Exam 3

Question 1

A child says he doesn’t steal because it’s against the law. Based on this information, you can conclude that this child is in which of Kohlberg’s levels of moral development?
A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. transconventional
D. postconventional

Answer 1

B. conventional

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-23 Answer B is correct. The second stage of Kohlberg’s conventional level is the law and order orientation stage. During this stage, judgments about the acceptability of a behavior depend on whether or not the behavior violates laws and rules that have been established by legitimate authorities.

Question 2

Research has linked a chronically elevated level of the hormone __________ to a loss of neurons in the hippocampus and memory impairment.
A. glutamate
B. cortisol
C. thyroxine
D. insulin

Answer 2

B. cortisol

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-24 Answer B is correct. A chronically elevated level of the stress hormone cortisol has been linked to a number of undesirable consequences. One consequence is impaired memory, which is due to its effects on the hippocampus.

Question 3

To evaluate the effectiveness of a stress reduction technique for alleviating test anxiety, a psychologist administers a measure of test anxiety to Psychology 101 undergraduates, chooses the 50 students with the highest scores on the test, administers the intervention to the students, and then readministers the measure of test anxiety. The biggest threat to this study’s internal validity is:
A. differential selection
B. reactivity
C. statistical regression.
D. instrumentation

Answer 3

C. statistical regression.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-03 Answer C is correct. Whenever subjects are chosen for inclusion in a study because they have extreme scores on the pretest, their scores on the posttest are likely to “regress toward the mean” regardless of the effects of the independent variable. This is referred to as statistical regression, and it threatens a study’s internal validity whenever it’s not possible to ascertain to what extent a change in posttest scores is due to statistical regression or the effects of the independent variable.

Question 4

An assumption of classical test theory is that measurement error:
A. is random.
B. is systematic.
C. is random and systematic.
D. cannot be estimated.

Answer 4

A. is random.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer A is correct. Classical test theory is based on the assumption that an examinee’s obtained test score is due to a combination of “truth” and measurement error, with truth referring to the “true” amount of the characteristic measured by the test that the examinee has and measurement error being random (unsystematic).

Question 5

A scatterplot is constructed from the scores obtained by a sample of employees on a newly developed selection test (X) and a measure of job performance (Y). The scatterplot indicates that the variability of Y scores is about the same for all scores on X. Which of the following terms describes this situation?
A. homoscedasticity
B. heteroscedasticity
C. unrestricted range
D. restricted range

Answer 5

A. homoscedasticity

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Correlation and Regression-07 Answer A is correct. The terms homoscedasticity and heteroscedasticity are used to describe the relationship between two variables in terms of the amount of variability in one variable for different values of the other variable. Homoscedasticity occurs when the variability of scores on one variable is about the same at different values of the other variable; heteroscedasticity occurs when the variability of scores on one variable differs at different values of the other variable. Homoscedasticity is one of the conditions that tends to increase the correlation coefficient. Also, when data are homoscedastic, the use of a regression equation to predict people’s scores on Y from their scores on X will produce the same accuracy of prediction for all scores on X.

Question 6

Based on their research, Kagan and his colleagues (Kagan et al., 2007) concluded that __________ is a temperament characteristic that has a biological basis and is relatively stable over time.
A. behavioral inhibition
B. negative affectivity
C. adaptability
D. rhythmicity/regularity

Answer 6

A. behavioral inhibition

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-16 Answer A is correct. Kagan and his colleagues found that behavioral inhibition is relatively stable over time and concluded that it has biological roots but can be affected by certain environmental factors (e.g., parental overprotectiveness and insensitivity).

Question 7

__________ is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of a sequence of components by establishing the components one at a time.
A. Chaining
B. Shaping
C. Differential reinforcement
D. The Premack principle

Answer 7

A. Chaining

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-11 Answer A is correct. Chaining is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of a sequence of responses that occur in a fixed order. In contrast, shaping is used to establish a behavior by reinforcing successive approximations to (not components of) the behavior.

Question 8

The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) includes all of the following except:
A. Personal Styles Scales.
B. Occupational Scales.
C. College Major Scales.
D. Vocational Interest Estimates.

Answer 8

A. Personal Styles Scales.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer A is correct. The KOIS includes Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, and Vocational Interest Estimates. The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) includes the Personal Styles Scales.

Question 9

Driver and Brousseau’s career concept model distinguishes between four career concepts. These include all of the following except:
A. linear.
B. transitory.
C. circular.
D. expert.

Answer 9

C. circular.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Career Choice and Development-14 Answer C is correct. The four career concepts identified by Driver and Brousseau’s (Brousseau, Driver, Eneroth, & Larsson, 1996) career concept model are linear, expert, spiral, and transitory.

Question 10

Piaget found that some forms of conservation are understood before others and that the forms of conservation develop in a predictable sequence. He referred to this as:
A. transitivity.
B. irreversibility.
C. horizontal decalage.
D. transformational thought.

Answer 10

C. horizontal decalage.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Cognitive Development-12 Answer C is correct. Piaget used the term horizontal decalage to describe the gradual acquisition of abilities within a stage (e.g., the gradual development of conservation skills within the concrete operational stage).

Question 11

As described by Greenson (2016), the process of analysis in psychoanalysis involves:
A. denial, resistance, insight, and working through.
B. confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through.
C. clarification, confrontation, catharsis, and insight.
D. exploration, confrontation, interpretation, and awareness.

Answer 11

B. confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-01 Answer B is correct. Greenson describes the process of analysis in psychoanalysis as involving confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through.

Question 12

The research has found that, when people estimate the frequency of a particular event, they tend to give more weight to anecdotal information about that event than to statistical data. This is referred to as:
A. the gambler’s fallacy.
B. counterfactual thinking.
C. the illusory correlation.
D. the base rate fallacy.

Answer 12

D. the base rate fallacy.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-02 Answer D is correct: The base rate fallacy is the tendency to be influenced more by information about an individual case (e.g., anecdotal information about a single event) than by base rate data.

Question 13

When evaluating the job performance of her supervisees, Mrs. Akeem tends to give all supervisees average ratings, regardless of their actual performance. Mrs. Akeem’s tendency illustrates which of the following?
A. similarity bias
B. contrast error
C. central tendency bias
D. halo error

Answer 13

C. central tendency bias

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-03 Answer C is correct. The central tendency bias occurs when a rater uses the middle of the rating scale when rating all employees, regardless of their actual performance.

Question 14

At a company party, you first meet a co-worker’s husband whose name is Bill. About twenty minutes later, you meet another co-worker’s husband whose name is Bob. Then, about an hour later, you encounter Bill at the buffet table and call him Bob. Which of the following explains your mistake?
A. retroactive interference
B. proactive interference
C. implicit memory
D. explicit memory

Answer 14

A. retroactive interference

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-14 Answer A is correct. Retroactive interference occurs when more recently acquired information (e.g., “Bob”) interferes with the ability to recall previously acquired information (e.g., “Bill”).

