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1 - MICRO / PARA (DUMP) > LE 4 - Micro > Flashcards

LE 4 - Micro Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the pathogenesis of M. pneumoniae?

a. Attachment is mediated by a specific adhesin protein on the differentiated terminal structure of the organism
b. M. pneumoniae is transmitted by infectious secretion of the genitourinary tract
c. Infection is initiated by attachment of the organisms’ tip to a receptor on the surface of respiratory epithelial cells
d. M. pneumoniae remain extracellular during infection

A

a. Attachment is mediated by a specific adhesin protein on the differentiated terminal structure of the organism

M. pneumoniae attaches to respiratory epithelial cells via a specific adhesin protein located on a differentiated terminal organelle, initiating infection.

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2
Q
  1. Water organisms which produce superficial skin lesions

a. M. fortinatum
b. M. marinum
c. M. ulcerans
d. AOTA

A

D. All of the choices are correct

All listed Mycobacterium species can cause superficial skin lesions and are associated with water or aquatic environments.

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3
Q
  1. This is the most rapid sensitive and specific method of identification of mycobacteria

a. Acid fast staining
b. Molecular probe
c. Culture
d. NOTA

A

b. Molecular probe
Molecular probes are rapid, sensitive, and specific for identifying mycobacteria, offering advantages over traditional methods like acid-fast staining and culture.

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4
Q
  1. Intact cell-mediated immunity

a. Tuberculoid
b. Lepromatous

A

a. Tuberculoid
Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by a strong cell-mediated immune response, which limits the spread of the disease and results in fewer lesions.

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5
Q
  1. Characterized by pale anesthetic macular lesions or diffuse erythematous infiltrated nodules

a. M. leprae
b. M. marinum
c. M. tuberculosis
d. M. ulcerans

A

a. M. leprae
M. leprae, the causative agent of leprosy, can cause pale anesthetic macular lesions in the tuberculoid form or diffuse erythematous infiltrated nodules in the lepromatous form.

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6
Q
  1. The identification of Mycoplasma isolates can be done through different tests. Which one would not be ideal in identifying Mycoplasma isolates?

a. Immunofluorescence
b. Growth inhibition
c. Intradermal inoculation test
d. Cold agglutination test

A

d. Cold agglutination test
The cold agglutination test, primarily used for diagnosing Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections by detecting antibodies in the blood, is not ideal for directly identifying Mycoplasma isolates.

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7
Q
  1. A mycobacterium which is scotochromogen which produces chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children

a. M. avium Complex
b. M. scrofulaceum
c. M. ulcerans
d. M. kansasii

A

b. M. scrofulaceum
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum is known to cause chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children and is a scotochromogen.

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8
Q

This type of mycobacterial lesion produces the chronic granuloma

a. Exudative type
b. Productive type
c. Both
d. NOTA

A

b. Productive type

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following cause postpartum fever?

a. M. genitalium
b. M urealyticum
c. M. pomimoniae
d. M. hominis

A

d. M. hominis
Mycoplasma hominis can be associated with postpartum fever, among other infections of the genitourinary tract.

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10
Q
  1. Positive lepromin test

a. Tuberculoid type
b. Lepromatous type

A

a. Tuberculoid type
A positive lepromin test indicates a strong cell-mediated immune response, characteristic of the tuberculoid type of leprosy.

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11
Q
  1. The etiologic agent of Endemic typhus

a. Rickettsia prowazekki
b. Rickettsia typhi
c. Rickettsia rickettsii
d. Rickettsia conorii

A

b. Rickettsia typhi
Rickettsia typhi is the causative agent of endemic typhus, also known as murine typhus.

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12
Q
  1. The etiologic agent of Scrub typhus

a. Orientia tsutsugamushi
b. Ricketttsia akari
c. Coxiella burnetii
d. Ehrlichia ewingii

A

a. Orientia tsutsugamushi
Orientia tsutsugamushi causes scrub typhus, transmitted by the bite of infected chiggers.

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13
Q
  1. Vector of Rickettsia typhi
    a. Humans
    b. Rodents
    c. Mice
    d. Dogs
A

b. Rodents
Rodents are the primary reservoirs of Rickettsia typhi, with fleas serving as the vector to humans.

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14
Q
  1. Rickettsiae are not destroyed by heat, drying, and bacterial chemicals
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False
Rickettsiae are relatively fragile organisms outside of the host or vector and can be destroyed by heat, drying, and certain chemical agents.

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15
Q
  1. Disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsii
    a. Rickettsial pox
    b. Siberian tick typhus
    c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
    d. Scrub typhus
A

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, a tick-borne illness.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Ehrlichia and ehrlichiosis is most correct?
    a. Dogs and mice are reservoirs.
    b. Mosquitoes are the vectors.
    c. Ampicillin is the treatment of choice.
    d. Culture is a good method to confirm the diagnosis.
    e. Ehrlichia are typically found in lymphocytes.
A

e. Ehrlichia are typically found in lymphocytes.
Ehrlichia species infect white blood cells, including lymphocytes and monocytes, depending on the species.

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17
Q
  1. The most useful drug to treat ehrlichiosis is
    a. Doxycycline
    b. Penicillin G
    c. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole
    d. Gentamicin
    e. Nitrofurantoin
A

a. Doxycycline
Doxycycline is the treatment of choice for ehrlichiosis in adults and children of all ages.

