation within the touchdown zone

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27
Q

Decision Altitude (DA)

A

The MSL altitude in the precision approach at which a
missed approach must be initiated if required visual reference has not been
established

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28
Q

Decision Height (DH)/HAT

A

An AGL value; Height of the DA above the ground (TDZE or threshold).

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29
Q

Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)

A

The lowest authorized MSL altitude in the
non-precision approach without visual reference established

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30
Q

Minimum Descent Height (MDH)

A

An AGL value; Height of the MDA above
ground (TDZE or threshold)

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31
Q

Height Above Touchdown (HAT)

A

An AGL value; Applies to Straight-In
minimums only

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32
Q

Height Above Airport (HAA)

A

An AGL number;
MDA above airport elevation.
Circling minimums only

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33
Q

Aircraft Approach Category

A

A grouping of aircraft based on 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration (flaps and gear extended) at maximum gross landing weight.

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34
Q

RNAV

A

Area Navigation

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35
Q

Required Navigation Performance (RNP)

A

RNP is the required navigational performance within a certain airspace structure, along a given route or when flying some instrument approach procedures

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36
Q

How accurate does RNP need to be?

A

95% of the time

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37
Q

North Atlantic High-Level Airspace (NAT HLA) altitudes?

A

-FL285 to FL420
-at least two Long
Range Navigation Systems (LRNSs)
RNP-10/RNP-4

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38
Q

NATs (North Atlantic Tracks)

A

separated by 1° latitude or 60 nm

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39
Q

ALS

A

Approach Lights Systems

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40
Q

ALSF-II

A

Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashing Lights,
Category (CAT) II configuration

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41
Q

ALSF-I

A

Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashing Lights,
CAT I configuration.

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42
Q

MALSR

A

Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway
Alignment Indicator Lights.

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43
Q

Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) Lights

A

Have no effect on the instrument landing minimums

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44
Q

Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Lights

A

The presence or absence of a PAPI has no effect on landing minimums

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45
Q

Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL

A

The loss of these lights will have no effect on landing minimums

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46
Q

HIRL

A

High Intensity Runway Lights
The loss of the HIRL may affect takeoff or landing minimums

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47
Q

MIRL

A

Medium Intensity Runway Lights

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48
Q

TDZL or TDZ

A

Touchdown Zone Lights

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49
Q

RCLS or CL

A

Runway Centerline Lights

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50
Q

The loss of Touchdown Zone Lights and Runway Centerline Lights

A

will affect landing minimums

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51
Q

Runway Centerline Lights may affect

A

takeoff minimums

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52
Q

Runway numbers

A

usually indicate the nearest 10-degree increment of the magnetic azimuth

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53
Q

Runway Centerline Marking (RCLM may affect

A

takeofff minimums

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54
Q

Threshold

A

The designated beginning of the runway that is available and suitable for landing

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55
Q

A Displaced Threshold

A

is located at a point on the runway other than the designated
beginning of the runway.

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56
Q

The landing length beyond the threshold

A

Landing Distance Available (LDA) or effective Runway length ERL

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57
Q

Closed Runway

A

girl dont disptach to a closed runway

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58
Q

Class A Airspace

A

IFR only controlled airspace from 18,000 feet up to FL600.

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59
Q

Class B Airspace

A

approximately 10,000’ MSL
surrounding the nation’s busiest airports. ATC clearance as well as
pilot/equipment requirements are needed to operate in the area

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60
Q

Class G Airspace

A

Uncontrolled airspace

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61
Q

Hemispheric Rule (non-RVSM)

A

IFR Altitudes and Flight Levels - Uncontrolled Airspace Below FL290:
Magnetic Course: 0º - 179º: Fly - Odd thousands MSL/Odd thousands Flight
Levels
Magnetic Course: 180º - 359º: Fly - Even thousands MSL/Even thousands
Flight Levels

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62
Q

Hemispheric Rule Below FL290

A

Magnetic Course: 0º - 179º
Fly - FL290, FL330, FL370, FL410, …
Magnetic Course: 180º - 359º
Fly - FL310, FL350, FL390,

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63
Q

Prohibited Area

A

flight is prohibited/not permitted. Usually, for National Defense (ex.
The “White House”).

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64
Q

Restricted Area

A

flight is subject to restrictions. Gunnery, missiles, military activity
— need ATC approval to enter

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65
Q

Warning Area

A

extending from 3 nm outward
from the coast of the U.S., that may contain hazards (similar to Restricted Areas) to nonparticipating aircraft

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66
Q

Military Operations Areas (MOA)

A

for the purpose of
separating certain military activities from IFR traffic

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67
Q

Clearance Delivery (Cpt)

A

Clearance prior to taxi

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68
Q

Ground Control

A

Control ground movement (taxi) until runway

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69
Q

Tower (Local)

A

Issue clearances onto runway and for takeoff and issue landing clearance

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70
Q

Departure (R)

A

Radar vectors from terminal area towards en route structure

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71
Q

ARTCC(s)

A

known as “centers”. Primarily control en route phase of flight. There
are 22 centers in U.S.A.