Question 15

The foot-in-the-door technique is most useful for explaining which of the following?
A. why children belonging to hostile groups in Sherif’s Robber’s Cave study started to cooperate with each other
B. why children in the Lepper, Greene, and Nisbett study were no longer intrinsically motivated to color with felt-tip markers
C. why “teachers” in Milgram’s obedience to authority study complied with the experimenter’s order to increase the level of shock they delivered to the “learner”
D. why subjects in Asch’s conformity studies gave more accurate estimates when making estimates alone than in the group setting

Answer 15

C. why “teachers” in Milgram’s obedience to authority study complied with the experimenter’s order to increase the level of shock they delivered to the “learner”

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-09 Answer C is correct. In his studies, Milgram followed a less objectionable request (delivering a lower level of shock) with a more objectionable request (delivering a slightly higher level of shock). In other words, ordering teachers (subjects) to gradually increase the level of shock they delivered to the learner is similar to use of the foot-in-the-door technique to gain people’s compliance with a large request by starting with a smaller request that most people would agree to.

Question 15

All of the following drugs slow the cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease by increasing cholinergic activity except:
A. galantamine.
B. memantine.
C. rivastigmine.
D. donepezil.

Answer 15

B. memantine.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-24 Answer B is correct. All four drugs listed in the answers to this question are used to slow the progress of cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease. Galantamine (Razadyne), rivastigmine (Exelon), and donepezil (Aricept) do so by increasing cholinergic activity (i.e., by preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine), while memantine (Namenda) reduces the negative effects of excessive levels of the neurotransmitter glutamate.

Question 15

The human brain is about 25% of its adult size and weight at birth, but it grows quickly and is at least 75% of its adult size and weight by _____ of age.
A. six months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

Answer 15

C. 24 months

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Physical Development-07 Answer C is correct. The brain increases in size quickly following birth due primarily to an increase in nerve fibers (dendrites and axons) and glial cells, which are responsible for the myelination of nerve fibers. It reaches at least 75% its adult size and weight by about 24 months of age.

Question 15

A person experiencing tobacco withdrawal is likely to have all of the following symptoms except:
A. increased appetite.
B. anger or anxiety.
C. hypersomnia.
D. impaired concentration.

Answer 15

C. hypersomnia.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-25 Answer C is correct. Symptoms associated with tobacco withdrawal include irritability, anger or anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, and insomnia.

Question 16

Research on infantile amnesia has consistently found that:
A. most children under two years of age are unable to form explicit memories.
B. most children under two years of age are unable to form autobiographical memories.
C. most older children and adults are unable to recall autobiographical events that occurred when they were less than three or four years of age.
D. most adults (but not older children) are unable to recall autobiographical events that occurred when they were less than three or four years of age.

Answer 16

C. most older children and adults are unable to recall autobiographical events that occurred when they were less than three or four years of age.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Cognitive Development-14 Answer C is correct. Infantile amnesia is also known as childhood amnesia and refers to the inability of older children, adolescents, and adults to recall events they experienced prior to three or four years of age. See, e.g., H. Hayne and G. Simcock, Memory development in toddlers, in M. L. Courage and N. Cowan (Eds.), The development of memory in infancy and childhood (pp. 43-68), New York, Psychology Press, 2009.

Question 16

The all-or-none law states that:
A. the greater the intensity of the initial stimulus, the less likely that a subsequent stimulus will generate a nerve impulse.
B. the intensity of a nerve impulse is directly proportional to the type and rate of stimulation.
C. the greater the stimulus intensity, the faster the rate of neural firing.
D. the intensity of a nerve impulse is independent of stimulus intensity as long as the intensity reaches a minimum level.

Answer 16

D. the intensity of a nerve impulse is independent of stimulus intensity as long as the intensity reaches a minimum level.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-12 Answer D is correct. According to the all-or-none law, once stimulus intensity reaches a minimum threshold, a nerve impulse (action potential) occurs. In other words, the intensity of a nerve impulse does not vary; instead, a nerve impulse either occurs or doesn’t occur.

Question 17

A test has a mean of 60 and standard deviation of 5, and test scores are normally distributed. Based on this information, you can conclude that about 95% of scores fall between scores of:
A. 55 and 65.
B. 50 and 70.
C. 45 and 75.
D. 40 and 80.

Answer 17

B. 50 and 70.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-02 Answer B is correct. In a normal distribution about 95% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean. This test has a mean of 60 and standard deviation of 5, so about 95% of scores fall between 60 plus and minus 10 (5 x 2), which is between 50 and 70.

Question 17

A person taking which of the following drugs should avoid eating foods containing tyramine?
A. SSRI
B. MAOI
C. TCA
D. SNRI

Answer 17

B. MAOI

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-22 Answer B is correct. Ingesting foods containing tyramine (e.g., aged cheese and processed meat) while taking an MAOI can cause a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. Consequently, these foods must be avoided.

Question 18

All of the single-subject designs share which of the following characteristics?
A. The independent variable is not withdrawn during the course of the study once it’s been applied.
B. The independent variable is applied to two or more baselines.
C. The dependent variable is measured multiple times during each phase.
D. The dependent variable is measured before and after the independent variable is applied.

Answer 18

C. The dependent variable is measured multiple times during each phase.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-05 Answer C is correct. All of the single-subject designs involve measuring the dependent variable multiple times at regular intervals during each baseline phase and each treatment phase. The other answers apply to some, but not all, of the single-subject designs.

Question 19

According to Holland’s (1985) theory of career choice, the realistic personality type is most similar to which of the following types?
A. investigative and conventional
B. enterprising and conventional
C. social and investigative
D. social and enterprising

Answer 19

A. investigative and conventional

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Career Choice and Development-12 Answer A is correct. Holland depicted his six personality and work environment types (“RIASEC”) arranged around a hexagon, with the types closest to each other in the hexagon being most similar and those farthest from each other being most dissimilar. Realistic is most similar to investigative and conventional and most dissimilar to social.

Question 20

As described by Aaron Beck, ________ are triggered by an event or stimulus and elicit emotional and behavioral responses.
A. automatic thoughts
B. cognitive distortions
C. polarized thoughts
D. irrational beliefs

Answer 20

A. automatic thoughts

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-15 Answer A is correct. Automatic thoughts are spontaneous thoughts that “intercede between an event or stimulus and the individual’s emotional and behavioral reactions” (A. T. Beck and M. E. Weishaar, Cognitive therapy, in A. Freeman, K. M. Simon, L. E. Beutler, and H. Arkowitz (Eds.), Comprehensive handbook of cognitive therapy, New York, Plenum, 1989, p. 254).

Question 21

Regardless of the distribution of raw scores, when the raw scores are converted to percentile ranks, the resulting distribution will be:
A. normal.
B. rectangular.
C. leptokurtic.
D. platykurtic.

Answer 21

B. rectangular.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Test Score Interpretation-11 Answer B is correct. A percentile rank distribution is always rectangular (flat) because the same percent of scores fall at each percentile rank. In other words, when raw test scores are converted to percentile ranks, 1% of the scores will be converted to each percentile rank: The highest 1% of raw scores will be converted to a percentile rank of 100, the next highest 1% of raw scores will be converted to a percentile rank of 99, etc.