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18
Q
  1. The recommended treatment for Q-fever endocarditis is

a. Emergent surgery; antibiotics are not effective
b. Levofloxacin monotherapy for 6 weeks
c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine
d. Penicillin and gentamicin combination therapy using IgG titers to determine duration

A

c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine
Long-term combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine is recommended for Q-fever endocarditis.

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19
Q
  1. Coxiella burnetii can be transmitted by milk when animals such as goats and cows are infected. The presently recommended conditions of “high-temperature, short-time” pasteurization are adequate to destroy viable Coxiella organisms.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True
High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization is effective in destroying Coxiella burnetii in milk.

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20
Q

10.Reasons why C. burnetii could be a potential agent of bioterrorism include

a. It is acquired by the inhalation.
b. It is highly infectious.
c. It can be difficult to treat depending on the phase of infection.
d. Pneumonia may be severe.
e. All of the above.

A

e. All of the above.
C. burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, is considered a potential bioterrorism agent due to its high infectivity via inhalation, difficulty in treatment in certain phases, and the potential for severe pneumonia.

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21
Q
  1. Chlamydia pneumoniae pneumonia most resembles infection caused which of the following organisms?

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Chlamydia trachomatis
e. Rhinovirus

A

b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae pneumonia often presents with symptoms similar to those caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, including a gradual onset of symptoms and a persistent cough.

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22
Q
  1. Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn

a. Is a mucopurulent conjunctivitis that occurs 7–12 days after delivery
b. Is caused by Chlamydia psittaci
c. Is a result of exposure to pet birds in the home
d. Is treated with systemic penicillin because it may progress to pneumonia
e. None of the above

A

a. Is a mucopurulent conjunctivitis that occurs 7–12 days after delivery
Inclusion conjunctivitis in newborns is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and typically presents 7–12 days after birth.

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23
Q
  1. The diagnostic method of choice for Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia in the newborn is
    a. A nucleic acid amplification test that targets the ompA gene
    b. Culture of respiratory secretions in McCoy cells or other cell lines
    c. Enzyme immunoassay testing of respiratory secretions
    d. IgG antibodies detected by complement fixation
A

b. Culture of respiratory secretions in McCoy cells or other cell lines

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24
Q
  1. All of the following statements about perinatal Chlamydia trachomatis infections are correct except:

a. Between 15% and 40% of infants born to infected women develop inclusion conjunctivitis.
b. Between 10% and 20% of infants born to infected women develop infant pneumonia.
c. The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is 1–2 days.
d. The incubation period for infant pneumonia is typically 2–12 weeks.
e. Ocular prophylaxis with erythromycin or tetracycline for neonatal Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection is generally not effective against neonatal Chlamydia trachoma is infection.
f. Infant pneumonia caused by Chlamydia trachomatis often presents with a staccato cough.

A

c. The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is 1–2 days.
The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is longer, typically 5–14 days after birth, not 1–2 days.

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25
Q
  1. An adolescent girl came to the clinic because of a new and unusual vaginal discharge. She had recently become sexually active and had two new partners during the previous month. On pelvic examination, a purulent discharge was seen at the opening of her endocervical canal. Which of the following statements about this patient is most correct?

a. A serologic test for syphilis is not indicated because her
symptoms are not those of syphilis.
b. A Gram stain of her endocervical specimen would show
Chlamydia trachomatis inside polymorphonuclear cells.
c. The differential diagnosis includes infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, or both.
d. The endocervical specimen should be analyzed for herpes simplex.
e. Initial treatment is with ampicillin.

A

c. The differential diagnosis includes infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, or both.
Given the symptoms and recent sexual activity, the differential diagnosis should include both Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis, as these are common causes of cervicitis with purulent discharge.

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26
Q
  1. The following statements about trachoma are correct except
    a. It follows chronic or recurrent eye infection with Chlamydia trachomatis.
    b. Millions of people worldwide have trachoma.
    c. Trachoma is readily prevented by a chlamydial vaccine.
    d. Progression of trachoma can be slowed by intermittent treatment with azithromycin.
    e. Trachoma involves scarring of the conjunctiva, eyelid deformities, and eyelash injury to the cornea.
A

c. Trachoma is readily prevented by a chlamydial vaccine.
There is currently no vaccine available for trachoma; prevention focuses on the SAFE strategy (Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, and Environmental improvement).

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27
Q
  1. The serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis generally can be divided into groups representing their clinical infections and anatomic site infected. Which of the following statements about the C trachomatis serovars is most correct?

a. There is no immunologic cross-reaction between Chlamydia trachomatis serovars A, B, Ba, and D and the Chlamydia pneumoniae serovar.
b. Serovars L1, L2, and L3 are associated with lymphogranuloma venereum.
c. The same Chlamydia trachomatis serovars are associated with blinding trachoma and sexually transmitted infections.
d. The antibody titer rise seen beginning around 6–8 years follows infections with Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D–K.

A

b. Serovars L1, L2, and L3 are associated with lymphogranuloma venereum.
Serovars L1, L2, and L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis are specifically associated with lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), a sexually transmitted infection that can cause severe genital and lymphatic system damage.