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72
Q

Approach (R)

A

Radar vectors from en route structure to terminal area; issue approach clearance

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73
Q

Ground

A

Control taxi from runway to gate.

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74
Q

ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

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75
Q

Automatic Terminal Information Service

A

the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control (weather, notices,
active runways, etc.) information at high activity airports.

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76
Q

Primary Radar (PRIRA)

A

works on the principle of reflection

77
Q

Secondary Radar SECRA

A

involves the use of a transponder in the airplane

78
Q

7500

A

Hijacking

79
Q

7600

A

Loss of communications

80
Q

7700

A

Emergency

81
Q

LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ALERT SYSTEM (LLWAS)

A

alerts to wind shear
activity such as microburst, strong outflow boundary

82
Q

TWDR (Terminal Doppler Weather Radar)

A

Located off-site and provides
enhanced weather information at and the surrounding airspace of select airports

83
Q

BRAKING ACTION REPORTS AND ADVISORIES

A

Good (best)
Good to medium
Medium
Medium to poor
Poor
Nil (worst)

84
Q

Intersection Takeoffs

A

to enhance airport capacities,
reduce taxiing,
minimize departure delays,

controllers may initiate intersection takeoffs

85
Q

Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)

A

-reduced landing distance available.
+improves traffic control

86
Q

Gate Holding Due to Departure Delays

A

Pilots should contact ground control or clearance delivery prior to starting engines
as gate hold procedures may be in effect whenever departure delays exceed or are
anticipated to exceed 15 minutes

87
Q

List Flow Control Methods

A

Gate Holding (implemented when anticipated delays > 15 minutes)
En route holding
Rerouting traffic
Designated One-way routes
Cruise Altitude/speed changes

88
Q

Clearance

A

for the purpose of preventing
collision between known aircraft,
IT IS NOT AUTHORIZATION FOR A PILOT TO DEVIATE FROM ANY RULE, REGULATION, OR MINIMUM ALTITUDE NOR TO CONDUCT UNSAFE OPERATION OF THE AIRCRAFT

89
Q

RVSM Airspace

A

opposite direction traffic will be separated by
1,000’

90
Q

Altitude selection within RVSM

A

Magnetic Course: 180˚ - 359˚
Fly - Even Thousands Flight Levels:
FL300, FL320, FL340, etc.
Magnetic Course: 0˚ - 179˚
Fly - Odd Thousands Flight Levels:
FL290, FL310, FL330, etc

91
Q

RVSM airspace extends from

A

FL290 to FL410
Altitudes above FL410 will be assigned in accordance with the conventional
hemispheric rule

92
Q

RVSM Requirements

A

two independent altimeters, one autopilot altitude hold system which may be coupled to either altimeter, and one autopilot altitude alert* function

93
Q

NOTAM

A

Notice To Air Mission

94
Q

The five NOTAMs

A

NOTAM (D) or distant,
Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs,
Pointer NOTAMs,
Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs,
Military NOTAMs

95
Q

PDC

A

Pre-departure Clearance

96
Q

ACARS

A

Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System

97
Q

CLEARED AS FILED

A

The clearance issued as was filed in the flight plan. Mainly, a route clearance,
not altitude.

98
Q

Hold for Release

A

ATC may issue “hold for release” instructions in a clearance to delay an aircraft’s
departure for traffic management reasons

99
Q

Departure Control

A

Departure Control is an approach control function responsible for ensuring
separation between departures

100
Q

DP

A

Instrument Departure Procedures

101
Q

ODP

A

Obstacle Departure Procedures

102
Q

SID

A

Standard Instrument
Departures

103
Q

Instrument Departure Procedures

A

Instrument departure procedures are preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR)
procedures which provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the
appropriate en route structure

104
Q

ARTCC Communications

A

are capable of direct communications with IFR air traffic

105
Q

CPDLC

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications

106
Q

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications

A

is a system that
supplements air/ground voice communications

107
Q

Victor Routes

A

from 1,200 feet above
the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

108
Q

Victor Routes are found on

A

En route Low-Altitude Charts

109
Q

Jet Routes

A

from 18,000 feet
MSL to FL450 inclusive

110
Q

Jet Routes are found on

A

En route High-Altitude Charts.