Question 22

Dr. O’Leary, a neuropsychologist, administers a number of tests to new patients with traumatic brain injury to assist with differential diagnosis and treatment planning. She decides to also use her patients’ test data in a research study she will be conducting on the effects of traumatic brain injury on memory. In terms of ethical requirements, this is:
A. acceptable.
B. acceptable as long as she takes steps to protect the confidentiality of the data that will be used in her research study.
C. unacceptable unless she gets the patients’ consent to use their test information in the research study.
D. unacceptable under any circumstances.

Answer 22

C. unacceptable unless she gets the patients’ consent to use their test information in the research study.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-22 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.03(a) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.23 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require informed consents for assessment to include a description of the purpose of the assessment. Dr. O’Leary originally administered the tests for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment planning (and presumably obtained consent from her patients for that purpose) and she must also obtain consent to include their test data in her research study.

Question 23

A solution-focused therapist uses scaling questions to help clients:
A. predict the consequences of their thoughts and behaviors.
B. identify when their problems were less intense or did not exist.
C. recognize the progress they’ve made toward achieving their goals.
D. make connections between past events and current behaviors.

Answer 23

C. recognize the progress they’ve made toward achieving their goals.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Brief Therapies-09 Answer C is correct. Scaling questions are used by solution-focused therapists to help clients evaluate their current status or their progress toward achieving their goals.

Question 24

Longitudinal research has found that the job satisfaction of individuals is:
A. stable over time only for those who stay in the same job.
B. stable over time only for those who stay in the same job or career.
C. stable over time and across jobs and careers.
D. unstable over time regardless of job or career stability.

Answer 24

C. stable over time and across jobs and careers.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-23 Answer C is correct. The research has found that a person’s level of job satisfaction tends to be the same over time even when he/she changes jobs and careers (e.g., Staw, Bell, & Clausen, 1986).

Question 25

Carl Rogers proposed that people may respond to anxiety caused by incongruence between self and experience by:
A. seeking personal power.
B. resorting to primary process thinking.
C. distorting or denying the experience.
D. striving for superiority.

Answer 25

C. distorting or denying the experience.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-04 Answer C is correct. According to Rogers, people often react defensively to incongruence by distorting or denying their experiences which, in turn, leads to psychological maladjustment.

Question 26

Authors of research articles published in APA journals must retain their data for:
A. at least 3 years after the date of publication.
B. at least 5 years after the date of publication.
C. at least 10 years after the date of publication.
D. indefinitely.

Answer 26

B. at least 5 years after the date of publication.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-01 Answer B is correct. Publishing policies for APA journals include the statement that “APA expects authors to have their data available throughout the editorial review process and for at least 5 years after the date of publication” (APA Publishing Policies, August 2023, https://www.apa.org/pubs/journals/resources/publishing-policies). (Note that data retention requirements vary for other journals and for different state laws, federal regulations, funding sources, and institutional policies.)

Question 27

When providing psychotherapy to employees through their company’s employee assistance program (EAP), psychologists should let the employees know that:
A. they will not release any confidential information to the employees’ supervisors without the employees’ authorization to do so.
B. they can provide the employees’ supervisors with confidential information only if the supervisors referred them to the EAP.
C. the only information they can release to the employees’ supervisors without the employees’ authorization is that they’re receiving therapy through the EAP.
D. the only information they can release to the employees’ supervisors is information directly related to their work-related activities.

Answer 27

A. they will not release any confidential information to the employees’ supervisors without the employees’ authorization to do so.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-09 Answer A is correct. Clients of EAPs have the same right to confidentiality as other therapy clients do, and they should be reassured that confidential information will not be shared with their supervisors or employers without their authorization.

Question 28

Studies using functional neuroimaging techniques have found that which of the following areas of the brain is essential for prospective memory?
A. ascending reticular activating system
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. prefrontal cortex
D. hippocampus

Answer 28

C. prefrontal cortex

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Memory and Sleep-16 Answer C is correct. Prospective memory is memory for things that must be done in the future (e.g., remembering that you have to pick up a friend at the airport at 10 am next Saturday). Studies using functional neuroimaging techniques have found that activity in the prefrontal cortex increases when individuals perform prospective memory tasks. See, e.g., I. Mommenejad and J. D. Haynes, Human anterior prefrontal cortex encodes the “what” and “when” of future intentions, Neuroimage, 61(1), 139-148, 2012.

Question 29

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations regarding sexual relationships with supervisees?
A. Sexual relationships with supervisees over whom psychologists have evaluative authority are prohibited.
B. Sexual relationships with supervisees may be acceptable under the “most unusual circumstances.”
C. Sexual relationships with current and former supervisees are prohibited under any circumstances.
D. Sexual relationships with current (but not former) supervisees are prohibited.

Answer 29

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations regarding sexual relationships with supervisees?
A. Sexual relationships with supervisees over whom psychologists have evaluative authority are prohibited.
B. Sexual relationships with supervisees may be acceptable under the “most unusual circumstances.”
C. Sexual relationships with current and former supervisees are prohibited under any circumstances.
D. Sexual relationships with current (but not former) supervisees are prohibited.

Question 30

Hovland and Sears (1940) found that, as the market price for cotton decreased between 1882 and 1930 in the Deep South, the number of lynchings of African American men increased. This result is best predicted by which of the following?
A. deindividuation
B. the ultimate attribution error
C. social identity theory
D. scapegoat theory

Answer 30

Hovland and Sears (1940) found that, as the market price for cotton decreased between 1882 and 1930 in the Deep South, the number of lynchings of African American men increased. This result is best predicted by which of the following?
A. deindividuation
B. the ultimate attribution error
C. social identity theory
D. scapegoat theory

Question 31

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 31

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Question 32

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 32

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Question 33

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 33

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Question 34

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 34

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Question 35

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 35

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Question 36

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 36

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Question 37

Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.

Answer 37

CORRECT ANSWER

D. 24; 12

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Bipolar and Depre

Question 38

_____________ is the appropriate method for combining scores on several selection tests when a high score on one or more tests can compensate for a low score on another test.
A. Multiple correlation
B. Multiple hurdle
C. Multiple regression
D. Multiple cutoff

Answer 38

C. Multiple regression

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-06 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is a compensatory method for combining predictor scores that involves weighting each predictor on the basis of its correlations with the other predictors and with the criterion and then combining the weighted predictor scores to obtain an estimated criterion score. This makes it possible for a high score on one or more predictors to compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple hurdle and multiple cutoff are noncompensatory methods.

Question 39

C. Multiple regression

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-06 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is a compensatory method for combining predictor scores that involves weighting each predictor on the basis of its correlations with the other predictors and with the criterion and then combining the weighted predictor scores to obtain an estimated criterion score. This makes it possible for a high score on one or more predictors to compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple hurdle and multiple cutoff are noncompensatory methods.

Answer 39

B. intimacy and loyalty

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. Damon’s three stages of friendship are handy playmate (ages 4 to 7 years), mutual trust and assistance (8 to 10 years), and intimacy and loyalty (11+ years). Intimate and mutually shared relationships and mature friendships are the last two friendship stages identified by Selman (1981).