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28
Q
  1. Ureaplasma urealyticum is so named because:
    a. It thrives in the upper urinary tract.
    b. It requires urea as a growth substrate.
    c. It is a frequent cause of symptomatic urinary bladder infections in young women.
    d. It causes chronic urinary tract infections in premature babies born to mothers with ureaplasmas as part of the genital flora.
A

b. It requires urea as a growth substrate.
Ureaplasma urealyticum is named for its ability to hydrolyze urea, which is a key part of its growth and metabolism.

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following is important in the pathogenesis of mycoplasmal infections?
    a. The peptidoglycan in the mycoplasmal cell wall
    b. The presence of lacto-N-neotetraose with a terminal galactosamine as the host cell receptor
    c. The structures and the interactive proteins that mediate adhesion to host cells
    d. The absence of cilia on the surface of the host cells
    e. Growth in an anatomic site where anaerobic organisms thrive
A

c. The structures and the interactive proteins that mediate adhesion to host cells.
The pathogenesis of mycoplasmal infections is significantly influenced by the structures and proteins that facilitate the organism’s adhesion to host cells, enabling colonization and disease progression.

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30
Q
  1. Initiation of infection by Mycoplasma pneumoniae begins with
    a. Elaboration of a polysaccharide capsule that inhibits phagocytosis
    b. Secretion of a potent exotoxin
    c. Endocytosis by ciliated respiratory epithelial cells
    d. Adherence to respiratory epithelial cells mediated by P1 adhesin
    e. Phagocytic uptake by alveolar macrophages
A

d. Adherence to respiratory epithelial cells mediated by P1 adhesin.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae initiates infection by adhering to respiratory epithelial cells, a process mediated by the P1 adhesin protein, which is critical for the pathogen’s ability to attach and cause disease.

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31
Q
  1. Infection with Mycoplasma genitalium:
    a. Is not restricted to the genitourinary tract. results in inflammation causing urethritis in males and cervicitis in females.
    b. Is best treated with first-generation cephalosporin.
    c. Is associated only with nongonococcal urethritis in males.
    d. Is asymptomatic unless a co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis is present.
A

a. Is not restricted to the genitourinary tract. results in inflammation causing urethritis in males and cervicitis in females.
While Mycoplasma genitalium is primarily associated with the genitourinary tract, causing conditions such as urethritis in males and cervicitis in females, it’s not exclusively restricted to these areas but is most commonly involved in these infections.

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32
Q
  1. The etiologic agent of Endemic typhus
    a. Rickettsia prowazekki
    b. Rickettsia typhi
    c. Rickettsia rickettsii
    d. Rickettsia conorii
A

b. Rickettsia typhi
Rickettsia typhi is the cause of endemic typhus, transmitted by fleas.

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33
Q
  1. The etiologic agent of Scrub typhus
    a. Orientia tsutsugamushi
    b. Ricketttsia akari
    c. Coxiella burnetii
    d. Ehrlichia ewingii
A

a. Orientia tsutsugamushi
Orientia tsutsugamushi causes scrub typhus, transmitted by chigger bites.

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34
Q
  1. Vector of Rickettsia typhi
    a. Humans
    b. Rodents
    c. Mice
    d. Dogs
A

b. Rodents
While rodents are the primary reservoir, the actual vector to humans is the flea that feeds on infected rodents.

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35
Q
  1. Rickettsiae are not destroyed by heat, drying, and bacterial chemicals
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False
Rickettsiae are relatively fragile outside of a host or vector and can be destroyed by heat, drying, and certain disinfectants.

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36
Q
  1. Disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsii
    a. Rickettsial pox
    b. Siberian tick typhus
    c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
    d. Scrub typhus
A

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, transmitted by ticks.

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Ehrlichia and ehrlichiosis is most correct?
    a. Dogs and mice are reservoirs.
    b. Mosquitoes are the vectors.
    c. Ampicillin is the treatment of choice.
    d. Culture is a good method to confirm the diagnosis.
    e. Ehrlichiae are typically found in lymphocytes.
A

e. Ehrlichiae are typically found in lymphocytes.
Ehrlichiae infect white blood cells, including lymphocytes and monocytes, depending on the species.

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38
Q
  1. The most useful drug to treat ehrlichiosis is
    a. Doxycycline
    b. Penicillin G
    c. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole
    d. Gentamicin
    e. Nitrofurantoin
A

a. Doxycycline
Doxycycline is the treatment of choice for ehrlichiosis in adults and children of all ages.

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39
Q
  1. The recommended treatment for Q-fever endocarditis is
    a. Emergent surgery; antibiotics are not effective
    b. Levofloxacin monotherapy for 6 weeks
    c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and
    hydroxychloroquine
    d. Penicillin and gentamicin combination therapy using IgG titers to determine duration
A

c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine
Long-term combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine is recommended for Q-fever endocarditis.

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40
Q
  1. Coxiella burnetii can be transmitted by milk when animals such as goats and cows are infected. The presently
    recommended conditions of “high-temperature, short-time”
    pasteurization are adequate to destroy viable Coxiella
    organisms.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True
High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization is effective in destroying Coxiella burnetii in milk.

