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CT Cross Training > ASRT Exam 4 > Flashcards

ASRT Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The CT detectors, rapid signal decay means that the detector is:

A

Able to quickly measure transmitted X-ray photons with limited afterglow.

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2
Q

Rapid signal decay allows CT detectors to what?

A

They allow to quickly measure transmitted X-ray photons with an insignificant amount of afterglow. The rapid signal decay enables the detector array to have an efficient response time & adequate recovery before subsequent measurements are taken.

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3
Q

To improve visualization of intramural structures on a CT scan of the spine after a myelogram:
A. Roll the patient once or twice before scanning to mix settled contrast.
B. Administer IV contrast with an injection rate of 5-7 mL/s.
C. Delay the follow-up CT scan for 8 hours after injection of contrast material.
D. Patient should ingest barium sulfate 30 minutes before the scan.

A

A - roll the pt once or twice before scanning to mix settled contrast.

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4
Q

Which of the following is located within the mediastinum?
A. Descending aorta.
B. Inferior fissure.
C. Lung apices.
D. Parenchyma.

A

A - Descending aorta.

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5
Q

What organs are located within the mediastinum?

A

Descending aorta, thymus gland, trachea, esophagus, heart, and great vessels.

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6
Q

Which of the following is true for a multi-physic CT scan of the abdomen to evaluate the pancreas?
A. IV contrast is injected at 1 mL/sec.
B. The study is completed without contrast.
C. Thick slices with gaps are used for post-processed images such as MPR and 3-D images.
D. Scans are completed in the late arterial & portal venous phases.

A

D - Scans are completed in the late arterial & portal venous phases.

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7
Q

What is a common to use to evaluate for possible stones in the pancreas?

A

3 to 5 mL/s injection rate or occasionally a noncontrast study.

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8
Q

What kind of post-processing should be used for the pancreas?

A

3-D or MPR, thin, overlapping slices.

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9
Q

__________ is a physical property of IV contrast media defined as the number of particles per unit of liquid.

A

Osmolality.

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10
Q

A __________ high-resolution CT (HCRT) of the chest is optimal for evaluating interstitial lung disease involving dependent areas of the lung (such as asbestosis).

A

Prone inspiration.

The prone position of an HRCT of the lung is optimal for evaluating pathology such as asbestosis, as it can differentiate abnormalities in the dependent portions of the lung.

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11
Q

A CT scan of the temporal bone and internal auditory canal (IAC) for suspected fracture uses all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Thin slices.
B. A small DFOV.
C. Intravenous contrast media.
D. A bone algorithm

A

C - Intravenous contrast media.

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12
Q

What imaging plane is parallel to the foot’s plantar surface?
A. Direct axial.
B. Oblique axial.
C. Coronal.
D. Sagittal.

A

A - Direct axial.

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13
Q

__________ has an Osmolality equal to that of blood.

A

Isomolar contrast media.

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14
Q

The adrenal glands are part of the __________ system.

A

Endocrine.

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15
Q

In a single-slice CT scanner, pre-patient collimation is used to:
A. Remove the low energy X-rays from the beam.
B. Harden the X-ray beam.
C. Ensure the X-ray beam is the proper width.
D. Increase the amount of scatter radiation that hits the detectors.

A

C - Ensure the X-ray beam is the proper width.

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16
Q

In a single-slice CT scanner, pre-patient collimation is used to ensure the X-ray beam is at the proper __________.

A

WIDTH.

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17
Q

The display field of view (DFOV) for a CT series can be changed by using:
A. Reconstructed data.
B. Raw data.
C. Image data.
D. Multiplanar reformation.

A

C - Image Data.

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18
Q

In a CT examination of the spinal cord with contrast enhancement, the contrast is introduced in the:

A

Subarachnoid space.

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19
Q

Which pulse is measured behind the patients knee?

A

Popliteal pulse.

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20
Q

The forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over the lower is called __________, and is commonly caused by degenerative changes.

A

Spondylolisthesis.

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21
Q

CT image quality is evaluated in terms of:

A

Spatial resolution and contrast resolution.

It is very important for a CT scanner to be able to differentiate small, high contrast objects, which defines its spatial resolution. Equally important is the contrast resolution, which is the ability of the scanner to differentiate between objects with similar densities compared to their background.

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22
Q

Which of the following CT studies would require informed consent from the pt?
A. Noncontrast brain scan.
B. High-resolution chest CT.
C. CT of the lower extremity.
D. CT guided abscess drainage.

A

D - CT guided abscess drainage.

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23
Q

The annual whole body dose limit for radiation workers is:

A

50 mSv per year.

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24
Q

For a Ct of the thoracic spine, which of the following is a typical display field of view (DFOV)?
A. 15 cm.
B. 25 cm.
C. 35 cm.
D. 44 cm.