Question 40

To teach young nonspeaking children with autism spectrum disorder to communicate verbally, Lovaas (1987) used which of the following?
A. stimulus control and chaining
B. differential reinforcement and overcorrection
C. self-instructional training and positive reinforcement
D. discrimination training and shaping

Answer 40

D. discrimination training and shaping

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-01 Answer D is correct. Lovaas (1987) developed an intensive program for young children with autism that incorporated a variety of behavioral techniques. Discrimination training and shaping were two of the techniques he used to teach the children to communicate verbally.

Question 41

A parent who is using positive reinforcement to establish a desirable behavior in her child will switch from a continuous schedule of reinforcement to an intermittent schedule in order to reduce the risk for:
A. habituation.
B. satiation.
C. experimental neurosis.
D. fading.

Answer 41

B. satiation.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Operant Conditioning-08 Answer B is correct. Satiation occurs when a reinforcer is no longer reinforcing because the person is satiated (no longer desires the reinforcer). Switching from a continuous schedule to an intermittent schedule once the behavior is occurring at the desired level helps reduce the risk for satiation.

Question 42

B. satiation.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Operant Conditioning-08 Answer B is correct. Satiation occurs when a reinforcer is no longer reinforcing because the person is satiated (no longer desires the reinforcer). Switching from a continuous schedule to an intermittent schedule once the behavior is occurring at the desired level helps reduce the risk for satiation.

Answer 42

A. female leaders are rated as more effective in feminine work settings, while male leaders are rated as more effective in masculine work settings.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Leadership-18 Answer A is correct. The studies suggest that, overall, men and women do not differ in perceived leader effectiveness. There’s evidence, however, that female leaders tend to be rated as more effective in traditionally feminine situations while male leaders tend to be rated as more effective in traditionally masculine situations (Eagly, Karau, & Makhijani, 1995).

Question 43

The utterance of single consonant-vowel combinations (e.g., “ba”) ordinarily begins at about ____ months of age and includes __________.
A. 3 to 6; sounds from various languages
B. 3 to 6; sounds from their caregivers’ languages only
C. 6 to 9; sounds from various languages
D. 6 to 9; sounds from their caregivers’ languages only

Answer 43

A. 3 to 6; sounds from various languages

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Language Development-08 Answer A is correct. Babbling emerges between 3 and 6 months of age and initially involves the repetition of single vowel-consonant combinations (e.g., “ba” and “ga”) and includes sounds from different languages, even sounds that do not occur in the language of the baby’s caregivers.

Question 44

Which of the following are evidence-based treatments for postpartum depression?
A. cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy
B. acceptance and commitment therapy and physical exercise
C. cognitive-behavioral therapy and repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation
D. interpersonal psychotherapy and repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

Answer 44

A. cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders–18 Answer A is correct. Cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy are evidence-based treatments for postpartum depression, especially postpartum depression with mild to moderate symptoms. Physical exercise and repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation have been found to have beneficial effects for this disorder, but they are not considered to be evidence-based treatments.

Question 45

Research has found that the relationship between stepparents and their stepchildren tend to be most problematic when remarriage occurs when the children are in:
A. elementary school.
B. middle school.
C. early adolescence.
D. late adolescence.

Answer 45

C. early adolescence.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-School and Family Influences-24 Answer C is correct. Hetherington (1993) and others have found that early adolescence is a particularly difficult time for remarriage to occur. One reason is that early adolescents are starting to deal with normal early adolescent issues; another reason is that adolescence is a time when problems related to earlier parental divorce increase or first emerge.

Question 46

A child explores the use of a block by banging it against the tray on his highchair, using it to push another block across the tray, and dropping it while sitting in his high chair. As described by Piaget, this is an example of which of the following?
A. primary circular reaction
B. secondary circular reaction
C. coordination of secondary circular reactions
D. tertiary circular reaction

Answer 46

D. tertiary circular reaction

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Cognitive Development-11 Answer D is correct. Piaget described the substages of the sensorimotor stage as including primary, secondary, and tertiary circular reactions. Tertiary circular reactions emerge between 12 and 18 months of age and involve exploring the properties of objects by, for example, using it to move another object and seeing what happens to it when it’s dropped.

Question 47

Which of the following best describes a psychologist’s ethical obligations with regard to the use of automated test scoring and interpretation services?
A. Psychologists who use these services are responsible for the validity of the conclusions they derive from them.
B. The providers of these services are responsible for ensuring that users are able to derive accurate conclusions from the information they provide.
C. The use of automated test scoring and interpretation services is discouraged by ethical guidelines.
D. The use of automated test scoring and interpretation is explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines.

Answer 47

A. Psychologists who use these services are responsible for the validity of the conclusions they derive from them.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-23 Answer A is correct. The use of automated scoring and interpretation services is not discouraged or prohibited by ethical guidelines, and their validity is directly addressed in Standard 9.09(c) of the APA Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Standard II.3 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.09(c) states that “psychologists retain responsibility for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of assessment instruments, whether they score and interpret such tests themselves or use automated or other services.” And Standard II.3 states that psychologists “accept responsibility for the consequences of their actions.”

Question 48

The research has found that suicide attempters with low levels of __________ metabolites in their cerebrospinal fluid are at higher risk than those with higher levels for repeated suicide attempts and completed suicide.
A. serotonin
B. glutamate
C. epinephrine
D. acetylcholine

Answer 48

A. serotonin
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-10 Answer A is correct. The link between low levels of serotonin and an increased risk for repeated suicide attempts and completed suicide has been confirmed by a number of studies, including those that measured serotonin metabolites in the cerebrospinal fluid. See, e.g., J. J. Mann et al., Can biological tests assist prediction of suicide in mood disorders?, International Journal of Neuropsychopharmacology, 9(4), 465-474, 2006.

Question 49

The parents of 10-year-old Corey bring him to therapy at the recommendation of his school counselor who is concerned about his increasing oppositional behavior and failing grades. You decide that you will initially see Corey in individual therapy. To be consistent with ethical requirements you will do which of the following?
A. obtain written consent from Corey’s parents and verbal assent from Corey as soon as possible
B. obtain written consent from Corey’s parents as soon as possible and verbal assent from Corey after establishing a therapeutic relationship with him
C. obtain written consent from Corey after establishing a therapeutic relationship with him
D. obtain written or verbal consent from Corey’s parents as soon as possible

Answer 49

A. obtain written consent from Corey’s parents and verbal assent from Corey as soon as possible
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-27 Answer A is correct. Obtaining informed consent from Corey’s parents and assent from Corey is consistent with the requirements of Standard 3.10 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.34 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, and obtaining consent and assent as soon as possible is consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.19 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. For example, Standard 3.10 requires that, for people who aren’t legally capable of giving consent, psychologists seek their assent and permission from a legally authorized person, while Standard 10.01(a) requires psychologists to obtain informed consents “as early as is feasible.”