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41
Q
  1. Reasons why C. burnetii could be a potential agent of
    bioterrorism include
    a. It is acquired by the inhalation.
    b. It is highly infectious.
    c. It can be difficult to treat depending on the phase of infection.
    d. Pneumonia may be severe.
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above.
C. burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, is considered a potential bioterrorism agent due to its high infectivity via inhalation, difficulty in treatment in certain phases, and the potential for severe pneumonia.

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42
Q
  1. This treponema causes Pinta
    A. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue
    B. T. pallidum subspecies endemicum
    C. T. pallidum subspecies pallidum
    D. T. pallidum subspecies carateum
A

D. T. pallidum subspecies carateum
Treponema pallidum subspecies carateum is the causative agent of Pinta.

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43
Q
  1. Conventional methods for identification of mycobacteria
    A. Molecular probe
    B. Observation of rate of growth
    C. High liquid chromatography
    D. Polymerase chain reaction
A

B. Observation of rate of growth
Traditional methods for identifying mycobacteria include observation of the rate of growth, pigmentation, and colony morphology. Molecular methods like PCR are more modern.

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44
Q
  1. Signs of congenital syphilis except
    A. Nodular skin lesions
    B. Saddle nose
    C. Periostitis
    D. Hutchinson’s teeth
A

A. Nodular skin lesions
Nodular skin lesions are not typically associated with congenital syphilis. Hutchinson’s teeth, saddle nose, and periostitis are classic signs.

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45
Q
  1. Causes rat bite fever
    A. Borellia burgdorferi
    B. Borellia refringens
    C. Borellia buccalis
    D. Spirillum minor
A

D. Spirillum minor
Spirillum minor is one of the causative agents of rat bite fever.

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46
Q
  1. This treponema causes yaws
    A. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue
    B. T. pallidum subspecies endemicum
    C. T. pallidum subspecies paliidum
    D. T. pallidum subspecies careteum
A

A. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue
Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue is responsible for yaws.

pertenue - yaws
endemicum - bejel
paliidum
careteum- pinta

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47
Q
  1. Transmitted by the Ixodes tick
    A. Borellia burgdoferi
    B. Leptospira
    C. Treponema
    D. NOTA
A

A. Borrelia burgdorferi
Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease, is transmitted by Ixodes ticks.

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48
Q
  1. This is a disease related to syphilis which is highly endemic in children producing ulcerating papules in arms and legs through direct contact
    A. Pinta
    B. Yaws
    C. Bejel
    D. NOTA
A

B. Yaws
Yaws is a disease caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue, characterized by ulcerating papules and nodules, mainly in children in tropical regions, spread through direct nonsexual contact.

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49
Q
  1. Target organ of Cytomegalovirus
    a. Glands
    b. Lymphoid tissue
    c. Neuron
    d. NOTA
A

b. Lymphoid tissue

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50
Q
  1. Morphology of virus particles immune electron microscopy
    a. Viral genome detection
    b. Antigen detection
    c. Electron Microscopy
    d. Light microscopy
A

c. Electron Microscopy
Electron microscopy is used to visualize the morphology of virus particles directly.

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51
Q
  1. Histological appearance inclusion bodies
    a. Viral genome detection
    b. Antigen detection
    c. Electron Microscopy
    d. Light microscopy
A

d. Light microscopy
Inclusion bodies, which are indicative of viral infection within cells, can be observed using light microscopy in histological sections.

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52
Q
  1. Viral receptor of Epstein-Barr Virus

A – Target cell: B cell (C3d complement receptor)
B – Target cell: epithelial cell (ICAM-1)

a. Only A is associated with the statement
b. Only B is associated with the statement
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B is associated with the statement

A

c. Both A and B
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) targets B cells using the CD21 (C3d complement receptor) and can also infect epithelial cells, where it uses different molecules such as ICAM-1 for attachment and entry.

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53
Q
  1. Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
    a. Viral genome detection
    b. Antigen detection
    c. Electron Microscopy
    d. Immunoassay
A

a. Viral genome detection
PCR and hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes are techniques used for the detection of viral genomes.

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54
Q
  1. Confirmation of the identity of the virus may be carried out using
    a. Neutralization
    b. Hemadsorption-inhibition
    c. Immunofluorescence tests
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA
All of the listed methods (neutralization, hemadsorption-inhibition, immunofluorescence tests) can be used for confirming the identity of a virus.

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55
Q

Importance of characterizing specific strains of mycobacteria
a. Trace transmission from one person to another
b. Analysis of outbreaks of tuberculosis
c. Demonstration of reactivation vs reinfection
d. All of the choices are correct

A

d. All of the choices are correct
Characterizing specific strains is crucial for tracing transmission, analyzing outbreaks, and distinguishing between reactivation and reinfection.

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56
Q
  1. A mycobacterium which is scotochromogen which produces chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children.
    a. Mycobacterium kansasii
    b. Mycobacterium ulcerans
    c. Mycobacterium Avium complex
    d. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
A

d. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum is a scotochromogen known to cause chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children.

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57
Q
  1. What do you call the abnormal inward growth of eyelashes associated with C. Trachomatis?
    a. Trichiasis
    b. Blepharitis
    c. Chalazion
    d. Trachoma
A

a. Trichiasis
Trichiasis is the term for the abnormal inward growth of eyelashes, which can be associated with chronic infection by Chlamydia trachomatis.