A

A - 15 cm.

15 cm (possibly down to 10 cm), is a typical DFOV for the t spine.

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25
Q

What radiation dose measurement uses weighted factors to account for tissue radio sensitivity?
A. Effective dose.
B. Air Kerma.
C. Absorbed dose.
D. Equivalent dose.

A

A - Effective dose.

Different tissues & organs in the body have various levels of radio sensitivity. The effective dose uses a tissue weighting factor to account for these differences, and is measured in Sv or rem.

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26
Q

Effective Dose

A

Different tissues & organs in the body have various levels of radio sensitivity. The effective dose uses a tissue weighting factor to account for these differences, and is measured in Sv or rem.

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27
Q

The falciform ligament extends from the liver to the:

A

Anterior abdominal wall & diaphragm.

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28
Q

A blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg indicates:

A

Hypertension.

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29
Q

The Osmolality of iodinated contrast media refers to the:

A

Number of miliosmoles per kilogram of water.

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30
Q

The amount of blood (in mL) that moves through 100g of brain tissue each minute is the:

A

Cerebral blood flow (CBF).

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31
Q

What is the normal range for Cerebral blood flow (CBF)?

A

50 to 60 mL/100g/min.

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32
Q

Which of the following can be used to relax the smooth muscles of arteries & veins to treat the sudden onset of angina pain?
A. Nitroglycerin.
B. Epinephrine.
C. Atropine.
D. Diazepam.

A

A - Nitroglycerin.

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33
Q

What is the typical scan range for a CT soft tissue neck with contrast to evaluate for swollen glands?

A

From the superior orbital rim through the lung apices.

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34
Q

All of the following are typical post-processing images created during a CTA carotids exam, EXCEPT:
A. Sagittal Multiplanar reconstruction (MPR).
B. Minimum intensity projection (minIP).
C. Volume rendering.
D. Coronal Multiplanar reconstruction (MPR).

A

B - Minimum intensity projection (minIP).

That type of post-processed image displays the MINIMUM PIXEL VALUES and is more useful for evaluating anatomy such as the lung, trachea, or biliary tree.

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35
Q

Which of the following body types will require the highest radiographic technique for imaging?
A. Sthenic.
B. Hyposthenic.
C. Asthenic.
D. Hypersthenic.

A

D - Hypersthneic.

Hyper = large patient and will require more radiographic exposure.

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36
Q

With all other factors remaining constant, which of the following would decrease a patients radiation dose during a helical CT examination?
A. Increasing mAs.
B. Decreasing source-detector distance.
C. Increasing pitch.
D. Decreasing DFOV.

A

C - Increasing Pitch.

Increasing pitch = table moves faster through gantry = less time = less radiation.

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37
Q

Which of the following CT brain examinations would be the most suitable to evaluate the circle of Willis?
A. CT without contrast.
B. Brain perfusion.
C. CT venography (CTV).
D. CT angiography (CTA).

A

D - CT angiography (CTA).

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38
Q

What does brain perfusion refer to?

A

Refers to the level of blood flow throughout the brain tissue.

39
Q

What is cerebral blood volume (CBV)?

A

The quantity of blood (in mL) contained within a 100-g volume of brain tissue.
Normal range is 4 to 5 mL/100 g.

40
Q

What is cerebral blood flow (CBF)?

A

The quantity of blood (mL) that moves through 100 g of brain issue each minute.
Normal range in gray matter is 50 to 60 mL/100 g/min.

41
Q

What is mean transit time (MTT)?

A

The average transit time, in seconds, for blood to pass through a given region of brain tissue. MTT varies according to the distance traveled between arterial inflow & venous outflow for a particular area.

42
Q

Formula for central volume principle?

A

CBF = CBV / MTT.

Cerebral blood flow = cerebral blood volume / means transit time

43
Q

__________ reduces the amount of streak or star-like artifacts observed when using the back-projection method during CT image reconstruction.

A

Filtered back-projection.

Filtered back-projection is designed to overcome the limitations of a traditional back projection & reduce the amount of streak or star-like artifacts on CT images.

44
Q

What technique is used to evaluate the upper and lower urinary tract in the excretory phase, as well as during as many as four phases?
A. CT venography (CTV).
B. CT renal artery protocol.
C. CT renal stone protocol.
D. CT urography (CTU).

A

D - CT Urography.

45
Q

Which of the following factors will NOT affect the spatial resolution of a CT scan?
A. Sampling frequency.
B. KVp setting.
C. Scanner geometry.
D. Detector cell size.

A

B - kVp setting.

46
Q

Which of the following lab values is useful in evaluating and diagnosing a suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
B. Prothrombin time (PT).
C. D-dimer.
D. Creatinine.