Question 50

To compare the effectiveness of two brief treatments for social anxiety disorder, you obtain a sample of individuals who have received this diagnosis, determine the severity of each subject’s social anxiety, match the subjects in pairs based on the severity of their symptoms, and randomly assign one member of each pair to one of the treatments and other member to the other treatment. To compare the scores subjects in the two groups receive on a measure of symptom severity after they receive treatment, you will use which of the following?
A. t-test for correlated samples
B. t-test for uncorrelated samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. single-sample chi-square test

Answer 50

A. t-test for correlated samples
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer A is correct. The first steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are to identify the independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study’s independent variable is type of treatment and the dependent variable is score on a measure of severity of anxiety following treatment. More specifically, the dependent variable is score on a measure of symptom severity and, for the exam, you can assume that scores represent an interval or ratio scale. This means that a statistical test will be used to compare the mean scores obtained by two groups. The t-test and two-way ANOVA are both used to compare mean scores but, because there are only two means, the t-test is the appropriate test. To determine which t-test to use, you determine how the means were obtained: In this study, they were obtained from related groups (from groups that consist of subjects who were matched in terms of initial symptom severity). The t-test for correlated samples is the appropriate test when two means are obtained from the same group or from two groups that are related in some way.

Question 51

When you assess the validity of a test, you are assessing its:
A. accuracy.
B. consistency.
C. utility.
D. precision.

Answer 51

A. accuracy.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-05 Answer A is correct. A test is valid to the extent that it accurately measures what it was designed to measure, and the different methods for evaluating a test’s validity are different methods for assessing accuracy.

Question 52

Compared to effectiveness research on psychotherapy outcomes, efficacy research has:
A. better internal and external validity.
B. better internal validity but worse external validity.
C. worse internal validity but better external validity.
D. worse internal and external validity.

Answer 52

B. better internal validity but worse external validity.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-21 Answer B is correct. Efficacy research is conducted in highly controlled conditions and, as a result, has good internal validity; however, the results have limited external validity because they can’t be generalized to less well-controlled conditions. In contrast, effectiveness research is conducted in conditions that are similar to situations in which therapy actually occurs and has limited internal validity due to limited experimental control but tends to have better external validity.

Question 53

Research has found that electrical stimulation of different areas of the ___________ in cats and other animal species produces different types of aggressive behavior.
A. hypothalamus
B. medulla oblongata
C. cingulate gyrus
D. hippocampus

Answer 53

A. hypothalamus
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-04 Answer A is correct. Various areas of the hypothalamus have been linked to different types of aggressive behavior in several animal species. For example, research with cats has found that electrical stimulation of the medial hypothalamus usually produces affective attack behavior, while electrical stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus produces stalking attack behavior. See, e.g., M. Wasman and J. P. Flynn, Directed attack elicited from the hypothalamus, Archives of Neurology, 6, 208-219, 1962.

Question 54

A new selection test has ____________ validity when adding it to the existing selection procedure increases decision-making accuracy.
A. convergent
B. discriminant
C. incremental
D. criterion-related

Answer 54

C. incremental
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-07 Answer C is correct. Incremental validity refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy that occurs when a new selection technique is added to the existing selection procedure.

Question 55

The prototype/willingness model (Gibbons & Gerard, 1995) defines a “prototype” as:
A. a person’s image of the “ideal self.”
B. a person’s image of the “typical” person who engages in a specific behavior.
C. a knowledge structure that provides guidelines for solving complex problems.
D. a knowledge structure that organizes information about oneself and the world.

Answer 55

B. a person’s image of the “typical” person who engages in a specific behavior.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-04 Answer B is correct. According to the prototype/willingness model, a person’s willingness to engage in a behavior depends on the person’s perceived acceptability of the behavior that, in turn, is determined by the person’s prototype (social image) of people who engage in that behavior.

Question 56

According to Tuckman and Jensen’s (1977) five-stage model, the development of commitment to a group and willingness to talk about issues and concerns is characteristic of the:
A. performing stage.
B. norming stage.
C. forming stage.
D. implementing stage.

Answer 56

B. norming stage.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-10 Answer B is correct. Tuckman and Jensen’s model distinguishes between five stages of group development: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. The norming stage is characterized by the growth of group cohesion and commitment; attempts to resolve conflicts and other issues that arose during the storming stage; and the establishment of rules, procedures, and group norms.

Question 57

Dr. Liu, a licensed psychologist, is asked by a local television station if she would be interested in participating in a 10-minute segment every week during the Monday morning news show. The station would like her to present a four- to five-minute summary of a different mental health issue each week and then respond to emails and calls from viewers for the remaining time. If Dr. Liu accepts the offer to participate in the program, she:
A. will have acted unethically unless she limits the information she provides to general advice about mental health issues.
B. will have acted unethically unless she makes sure that viewers understand that her responses to their emails and calls do not establish a therapeutic relationship.
C. will have acted unethically unless she chooses which emails or calls she will respond to.
D. will have acted unethically under any circumstances.

Answer 57

B. will have acted unethically unless she makes sure that viewers understand that her responses to their emails and calls do not establish a therapeutic relationship.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-15 Answer B is correct. This situation is directly addressed in Standard 5.04 of the APA Ethics Code and indirectly in Standard III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. In this situation, a psychologist would want to make sure that viewers understand that a professional therapeutic relationship is not established when he/she responds to their questions and that his/her advice does not constitute therapy.

Question 58

The subtests of the WAIS-IV have a mean of ___ and standard deviation of ___.
A. 5; 1
B. 10; 3
C. 12; 5
D. 15; 5

Answer 58

B. 10; 3
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-05 Answer B is correct. The WAIS-IV full-scale and index scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, and the individual subtests have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of 3.

Question 59

A practitioner of narrative family therapy will focus on:
A. each member’s contribution to the presenting problem.
B. each member’s beliefs about solutions to the presenting problem.
C. how family interactions are supporting the presenting problem.
D. how the presenting problem has affected the family.

Answer 59

D. how the presenting problem has affected the family.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-14 Answer D is correct. Narrative family therapy is based on the assumption that the presenting problem is the problem. Consequently, therapy involves obtaining a description of the problem from family members, separating the family from the problem by externalizing it, and determining how the problem has affected family members.

Question 60

When Milgram (1974) asked psychiatrists to predict how many “teachers” would obey the experimenter’s order to deliver the highest levels of shock to the “learner,” the psychiatrists predicted that __________ would do so.
A. 1 in 10
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 500
D. 1 in 1,000

Answer 60

D. 1 in 1,000
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-08 Answer D is correct. Before conducting his initial studies, Milgram asked a group of psychiatrists to predict how many subjects would be willing to deliver the highest levels of shock, and they predicted that only a “pathological fringe” of 1 in 1,000 would do so.

Question 61

Which of the following is an evidence-based family treatment for young children with conduct disorder or other disruptive behavior disorder and has also been found to be effective for children with a history of maltreatment?
A. functional family therapy
B. family focused therapy
C. problem-solving skills training
D. parent-child interaction therapy

Answer 61

D. parent-child interaction therapy
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders–15 Answer D is correct. Of the treatments listed in the answers, only parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) is an effective treatment for families that include a young child with conduct disorder or other disruptive behavior disorder and has also been found effective for children who have experienced or are at risk for experiencing physical or emotional abuse. Functional family therapy (answer A) is for families that include an older child or adolescent who has an externalizing behavior disorder and/or substance use problem or is at high risk for delinquency. Family focused therapy (answer B) is a family intervention for bipolar disorder. Problem-solving skills training (answer C) is for older children and adolescents who have disruptive behavior problems.