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58
Q
  1. Fried egg appearance on suitable agar media
    a. M. pneumonia
    b. M. hominis
    c. M. orale
    d. M. fermentans
A

B. M. hominis

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59
Q
  1. In the traditional classification system the pathogenic species of Leptospira
    a. Leptospira interrogans
    b. Leptospira biflexia
    c. Both
    d. None of the choices are correct
A

a. Leptospira interrogans
Leptospira interrogans is the pathogenic species traditionally recognized in the classification of Leptospira.

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60
Q
  1. C Psitacci is transmitted similar to mechanism of COVID 19 infection
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False
Chlamydophila psittaci, the agent of psittacosis, is primarily transmitted to humans through inhalation of dust contaminated by bird droppings, not exactly like the primary transmission mechanism of COVID-19, which is person-to-person through respiratory droplets.

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61
Q
  1. Lab diagnosis of c psitacci
    a. elisa
    b. complement fixation test
    c. blood culture
    d. clinical symptomatology
A

b. complement fixation test
The complement fixation test is one of the methods used for the laboratory diagnosis of C. psittaci infection.

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62
Q
  1. Treatment of C. psittaci
    a. Pfizer-BioNtech
    b. Amoxicillin
    c. Clindamycin
    d. Tetracycline
A

d. Tetracycline
Tetracycline or doxycycline is the treatment of choice for C. psittaci infection.

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63
Q

19.. C. pneumonia is usually associated with
a. atherosclerosis
b. COPD
c. Thyroid disorder
d. asthma

A

a. atherosclerosis
There is evidence suggesting an association between chronic Chlamydia pneumoniae infection and atherosclerosis.

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64
Q

L. monocytogenes
a. Complement fixation
b. Schilling test
c. Breath test
d. Anton test

A

d. Anton test
The Anton test, involving the observation of eye swelling in rabbits after inoculation with Listeria monocytogenes culture, is a historical method for diagnosing Listeriosis, but modern diagnostics rely more on culture and PCR.

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65
Q
  1. Rat bite fever
    a. Gardnerella
    b. Streptobacillus
    c. C.Trachomatis
    d. Donovania
A

b. Streptobacillus
Rat bite fever in North America is most commonly caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis.

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66
Q
  1. 50-65 percent of Reiter’s syndrome patients have this infection:
    a. Chlamydia
    b. Listeria
    c. Legionella
    d. Mycoplasma
A

a. Chlamydia
Reiter’s syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is often associated with a preceding Chlamydia infection.

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67
Q
  1. A 25 year old pregnant patient develops severe vomiting due to ingestion of poorly cooked meat. A gram stain of the meat sample showed gram positive bacilli. What antibiotic must be given?
    a. IV Aminoglycosides
    b. Levofloxacin
    c. Ampicillin
    d. Cefuroxime
A

c. Ampicillin
The description suggests listeriosis, caused by Listeria monocytogenes, for which ampicillin is the treatment of choice, especially in pregnant patients.

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68
Q
  1. Parrot fever
    a. C.tetani
    b. C.psittaci
    c. C.pneumonia
    d. C.trachomatis
A

b. C.psittaci
Parrot fever, or psittacosis, is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci.

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69
Q
  1. Bacterial Vaginosis
    a. Gardnerella
    b. C.trachomatis
    c. Flavobacterium
    d. Donovania
A

a. Gardnerella
Gardnerella vaginalis is associated with bacterial vaginosis, a condition characterized by an overgrowth of certain bacteria in the vagina.

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70
Q
  1. Conjunctivitis
    a. C.tetani
    b. C.psittaci
    c. C.pneumonia
    d. C.trachomatis
A

d. C.trachomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis can cause conjunctivitis, particularly inclusion conjunctivitis in newborns and adults.

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71
Q
  1. Post Gonococcal Urethritis
    a. Mycoplasma
    b. Listeria
    c. Chlamydia
    d. Legionella
A

c. Chlamydia
Post-gonococcal urethritis is often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, especially following or in conjunction with a gonococcal infection.

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72
Q
  1. Fluoroquinolone resistance is caused by:
    a. Mutation in DNA gyrase
    b. Deletion and mutation in the catalase-peroxidase gene
    c. Alteration in the beta subunit of RNA polymerase
    d. Alteration in ha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis
A

a. Mutation in DNA gyrase
Fluoroquinolone resistance often results from mutations in DNA gyrase (and topoisomerase IV in gram-positive bacteria), which are the target enzymes of fluoroquinolones.

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73
Q
  1. Known to cause Strep resistance
    a. Mutation in DNA gyrase
    b. Deletion and mutation in the
    catalase-peroxidase gene
    c. Mutations in genes encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA
    d. Alteration in ha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis
A

c. Mutations in genes encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA
Resistance in Streptococcus species (and many other bacteria) to antibiotics can be caused by mutations in genes encoding ribosomal proteins and rRNA, affecting the binding of antibiotics to the ribosome.

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74
Q
  1. The antigenic structure of spirochetes composed of 3 core proteins and a sheath protein.
    a. Cardiolipin
    b. Endoflagella
    c. Hyaluronidase
    d. Reagin
A

b. Endoflagella
The antigenic structure of spirochetes includes endoflagella (flagella-like structures located in the periplasmic space), which play a role in the motility and antigenicity of these organisms.