A

C - D-dimer.

47
Q

The __________ phase of the liver enhancement is optimal for the evaluation of hypovascular lesions such as metastases that develops from primary tumors of the colon.

A

Portal venous.

The portal venous phase is optimal for the evaluation of hypovascular lesions or pathology such as liver Mets that develops for example from primary tumors of the colon, pancreas, prostate and lung.

48
Q

The target material used in the anode of a CT X-ray tube is made of:

A

Tungsten.

49
Q

All of the following are common CT findings in acute appendicitis, EXCEPT:
A. Dilated non-opacified appendix.
B. Soft tissue stranding into adjacent periappendiceal fat.
C. Non-visible appendix.
D. Appendicitis.

A

C - Non-visible appendix.

50
Q

What type of reconstruction algorithm best emphasizes the differences between adjacent pixels?
A. Smoothing algorithm.
B. Standard algorithm.
C. Bone algorithm.
D. Soft tissue algorithm

A

C - Bone algorithm.

Bone algorithm, also called edge enhancement, high spatial reconstruction, or a detail filter is best for displaying bony anatomy and accentuates the variances between adjacent pixels.

51
Q

To reduce beam hardening artifacts:

A

Filter out low energy photons.

52
Q

Which of the following factors does NOT affect contrast resolution?
A. Laser light accuracy.
B. Noise.
C. Detector collimation.
D. Algorithm Selection.

A

A - Laser light accuracy.

53
Q

CT scanner manufacturers use ___________ to report radiation dose to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

A

CTDI.

Computed tomography dose Index (CTDI) is reported to the FDA by manufacturers concerning average doses delivered from each CT scanner.

54
Q

Which of the following types of contrast media would pose the greatest risk to patients during a CTA procedure?
A. Iopamidol (Isovue).
B. Iodixanol (Visipaque).
C. Megulmine Iothalamate (Conray).
D. Iohexol (Omnipaque).

A

C - Meglumine iothalamate (Conray).

High-Osmolar contrast media (HOCM) such as meglumine iothalamate (Conray) is rarely used for intravascular injections due to its higher Osmolality and association with increased rates of adverse reactions.

55
Q

Which of the following is a pathology that requires IV contrast to evaluate?
A. Asthma.
B. Cystic fibrosis.
C. Lung mass.
D. Sarcoidosis.

A

C - Lung mass.

56
Q

To decrease iodinated contrast media viscosity, the technologist should:

A

Store the contrast bottles in a warmer.

57
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of a post-contrast saline bolus during cardiac CT?
A. Increased ECG gating quality.
B. Decreased scan time.
C. Reduced streak artifacts in the superior vena cava.
D. Increased pts heart rate.

A

C - Reduce streak artifacts in the superior vena cava.

58
Q

A typical scan delay for a routine CT of the chest after injection of IV contrast is:

A

35 Seconds.

59
Q

On a CT pelvis with IV contrast, the optimal scan delay to visualize possible bladder filling defects related to bladder cancer is:

A

5 minutes.

60
Q

The __________ data acquisition mode moves the bed through the CT gantry while the X-ray tube and detector array remains stationary.

A

Scout.

A scout image is acquired with the table moving through the CT gantry while the X-ray tube & detector array remains stationary.

61
Q

Which of the following diastolic blood pressure readings would indicate hypotension?
A. 50 mm Hg.
B. 70 mm Hg.
C. 90 mm Hg.
D. 110 mm Hg.

A

A - 50 mm Hg.

62
Q

While performing a CT scan of the lumbar spine, a pts knees may be placed over a cushion to:
A. Decrease the kyphotic curve of the thoracic spine.
B. Improve pt comfort by alleviating lower back pressure.
C. Increase the lordotic curve of the lumbar spine.
D. Reduce the pts ability to freely move.

A

Improve patient comfort by alleviating lower back pressure.

63
Q

When taking a pts temperature, which of the following sites will yield a lower temperature than the others?
A. Axillary.
B. Rectal.
C. Tympanic.
D. Oral.

A

A - Axillary.

64
Q

A __________ Multiplanar reformation (MRP) is best suited for tubular structures & is generated using data points chosen by the technologist.

A

Curved.

65
Q

The average CT number assigned for air is approximately:

A

-1000.

66
Q

Which of the following controls kinetic energy of projectile electrons as they travel from the cathode to the anode for X-ray production?
A. mA.
B. Scan time.
C. Pitch.
D. KVp.

A

D - kVp.

67
Q

Which of the following abdominal structures is intraperitoneal?
A. Transverse colon.
B. Urinary bladder.
C. Pancreas.
D. Ureters.

A

A - Transverse colon.

Transverse colon is an interaperitoneal organ (within the peritoneal cavity).