Question 62

Esther likes her new roommate and loves to play golf. When Esther learns that her roommate loathes golf, she will be motivated to change her attitude toward her roommate or toward golf. This outcome is predicted by:
A. cognitive dissonance theory.
B. the elaboration likelihood model.
C. social judgment theory.
D. balance theory.

Answer 62

D. balance theory.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-05 Answer D is correct. Heider’s (1958) balance theory focuses on the relationships among three elements: the person (P), another person (O), and an attitude object or event (X). It predicts that the relationships among these elements can be either balanced or unbalanced and that an unbalanced situation causes discomfort, which the person (P) will be motivated to change. The situation described in this question is unbalanced, and Esther will be motivated to establish balance by changing her attitude toward her roommate or toward golf.

Question 63

Research has found that exposure to repetitive pain in early infancy:
A. does not cause discomfort or alter future pain sensitivity.
B. causes discomfort but has no effect on future pain sensitivity.
C. causes discomfort and decreases future pain sensitivity.
D. causes discomfort and increases future pain sensitivity.

Answer 63

D. causes discomfort and increases future pain sensitivity.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Physical Development-05 Answer D is correct. The studies have found that exposure to severe or repetitive pain during early infancy increases future sensitivity to pain and is associated with other adverse consequences (e.g., learning and behavioral problems in childhood). See, e.g., A. Mitchell and B. J. Boss, Adverse effects of pain on the nervous system of newborns and young children: A review of the literature, Journal of Neuroscience Nursing, 34, 228-235, 2002.

Question 64

Conducting a utility analysis for a new selection test would be useful for:
A. estimating the positive hit rate when the test is added to the current selection procedure.
B. determining the likelihood that use of the test will have an adverse impact on members of racial/ethnic minority groups.
C. obtaining information on the return on investment that can be expected when the test is used to hire job applicants.
D. estimating the degree to which an actual criterion adequately assesses the ultimate criterion.

Answer 64

C. obtaining information on the return on investment that can be expected when the test is used to hire job applicants.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-09 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to obtain information on the monetary value (return on investment) of a selection test, training program, or other employment practice.

Question 65

Of the core characteristics of the Type A behavior pattern, ________ has been most closely linked to an increased risk for heart disease and other health problems.
A. hostility
B. competitiveness
C. time urgency
D. cynicism

Answer 65

A. hostility
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer A is correct. As described by Friedman and Rosenman (1959), the Type A behavior pattern is characterized by a chronic sense of time urgency, excessive competitiveness, and hostility. Of these, hostility is most associated with an increased risk for heart disease and other health problems.

Question 66

A high level of expressed emotion has been linked to:
A. an increased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
B. an increased risk for relapse for schizophrenia but not for major depressive disorder.
C. a decreased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
D. a decreased risk for relapse for major depressive disorder but not for schizophrenia.

Answer 66

A. an increased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-06 Answer A is correct. Expressed emotion refers to the emotional responses of family members to a member with a mental disorder and is characterized by conflict, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement. It has been linked to an increased risk for relapse for individuals with schizophrenia, depression, and several other mental disorders. See, e.g., R. L. Butzlaff and J. M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, JAMA Psychiatry, 55(6), 547-552, 1998.

Question 67

Dr. Crosby, a licensed psychologist, wants to take two weeks off next month from her full-time private practice to spend time with her father who lives alone and will be having hip replacement surgery. With regard to her current therapy clients, Dr. Crosby’s best course of action is to:
A. let her clients know about her plans and arrange to conduct their sessions on the phone or Internet during her absence.
B. give her clients the phone number of a colleague who is willing to accept their calls and see them in case of an emergency.
C. let her clients know about her plans as soon as she finalizes them so they have time to process her absence before she leaves.
D. explain to her clients that she is leaving because of a family emergency and reassure them that they’ll be okay without her for two weeks.

Answer 67

B. give her clients the phone number of a colleague who is willing to accept their calls and see them in case of an emergency.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-07 Answer B is correct. Standard 3.12 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.33 of the Canadian Code of Ethics address the interruption of services in a general way, and it’s up to psychologists to determine the best course of action. Since Dr. Crosby’s absence is going to be relatively brief, the best action of those described in the answers would be to discuss it with clients immediately and provide them with the phone number of a colleague whom they can contact in case of an emergency. Note that answer A is not the best answer because psychologists may, of course, take time off from work and it’s not likely that Dr. Crosby would be able to keep all of her appointments while caring for her father.

Question 68

The DSM-5 diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder requires the presence of delusions or hallucinations for at least _____ weeks without symptoms of a major depressive or manic episode.
A. eight
B. six
C. four
D. two

Answer 68

D. two
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-05 Answer D is correct. Schizoaffective disorder involves concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and a major depressive or manic episode for most of the duration of the illness, but with the presence of delusions or hallucinations for two or more weeks without mood symptoms.

Question 69

Consistent with evolutionary theory, the research has generally found that:
A. men tend to be more upset by a partner’s sexual infidelity, while women tend to be more upset by a partner’s emotional infidelity.
B. men tend to be more upset by a partner’s emotional infidelity, while women tend to be more upset by a partner’s sexual infidelity.
C. men and women are both more upset by a partner’s sexual infidelity than emotional infidelity.
D. men and women are both more upset by a partner’s emotional infidelity than sexual infidelity.

Answer 69

A. men tend to be more upset by a partner’s sexual infidelity, while women tend to be more upset by a partner’s emotional infidelity.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-12 Answer A is correct. Buss, Larsen, Westen, and Semmelroth (1992) found that a partner’s sexual and emotional infidelity elicit jealousy from both men and women, but that men respond more strongly to sexual infidelity, while women respond more strongly to emotional infidelity.

Question 70

Dr. King teaches classes on neuropsychology and conducts research on neurological correlates of aging at a large university. In her introductory neuropsychology class, she covers only research on aging that’s produced results that are similar to her own studies. In terms of the requirements of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, this is:
A. acceptable.
B. acceptable as long as Dr. King is willing to answer students’ questions about contradictory research.
C. acceptable because it’s up to Dr. King to decide what information to present in her classes.
D. unacceptable.

Answer 70

D. unacceptable.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-19 Answer D is correct. This issue is addressed in Standard 7.03 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which both require psychologists to present instructional information in an accurate and unbiased manner.

Question 71

Studies using functional neuroimaging techniques have linked obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) to increased activity in the:
A. reticular formation.
B. basal ganglia.
C. hypothalamus.
D. thalamus.

Answer 71

B. basal ganglia.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-02 Answer B is correct. Research has found that people with OCD have increased activity in the basal ganglia (especially the caudate nucleus), the orbitofrontal cortex, and the anterior cingulate gyrus. See, e.g., S. Rauch et al., Regional cerebral blood flow during symptom provocation in obsessive-compulsive disorder using oxygen 15-labeled carbon dioxide and positron emission tomography, Archives of General Psychiatry, 51, 62-70, 1994.