111
Q

Q-routes

A

RNAV equipped aircraft
18,000 feet MSL and FL450 inclusive.
En route High Altitude Charts

112
Q

T-routes

A

are available for use by GPS or GPS/WAAS equipped aircraft from 1,200
feet above the surface (or in some instances higher) up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
En route low altitude charts

113
Q

Operation above FL450

A

conducted on a point-to-point basis.

114
Q

COPs

A

Change over points

115
Q

Change Over Points

A

COP is normally located midway between the navigation facilities for straight
route segments. When the COP is NOT located at the midway point, aeronautical
charts will depict the COP location and give the mileage to the radio aids

116
Q

Holding

A

Holding patterns are flown during flow control, missed approaches, or inbound
delays. A Standard pattern consists of right turns, while non-standard is left turns. Holding at LOWER altitude burns more fuel.

117
Q

STAR

A

Standard Terminal Arrival

118
Q

Standard Terminal Arrival

A

is to simplify clearance delivery procedures and
facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures

119
Q

RNAV STAR

A

All public RNAV STARs are RNAV 1. These procedures require system performance
currently met by GPS or DME/DME/IRU RNAV systems

120
Q

IAP

A

Instrument Approach Procedure Charts

121
Q

Instrument Approach Procedure Charts

A

Portrays the aeronautical data which is required to execute an instrument approach
to an airport. The IAP is also known as the “approach chart” or “approach plate

122
Q

WAAS

A

Wide Area Augmentation System

123
Q

Wide Area Augmentation System

A

Augment” means to enhance,
help, or improve GPS signal coverage and accuracy

124
Q

LPV

A

localizer performance with vertical
guidance

125
Q

localizer performance with vertical
guidance

A

identifies the APV (approach with vertical guidance)
minimums with electronic lateral and vertical guidance

126
Q

LNAV/VNAV

A

LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation; VNAV stands for
Vertical Navigation

127
Q

LP

A

localizer performance

128
Q

localizer performance

A

LP approaches
are non-precision approaches that require the use of WAAS

129
Q

LAAS

A

Local Area Augmentation System

130
Q

Local Area Augmentation System

A

more accurate than WAAS;

131
Q

VDP

A

Visual Descent Point

132
Q

Visual Decent Point

A

A VDP will be published on most RNAV IAPs. VDPs
apply only to aircraft utilizing LNAV minima, not LPV or LNAV/VNAV minimums.

133
Q

TAA

A

Terminal Arrival Area

134
Q

Terminal Arrival Area

A

Located on RNAV approaches, provides standard
obstacle clearance similar to that of an MSA, but displayed differently

135
Q

Cold Temperature Limitations

A

A minimum temperature limitation is published
on procedures which authorize Baro-VNAV operation.

136
Q

MSA

A

Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes

137
Q

Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes

A

MSL and normally have a 25 NM radius. MSAs provide 1,000 feet clearance over all obstructions but do not have navigation signal coverage

138
Q

NoPT

A

No procedure turn required (or authorized)

139
Q

Parallel ILS Approaches (Dependent)

A

runways typically separated by at least 2,500’ between RCLMs. The approaches
must be staggered and radar monitoring is not required.

140
Q

Simultaneous Parallel ILS Approaches (Independent

A

centerlines separated by* 4,300* feet,

141
Q

ILS PRM Approaches

A

(Simultaneous Close Parallel)
Instrument Landing System Precision Runway Monitor.

142
Q

approach system that permits simultaneous ILS/PRM approaches to dual runways with

A

centerlines separated by less than 4,300 feet

143
Q

NTZ

A

No Transgression Zone

144
Q

Side-step Maneuver

A

parallel runways that
are separated by 1,200 feet or less

145
Q

Missed Approach fuel for B272

A

1,200 lbs

146
Q

Visual Approach

A

Reported weather at the airport
must be VMC (ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater

147
Q

Contact Approach

A

clear of clouds
AND
have at least 1 mile flight visibility
HAS TO BE INITIATED BY THE PILOT

148
Q

National Security

A

Air Defense
Identification Zones (ADIZ) for entrance into the USA

149
Q

Pilot Responsibility and Authority Emergency

A

the pilot-in-command may deviate from
any rule to meet that emergency

150
Q

Distress

A

MAYDAY MAYDAY MATDAY

151
Q

Urgency

A

PAN-PAN PAN-PAN PAN-PAN

152
Q

Emergency Frequencies

A

121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz

153
Q

Fuel Dumping

A

Airborne release (jettisoning) of fuel.
Purpose - To reduce aircraft weight within safe landing limits. Not all
aircraft have fuel dumping capability.