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75
Q
  1. Trachomatis has long lasting immunity
    a. true
    b. false
A

b. false
Immunity to Chlamydia trachomatis is not long-lasting, and individuals can be reinfected multiple times.

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76
Q
  1. Reactions to tuberculin except
    a. erythema
    b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units
    c. fever
    d. edema
A

b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units

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77
Q
  1. Method kills spirochetes except
    a. penicilln
    b. drying
    c. Dec temp of 37 degrees
A

c. Dec temp of 37 degrees
Decreasing the temperature to 37 degrees Celsius would not kill spirochetes; this is around the normal human body temperature where many pathogens, including spirochetes, thrive. Penicillin can kill spirochetes, and drying can also be detrimental to their survival.

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78
Q
  1. Intact cell mediated immunity
    a. tuberculoid
    b. lepromatous
A

a. tuberculoid
Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by a strong cell-mediated immune response, which helps to contain the spread of the disease and results in fewer lesions.

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79
Q
  1. L. monocytogenes
    a. Complement fixation
    b. Schilling test
    c. Breath test
    d. Anton test
A

d. Anton test
The Anton test is a classical method for demonstrating Listeria pathogenicity, typically involving the observation of conjunctivitis in rabbits after inoculation with the bacterium. However, in modern settings, the immunocompromised mouse pathogenicity test is more relevant for research and diagnostic purposes.

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80
Q
  1. An inanimate object that is capable of infecting and provide adequate environment for microorganism to multiply and reproduce.
    a. Host
    b. Reservoir host
    c. Definitive host
    d. Fomite
A

d. Fomite
A fomite is any inanimate object that can carry infectious organisms and thus transfer disease.

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81
Q
  1. Fluoroquinolone resistance is caused by:
    a. Deletion and mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene
    b. Alterations in INha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis
    c. Alteration in the beta subunit of RNA polymerase
    d. Mutation in the DNA gyrase
A

d. Mutation in the DNA gyrase
Fluoroquinolone resistance is primarily caused by mutations in DNA gyrase (and topoisomerase IV in gram-positive bacteria), which are the target enzymes of these antibiotics.

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82
Q

The mycobacterial strain is particularly resistant to first line anti-TB drugs and requires treatment for life
a. Mycobacterium avium complex
b. Mycobacterium kansasii
c. Mycobacterium leprae
d. None of the choices are correct

A

a. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals, can be difficult to treat and may require ongoing therapy. However, the notion of “treatment for life” generally applies to cases with severe immunodeficiency, such as advanced HIV, rather than to all MAC infections.

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83
Q

Cell mediated immunity is intact
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid

A

b. Tuberculoid
In tuberculoid leprosy, cell-mediated immunity is intact, leading to a more localized form of the disease with fewer lesions.

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84
Q

Severe asymmetric nerve involvement
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid

A

b. Tuberculoid
Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by severe asymmetric nerve involvement, leading to significant nerve damage and the potential for disability.

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85
Q

Deficient cell-mediated immunity
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid

A

a. Lepromatous
In lepromatous leprosy, there is a deficiency in cell-mediated immunity against Mycobacterium leprae, leading to widespread dissemination of the bacteria and numerous lesions.

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86
Q
  1. Congenital syphilis is transmitted vertically from mother to baby during?
    a. 2-28 weeks AOG
    b. 6-8 weeks AOG
    c. 10-15 weeks AOG
    d. 32- 36 AOG
A

c. 10-15 weeks AOG

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87
Q
  1. Growth characterisitics of spirochetes include the following except
    a. Microaerophilic
    b. Viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4c
    c. remains motile for 3-6 days at 25c
    d. grows in 1-4% oxygen
A

b. Viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4°C
Spirochetes are generally not viable for extended periods outside a host or specific culture conditions, making option (b) the least likely characteristic listed.

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88
Q
  1. Tertiary stage of syphillis is characterized by the following except?
    a. Gummas
    b. Aortitis
    c. degenerative changes in the CNS
    d. Condylomas
A

d. Condylomas

Condylomas, which are genital warts, are not typically associated with the tertiary stage of syphilis. The tertiary stage is more commonly characterized by gummas (soft, non-cancerous growths), aortitis (inflammation of the aorta), and degenerative changes in the central nervous system (CNS).

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89
Q
  1. Signs of congenital syphilis except:
    a. Hutchinson’s teeth
    b. Nodular skin lesions
    c. Saddlenose
    d. Periostitis
A

b. Nodular skin lesions

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90
Q
  1. Spirochetes produces this distinct antobody substance which gives positive flocculations tests
    a. Reagin
    b. Hyaluronidase
    c. Cardiolipin
    d. Lipids
A

a. Reagin

Spirochetes, including those that cause syphilis (Treponema pallidum), can produce a substance known as reagin, which can lead to positive flocculation tests like the Wassermann test or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test used for diagnosing syphilis.

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91
Q
  1. Main target for epstein barr virus
    a. B lymphocytes
    b. T lymphocytes
    c. Mononuclear cells
    d. Phagocytes
A

a. B lymphocytes
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) primarily targets B lymphocytes.