Question 72

A psychotherapist is careful not to overuse traditional Western psychotherapeutic interventions with clients from cultural minority groups because she believes that culture impacts psychiatric symptoms and responses to interventions. This therapist has adopted which of the following perspectives?
A. autoplastic
B. alloplastic
C. etic
D. emic

Answer 72

D. emic
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-24 Answer D is correct. A therapist who has an etic perspective believes that culture has little or no impact on diagnosis and treatment, while a therapist who has an emic perspective believes that culture affects how psychological symptoms are experienced and expressed and how clients respond to therapeutic interventions.

Question 73

A psychologist routinely administers a measure of clinical symptomology to most of his clients, who are young and middle-aged adults. Several older adults have been recently referred to him, but the measure he routinely uses has little or no information about its validity for members of this population. With regard to ethical requirements:
A. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients as long as alternative measures are unavailable.
B. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients if alternative measures are unavailable and he explains the possible limitations of its results to the clients.
C. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients as long as he obtains informed consents from the clients before doing so.
D. it would be unacceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients under any circumstances.

Answer 73

B. it would be acceptable for the psychologist to administer this measure to older clients if alternative measures are unavailable and he explains the possible limitations of its results to the clients.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-24 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.02(b) states that, when the reliability and validity of the tests they use haven’t been established for members of the population being tested, psychologists “describe the strengths and limitations of test results and interpretations.” And Standard III.8 requires psychologists to acknowledge the limitations of their findings.

Question 74

__________ theory predicts that a worker’s motivation is affected by the comparisons the worker makes between his or her input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of workers doing the same or a similar job.
A. Expectancy
B. Equity
C. Goal-setting
D. Two-factor

Answer 74

B. Equity
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Theories of Motivation-22 Answer B is correct. Equity theory (Adams, 1965) attributes a worker’s level of motivation to social comparisons and proposes that workers compare their own input/outcome ratios to the input/outcome ratios of other workers doing the same or a similar job. When workers perceive the ratios to be about equal, they feel satisfied and are motivated to maintain the status quo.

Question 75

To confirm a diagnosis of intellectual disability for a nine-year-old child, you would administer the SB5 or other measure of intelligence along with which of the following?
A. Halstead-Reitan
B. Vineland-3
C. Bayley Scales
D. CogAT7

Answer 75

B. Vineland-3
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Clinical Tests-11 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of intellectual disability requires the presence of deficits in both intellectual and adaptive functioning. The Vineland-3 is a measure of adaptive functioning.

Question 76

Anna just started college and is certain that students in her classes already think she’s stupid even though they’re nice to her and a few have attempted to become friends. For a practitioner of Beck’s cognitive-behavior therapy, Anna’s conclusion is an example of which of the following?
A. personalization
B. emotional reasoning
C. arbitrary inference
D. selective abstraction

Answer 76

C. arbitrary inference
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-16 Answer C is correct. Arbitrary inference is one of the cognitive distortions identified by Beck. It occurs when a person draws a conclusion without having evidence to support it.

Question 77

Which of the following would be useful for assessing the intelligence of a 26-year-old who has limited English proficiency?
A. Cognitive Assessment System
B. Cognitive Abilities Test
C. Kaufman Assessment Battery
D. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices

Answer 77

D. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-08 Answer D is correct. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices (SPM) is a measure of nonverbal intelligence for individuals 6 years of age and older. Because instructions are simple and can be pantomimed, it’s useful for examinees who have hearing or speech impairments, physical disabilities, or limited English proficiency.

Question 78

A psychology professor at a large university has just developed a new screening test for depression and wants to compare scores on her test to scores on the Beck Depression Inventory and two other measures of depressive symptoms. She will do so by having a sample of adults who have and have not received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder complete the four measures. If the professor hires psychology graduate students to administer the measures to participants, this will be:
A. unacceptable since graduate students are unqualified to do so.
B. acceptable as long as the students will administer (but not score or interpret) them.
C. acceptable as long as the students have completed at least one course in psychological assessment.
D. acceptable as long as the students are provided with training in administering the measures and relevant ethical guidelines.

Answer 78

D. acceptable as long as the students are provided with training in administering the measures and relevant ethical guidelines.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-03 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to delegate to others only work they’re competent to perform. In the situation described in this question, this would include ensuring that the students administering the tests have adequate training in test administration and relevant ethical requirements.

Question 79

With regard to leadership style, which of the following is the best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of consideration and initiating structure on job outcomes?
A. A high level of consideration is more important than a high level of initiating structure for both satisfaction and performance.
B. A high level of initiating structure is more important than a high level of consideration for both satisfaction and performance.
C. A high level of consideration is more important for satisfaction, while a high level of initiating structure is more important for performance.
D. A high level of consideration is more important for performance, while a high level of initiating structure is more important for satisfaction.

Answer 79

C. A high level of consideration is more important for satisfaction, while a high level of initiating structure is more important for performance.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Leadership-17 Answer C is correct. Judge, Piccolo, and Ilies’s (2004) meta-analysis of the research on leadership style found that a high level of consideration was more strongly related to subordinate satisfaction and motivation, while a high level of initiating structure was more strongly related to leader and group performance

Question 80

In the context of factor analysis, “orthogonal” means:
A. statistically significant.
B. statistically insignificant.
C. uncorrelated.
D. correlated.

Answer 80

C. uncorrelated.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-07 Answer C is correct. The factors extracted (identified) in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal or oblique. Orthogonal factors are uncorrelated, and oblique factors are correlated.

Question 81

In the context of Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, satisfactoriness is the result of the correspondence between the worker’s:
A. interests and the characteristics of the job.
B. vocational identity and ego identity.
C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job.
D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.

Answer 81

D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Career Choice and Development-13 Answer D is correct. As defined by Dawis and Lofquist, satisfactoriness is the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is determined by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.

Question 82

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations regarding the release of test data and other client information to adult clients?
A. Psychologists must always release a client’s test results to the client when asked to do so.
B. Psychologists must always release a client’s test results to the client unless not doing so was discussed during the informed consent process.
C. Psychologists may refuse to release a client’s test results to the client when they believe that doing so may cause imminent serious physical harm to the client.
D. Psychologists may refuse to release a client’s test results to the client when they believe the client is not capable of understanding them.

Answer 82

C. Psychologists may refuse to release a client’s test results to the client when they believe that doing so may cause imminent serious physical harm to the client.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-25 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.04 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.04(a) states that “psychologists may refrain from releasing test data to protect a client/patient or others from substantial harm or misuse or misrepresentation of the data or the test, recognizing that in many instances release of confidential information under these circumstances is regulated by law.” And Standard I.45 states that psychologists may refrain from sharing confidential information “in circumstances of possible imminent serious bodily harm.” Note that answer D is not the best answer because a client’s lack of understanding of test results does not necessarily mean that releasing the results to the client will result in serious harm.