154
Q

B727 dumps fuel at

A

2,400 pounds per minute (ppm), and decreases weight with
flying by 2,500 ppm.

155
Q

Minimum Fuel Advisory

A

An advisory to ATC by the pilot indicating that the flight cannot accept any undue
delay upon reaching the destination without declaring a fuel emergency

156
Q

EWINS

A

Enhanced Weather
Information System

157
Q

Enhanced Weather
Information System

A

allows dispatchers to overrule suspect
forecasts, and produce their own.

158
Q

En Route Low-Altitude Charts

A

Area charts, which are a
part of this series, furnish data at a larger scale in congested areas

159
Q

DME FIX

A

A fix defined by using DME

160
Q

FAF

A

Final Approach Fix

161
Q

Final Approach Fix

A

Maltese Cross symbol for non-precision approaches and the lightning bolt symbol for precision approaches; or when ATC directs a lower-than-published Glideslope/path Intercept Altitude, it is the resultant actual point of glideslope/path intercept

162
Q

GLIDESLOPE INTERCEPT ALTITUDE

A

The minimum altitude to intercept the glideslope/path on a precision approach

163
Q

IAF

A

INITIAL APPROACH FIX

164
Q

INITIAL APPROACH FIX

A

The fixes depicted on instrument approach procedure charts that identify the beginning of the initial approach segment(s). This is the beginning of the entire approach — can be 30 to 50+ miles away from the airport

165
Q

Intersection

A

A location, fix, position — anything but a navaid; typically, a 5-letter name

166
Q

MAA

A

MAXIMUM AUTHORIZED ALTITUDE

167
Q

MEA

A

MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE

168
Q

MCA

A

MINIMUM CROSSING ALTITUDE

169
Q

MINIMUM CROSSING ALTITUDE

A

The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA

170
Q

MOCA

A

MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE

171
Q

MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE

A

signal coverage only within 22 nautical miles of a VOR

172
Q

MRA

A

MINIMUM RECEPTION ALTITUDE

173
Q

MINIMUM RECEPTION ALTITUDE

A

The lowest altitude required to receive adequate signals from an off-route navaid to
determine specific fixes. If DME is used to identify the fix, the MRA does not apply

174
Q

MAP

A

MISSED APPROACH POINT

175
Q

MISSED APPROACH POINT

A

A point prescribed in each instrument approach procedure at which a missed
approach procedure shall be executed if the required visual reference does not
exist.

176
Q

OROCA

A

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude

177
Q

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude

A

The highest possible elevation including both terrain and other vertical obstructions. OROCA provides an additional vertical buffer of 1,000 feet in designated non- mountainous areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States. OROCA does not provide for NAVAID or communication signal
coverage, and would not be consistent with altitudes assigned by Air Traffic Control.

178
Q

Compulsory Reporting Point

A

A radio fix at which the pilot must contact ATC, unless the aircraft is in radar contact. They are depicted on aeronautical charts as solid triangles

179
Q

Non-Compulsory Reporting Point

A

A radio fix at which no report to ATC is
required, unless instructed by ATC. They are depicted as clear or open/
unshaded triangles

180
Q

Preferred IFR Routes

A

Routes preferred by ATC for the purpose of increasing the ATC system efficiency
and capacity between busy terminals.

181
Q

RA

A

RADIO/RADAR ALTIMETER

182
Q

RADIO/RADAR ALTIMETER

A

Aircraft equipment which makes use of reflection of radio waves from the ground to
determine the height of the aircraft above the surface. Found on CAT II/III
approach plates. Remember, any lighting or electronic aid that is out of
service (OTS) will likely prohibit the use of a higher Category approach

183
Q

RUNWAY SLOPE

A

If a runway slope (uphill or downhill) is too great, then the runway may not be authorized to use. The slope may affect takeoff and landing weight limits for the airplane.

184
Q

SINGLE DIRECTION ROUTE

A

Preferred IFR Routes which are sometimes depicted on high-altitude en route charts
and which are normally flown in one direction only

185
Q

STOPWAY

A

designated
by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted
takeoff

186
Q

TCH

A

THRESHOLD CROSSING HEIGHT

187
Q

TRANSITION

A

A published procedure (SID Transition) used to connect the basic SID to one of
several en route airways/jet routes, or a published procedure (STAR Transition)
used to connect one of several en route airways/jet routes to the basic STAR (these are the dashed lines on SIDs/STARs

188
Q

VARIATION

A

The angular difference between True and Magnetic directions

189
Q

WAYPOINT

A

A predetermined geographical position used for route/instrument approach
definition, or progress reporting purposes, that is defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates. Know that the waypoint is
typically depicted as a four-point star, on charts

Flight Dispatch (10 decks)

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