68
Q

The urinary bladder is a ______________ organ.

A

Infraperitoneal (beneath the peritoneal cavity).

69
Q

The pancreas and utters are ___________ (location).

A

Retroperitoneal (located between the peritoneum and the posterior abdominal wall).

70
Q

Which of the following is a useful communication habit for healthcare workers?
A. Use false assurances to improve patient compliance.
B. Assume that non responsive pts can hear everything you say.
C. Speak to pts using abbreviations when possible.
D. Speak to elderly pts similarly to children.

A

B - Assume that non responsive pts can hear everything you say.

71
Q

In-plane contact shields that are designed to protect radiosensitive organs during CT scans are made of:

A

Bismuth.

72
Q

During a CT scan of the neck, the automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) will typically increase the mAs from:

A

The lower neck through the shoulders.

73
Q

The portion of the uterus that enhances brightest with iodinated contrast media is the:
A. Myometrium.
B. Perimetrium.
C. Endometrium.
D. Fimbriae.

A

A - Myometrium

The Myometrium is highly vascular & enhances brightly after administration of iodinated contrast media.

74
Q

Faulty or out-of-calibration detector elements produce:

A

Ring artifacts.

75
Q

In a CT scanner, gas detectors are composed of:

A

Xenon.

76
Q

What is the main benefit of using a split-bolus injection technique for a CT of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast?
A. A higher kVp technique can be used.
B. A manual mA setting can be used.
C. Reduced radiation dose to the pt.
D. Increased pitch can be used.

A

C - Reduced radiation dose to the pt.

77
Q

The viscosity of iodinated contrast media refers to the:

A

Thickness or resistance of flow of the contrast media.

78
Q

Image reconstruction from raw data that automatically generates an image during a CT scan is called:
A. Retrospective reconstruction.
B. Multiplanar reformation.
C. Volume rendering.
D. Prospective reconstruction.

A

D - Prospective reconstruction.

Image reconstruction from raw data that automatically generates an image during a CT scan is referred to as prospective reconstruction.

79
Q

DICOM stands for:

A

Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine.

80
Q

The function of the data-acquisition system (DAS) is to:

A

Measure & digitize the number of X-ray photons that strike the detectors.

81
Q

What is the beam pitch for a CT exam using a 16-slice MDCT system with a table feed per rotation of 30 mm and total collimation of 20 mm?

A

1.5.

On MDCT: beam pitch = table feed per rotation / total collimation (total number of sections x section width).

82
Q

During a chest CT with contrast, streaking artifact stemming from concentrated IV contrast will be seen in the:

A

Superior vena cava.

83
Q

All of the following are phases of tissue enhancement after injection of contrast, EXCEPT:
A. Bolus.
B. Equilibrium.
C. Nonequillibrium.
D. Post-equilibrium.

A

D - Post-equilibrium.

84
Q

A normal adult prothrombin time (PT) value should be in the range of:

A

12-15 seconds.

85
Q

A CT coronary calcium screening procedure is useful in evaluating:

A

Artery calcification.

86
Q

Which of the following techniques could be used to decrease beam-hardening artifacts when scanning the posterior fossa?
A. Increasing mAs setting.
B. Decreasing slice thickness.
C. Increasing SFOV.
D. Apply a soft-tissue reconstruction algorithm.

A

B. Decreasing slice thickness.

87
Q

Which of the following changes can be made without using the raw CT data?
A. Altering image centering.
B. Adjusting the WW and WL settings.
C. Increasing DFOV.
D. Applying a bone algorithm.

A

B. Adjusting the WW and WL settings.

The WW & WL setting can be altered WITHOUT raw CT data b/c only display settings are changed!!

88
Q

How is the PACS used in the radiology department?

A

Storing & Retrieving medical images.

89
Q

Which of the following CT exams provides 3-D imaging of the tracheobronchial tree?
A. HRCT chest.
B. CTA chest.
C. CT bronchography.
D. Noncontrast CT chest.

A

C. CT bronchography.

90
Q

Which CT QA phantom is used to measure spatial resolution?
A. Slice thickness phantom.
B. Spinning top phantom.
C. Variable density phantom.
D. Line pairs phantom.

A

D. Line pairs phantom.

91
Q

What is the most common method of positioning a pt for a CT of the shoulder?

A

Unaffected arm raised above the head & the affected arm at side.

92
Q

The __________ corresponds to the longitudinal plane & determines the thickness of a cross-sectional axial slice.

A

Z-axis.

93
Q

Which of the following is an enteral route of medication administration?
A. Intravenous.
B. Subcutaneous.
C. Intramuscular.
D. Sublingual.

A

D. Sublingual.

Enteral administration involves the mouth & alimentary canal which includes oral, sublingual, buccal, & rectal.

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