Question 83

The suprachiasmatic nucleus controls the sleep-wake cycle by triggering changes in the release of __________ by the pineal gland.
A. ACTH
B. melatonin
C. serotonin
D. cortisol

Answer 83

B. melatonin
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-03 Answer B is correct. The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) controls the sleep-wake cycle by receiving information about available light from the eyes and triggering changes in the pineal gland’s secretion of melatonin, a hormone that facilitates sleep. During the day, the SCN signals the pineal gland to reduce its secretion of melatonin; during the night, it signals the pineal gland to increase its secretion of melatonin.

Question 84

The administration of the SB5 begins with two routing subtests, which are:
A. picture absurdities and verbal absurdities.
B. procedural knowledge and vocabulary.
C. object series/matrices and vocabulary.
D. procedural knowledge and verbal analogies.

Answer 84

C. object series/matrices and vocabulary.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-04 Answer C is correct. The two routing subtests (object series/matrices and vocabulary) are used to determine the appropriate entry level for the other subtests.

Question 85

The personnel committee at a school of professional psychology has decided to deny Dr. Valdez a promotion because one of his clinic clients recently filed an ethics complaint against him. The client’s complaint claims that Dr. Valdez breached the client’s confidentiality by revealing information she told him in individual therapy during a group therapy session without her permission to do so. With regard to ethical requirements, the committee’s decision is:
A. acceptable since Dr. Valdez’s breach of confidentiality clearly violates ethical requirements.
B. acceptable only if the committee reconsiders Dr. Valdez’s promotion if he’s acquitted of the ethics charge.
C. unacceptable if the decision to deny Dr. Valdez’s promotion was based solely on the pending ethics complaint.
D. unacceptable if Dr. Valdez had not been given an opportunity to defend himself to the personnel committee before the decision was made.

Answer 85

C. unacceptable if the decision to deny Dr. Valdez’s promotion was based solely on the pending ethics complaint.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer C is correct. This answer is consistent with Standard 1.08 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 1.08 directly addresses this situation and states that psychologists must not “deny persons employment, advancement, admissions to academic or other programs, tenure, or promotion, based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.” And Standard I.13 indirectly addresses this situation and requires psychologists to “abide by due process and other natural justice procedures for employment, evaluation, adjudication, editorial, and peer review activities.”

Question 86

Drugs that reduce __________ activity in certain areas of the brain have been found useful for suppressing tics.
A. serotonin
B. dopamine
C. glutamate
D. GABA

Answer 86

B. dopamine
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-03 Answer B is correct. Knowing that antipsychotic drugs are used to treat tic disorders and that they exert their therapeutic effects by blocking dopamine receptors would have helped you identify dopamine as the correct answer to this question.

Question 87

A GABA agonist:
A. reduces the inhibitory effects of GABA.
B. enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA.
C. reduces the excitatory effects of GABA.
D. enhances the excitatory effects of GABA.

Answer 87

B. enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-11 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that GABA is always an inhibitory neurotransmitter and that an agonist mimics or enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter. Therefore, a GABA agonist enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA.

Question 88

When acting as a fact witness in a legal proceeding, psychologists:
A. cannot offer their opinions about a defendant’s mental state.
B. can offer their opinions about a defendant’s mental state as long as they have personally evaluated the defendant.
C. can offer their opinions about a defendant’s mental state only if they have adequate training and experience to do so.
D. can provide relevant factual information and opinions about a defendant’s mental state.

Answer 88

A. cannot offer their opinions about a defendant’s mental state.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-28 Answer A is correct. Fact witnesses testify about the facts (what they have observed), while expert witnesses offer opinions.

Question 89

When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix to evaluate a test’s validity, the matrix provides evidence of the test’s __________ validity when scores on the test have low correlations with scores on tests that measure unrelated constructs.
A. differential
B. incremental
C. convergent
D. divergent

Answer 89

D. divergent
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-06 Answer D is correct. The multitrait-multimethod matrix provides information on a test’s convergent and divergent validity which, in turn provide information on the test’s construct validity. A test has convergent validity when it has high correlations with tests that measure the same or related constructs, and it has divergent validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure unrelated constructs.

Question 90

____________ refers to the tendency of a group to make more extreme decisions than would be made by individual group members working alone.
A. Social loafing
B. Group polarization
C. Social facilitation
D. Groupthink

Answer 90

B. Group polarization
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-20 Answer B is correct. Group polarization is the tendency for an entire group to make more risky or more cautious decisions than individual group members would make alone.

Question 91

Sue and Sue (2015) argue that most Western approaches to the practice of clinical psychology reflect a worldview that’s characterized by:
A. an internal locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility.
B. an internal locus of control and an external locus of responsibility.
C. an external locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility.
D. an external locus of control and an external locus of responsibility.

Answer 91

A. an internal locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-23 Answer A is correct. Sue and Sue describe worldview in terms of two dimensions – locus of control and locus of responsibility. They argue that most Western approaches to therapy reflect an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility – i.e., they’re based on the assumption that people can improve their lives by taking responsibility for their own actions.

Question 92

Implosive therapy uses which of the following to eliminate a fear response to an object or situation?
A. classical extinction
B. counterconditioning
C. stimulus control
D. higher-order conditioning

Answer 92

A. classical extinction
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-06 Answer A is correct. Implosive therapy is based on the assumption that the object or situation that elicits a fear response is a conditioned stimulus and presenting the object or event without the unconditioned stimulus results in extinction of the conditioned (fear) response.

Question 93

A heritability estimate for a particular trait is most useful for understanding the extent to which:
A. an individual’s status with regard to that trait is due to genetic versus environmental factors.
B. variability in the trait in a given population is due to genetic versus environmental factors.
C. genetic and environmental factors influence each other to produce phenotype.
D. genetic factors limit the effects of environmental factors on phenotype.

Answer 93

B. variability in the trait in a given population is due to genetic versus environmental factors.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-02 Answer B is correct. A heritability estimate indicates the extent to which variability in phenotype in a given population is attributable to differences in genotype. Because it applies to a population, it cannot be used to determine the extent to which an individual’s status with regard to a particular trait is due to genetic versus environmental influences.

Question 94

People who have received which of the following diagnoses may express some unhappiness about not having any close friends but avoid developing relationships due to anxiety related to suspiciousness about the motivations of other people?
A. schizotypal personality disorder
B. avoidant personality disorder
C. borderline personality disorder
D. schizoid personality disorder

Answer 94

A. schizotypal personality disorder
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-PPA-Personality Disorders-30 Answer A is correct. One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for schizotypal personality disorder is excessive social anxiety that’s related to “paranoid fears.” In addition, the DSM-5 notes that people with schizotypal personality disorder “may express unhappiness about their lack of relationships, [but] their behavior suggests a decreased desire for intimate contacts” (p. 656).

Question 95

Ainsworth and her colleagues used the “strange situation” to study:
A. emotions in babies.
B. attachment in babies.
C. emotions in adolescents.
D. parenting styles of adults.

Answer 95

B. attachment in babies.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-18 Answer B is correct. Ainsworth and her colleagues (Ainsworth, Blehar, Waters, & Wall, 1978) used the “strange situation” to study attachment in babies one to two years of age. It involves observing an infant during several brief episodes in which they’re separated and reunited with their mothers.