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92
Q
  1. Control of CMV inclusion disease involves the following except
    a. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines
    b. Isolation of newborns with generalized CMV inclusion diseases from other newborns
    c. Screening of transplant donors and recipients for CMV antibody
    d. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV
A

d. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV
While CMV immunoglobulin is used for prophylaxis and treatment in certain high-risk cases, the administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools for CMV is not a standard control measure for CMV inclusion disease.

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93
Q
  1. Core of double stranded DNA is composed of
    a. Tegument
    b. Protein coat
    c. nucleocapsid
    d. All of the choices are correct
A

d. All of the choices are correct

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94
Q
  1. Viruses range in size from approximately
    a. 1-25um
    b. 1-25nm
    c. 25-300um
    d. 300nm-1um
A

d. 300nm-1um

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95
Q

The envelope form of herpes virus measures
a. 120 nm
b. 140 nm
c. 150 nm
d. 160 nm

A

c. 150 nm
The envelope of herpesviruses typically measures around 150 nm in diameter.

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96
Q

Infects mostly young children
a. HSV2
b. HSV1
c. Both choices are correct
d. None of the choices are correct

A

b. HSV1
HSV1 (Herpes Simplex Virus 1) is more commonly associated with infections in young children, often leading to oral herpes or cold sores.

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97
Q

has animal vectors
a. HSV2
b. HSV1
c. All of the choices are correct
d. None of the choices is correct

A

d. None of the choices is correct
Neither HSV1 nor HSV2 is typically transmitted through animal vectors. These viruses are primarily transmitted through human-to-human contact.

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98
Q

Sexually transmitted
a. HSV1
b. HSV2
c. Both choices are correct
d. None of the choices are correct

A

b. HSV2

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99
Q

Infects mostly adults
a. HSV1
b. HSV2
c. Both
d. None of the choices are correct

A

b. HSV2

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100
Q

Manifest as cold sores
a. HSV1
b. HSV2
c. both
d. None of the above

A

a. HSV1

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101
Q
  1. Eczema herpeticum
    a. HSV1
    b. HSV2
    c. Both choices are correct
    d. None of the choices are correct
A

a. HSV1

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102
Q
  1. Associated with Herpetic whitlow
    a. None of the choices
    b. HSV1
    c. HSV2
    d. Both
A

d. Both

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103
Q
  1. Associated with herpes encephalitis
    a. None of the choices
    b. HSV1
    c. HSV2
    d. Both
A

b. HSV1

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104
Q
  1. associated with cutaneous herpes
    a. HSV1
    b. HSV2
    c. Both choices are correct
    d. None of the choices are correct
A

c. both choices are correct

Both HSV-1 (Herpes Simplex Virus type 1) and HSV-2 (Herpes Simplex Virus type 2) can cause cutaneous herpes, which refers to herpes infections of the skin. HSV-1 is more commonly associated with oral herpes, including cold sores or fever blisters, but it can also cause genital herpes. HSV-2 is more commonly associated with genital herpes, but it can also cause infections of the skin in other parts of the body.

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105
Q
  1. Which virus can produce non-neutralizing antibodies?
    a. Ebola Virus
    b. Influenza Virus
    c. Covid19 Virus
    d. None of the above
A

c. Covid19 Virus

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106
Q
  1. Which virus contains linear genome double-stranded DNA, non-segmented?
    a. Retrovirus
    b. Adenovirus
    c. Parvovirus
    d. Filovirus
A

b. Adenovirus

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107
Q
  1. Which virus can replicate in-vitro only?
    a. Epstein-Barr Virus
    b. Cytomegalovirus
    c. Varicella-Zoster Virus
    d. Human Herpes Virus
A

b. Cytomegalovirus

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108
Q

Which virus can usually be found in patients with proliferative disease?
a. Epstein-Barr Virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Varicella-Zoster Virus
d. Human Herpes Virus

A

d. Human Herpes Virus

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109
Q

Most Dangerous strain of Hepatitis Virus
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

A

d. Hepatitis D

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110
Q

Hepatitis strand with no heterologous immunity except:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

A

d. Hepatitis D

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111
Q
  1. Hepatitis strains with no homologous immunity
    a. Hepatitis A
    b. Hepatitis B
    c. Hepatitis C
    d. Hepatitis D
A

c. Hepatitis C

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112
Q
  1. Hepatitis strains with unknown immunity
    a. Hepatitis A
    b. Hepatitis B
    c. Hepatitis C
    d. Hepatitis D
A

d. Hepatitis D

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113
Q
  1. The following are double stranded DNA viruses, EXCEPT:
    a. Epstein barr virus
    b. Human immunodeficiency virus
    c. Hepadnavirus
    d. Varicella Zoster Virus
    e. None of the choices are correct
A

b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

HIV is a retrovirus, which is a single-stranded RNA virus, not a double-stranded DNA virus.

  • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a member of the herpesvirus family, which is indeed a double-stranded DNA virus.
  • Hepadnavirus, such as Hepatitis B virus, has a partially double-stranded DNA genome.
  • Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) is also a member of the herpesvirus family and is a double-stranded DNA virus.

Therefore, the only option that does not fit the category of double-stranded DNA viruses is the Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

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114
Q
  1. Occurrence of virus in blood takes months to years
    a. Viral Hep C
    b. Viral Hep A
    c. Viral Hep B
    d. Both Hep B and C
A

d. Both Hep B and C

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115
Q
  1. The herpes virus transmitted thru bites of old world monkeys or macaques
    a. Epstein barr virus
    b. adenovirus
    c. HIV
    d. Influenza virus
A

d. Influenza virus

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116
Q
  1. No homologous immunity
    a. Hepa C
    b. Hepa B
    c. Hepa A
    d. Hepa D
A

a. Hepa C

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117
Q
  1. Promotes interferon production
    a. imiquimod
    b. tamiflu
    c. Alpha interferon
    d. fortovase
A

c. Alpha interferon

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118
Q
  1. Associated with keratitis
    a. HSV1
    b. HSV2
    c. nota
    d. aota
A

a. HSV1

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119
Q
  1. Virus that is enveloped
    a. nota
    b. adenovirus
    c. poliovirus
    d. herpesvirus
A

d. herpesvirus

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120
Q
  1. An inanimate object that is capable of infecting and provide adequate environment for microorganism to multiply and reproduce.
    a. Host
    b. Reservoir host
    c. Definitive host
    d. Fomite
A

d. Fomite

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121
Q
  1. Cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants
    a. Rotavirus
    b. Norovirus
    c. Adenovirus
    d. Astrovirus
A

a. Rotavirus

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122
Q

The integration of viral genome material into a host’s genome can be described as:

a. DNA integration
b. Retroviral integration
c. Provirus formation
d. Genetic integration

A

a. DNA integration

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123
Q
  1. Genome of polio
    a. Single-stranded RNA
    b. Positive-sense single-stranded RNA
    c. Non-segmented RNA
    d. Linear RNA genome
A

a. Single-stranded RNA

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124
Q
  1. Segmented dsRNA virus:
    a. Reovirus
    b. Norovirus
    c. Adenovirus
    d. Astrovirus
A

a. Reovirus

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125
Q
  1. Transmitted via urine
    a. Cytomegalovirus
    b. Norovirus
    c. Adenovirus
    d. Astrovirus
A

a. Cytomegalovirus

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126
Q

Influenza B undergoes more drift than Influenza A does
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Influenza A undergoes more antigenic variation and drift than Influenza B.

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127
Q

Virus particles present in the sample will be absorbed onto the grid by the antibody while the grid is coated with specific anti-sera
a. Radioimmunoassay
b. Immunofluorescence
c. Viral genome detection
d. Solid phase immune electron microscopy
(SPIEM)
e. Classical immune electron microscopy

A

d. Solid phase immune electron microscopy
(SPIEM)

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128
Q
  1. The sign marks the initial stage of Lyme disease
    A. Erythema migrans
    B. Arthritis
    C. Arthralgia
    D. Neurological involvement
A

A. Erythema migrans

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129
Q
  1. Glycogen in inclusions
    A. C. pneumonia
    B. C. psitacci
    C. C. trachomatis
    D. C. tetani
A

C. C. trachomatis

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130
Q

3 Growth characterisitics of spirochetes include the following except
a microaerophilic
b viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4c
c. remains motile for 3-6 days at 25c
d grows in 1-4% oxygen

A

b viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4c

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131
Q
  1. Lymphogranuloma venereum
    A. C. trachomatis
    B. C. tetani
    C. C. psittaci
    D. C. pneumonia
A

A. C. trachomatis

132
Q
  1. C. pneumonia is usually associated with
    A. atherosclerosis
    B. COPD
    C. Thyroid disorder
    D. asthma
A

A. atherosclerosis

133
Q
  1. This treponema causes pinta
    A. T. Pallidum subspecies carateum
    B. T. Pallidum subspecies endemicum
    C. T. Pallidum subspecies pallidum
    D. T. Pallidum subspecies pertenue
A

A. T. Pallidum subspecies carateum

134
Q
  1. Trachomatis has long-lasting immunity
    a. true
    b. false
A

b. false

135
Q
  1. Trachoma is the disease of
    A. eye
    b. ear
    c. pharynx
    d. genital
A

A. eye

136
Q
  1. Reactions to Tuberculin except
    a. Erythema
    b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units
    c. Fever
    d. Edema
A

b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units

137
Q

10 A mycobacterium which is scotochromogen which produces chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children
A. Mycobacterium kansasii
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans
C. Mycobacterium Avium complex
D. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

A

D. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

138
Q

11 method kills spirochetes except
a. Penicillin
b. Drying
c. dec temp of 37 C
d. NOTA

A

c. dec temp of 37 C

139
Q

12 M. pneumonia is associated with genital tract infcetions
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

140
Q
  1. postgonococcal urethritis
    a. mycoplasma
    b. listeria
    c. chlamydia
    d. legionella
A

c. chlamydia

141
Q
  1. Importance of characterizing specific strains of mycobacteria
    A. Trace transmission from one person to another
    B. Analysis of outbreaks of tuberculosis
    C. Demonstration of reactivation vs reinfection
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

142
Q
  1. Intact cell mediated immunity
    A. Tuberculoid
    B. Lepromatous
A

A. Tuberculoid

143
Q

16 The antigenic structure of spirochetes which is composes of 3 core protein plus a sheath protein
a endoflagella
b cardiolipin
c reagin
d hyaluronidase

A

a endoflagella

144
Q
  1. L. monocytogenes
    A. Complement fixation
    B. Schilling test
    C. Breath test
    D. Anton test
A

D. Anton test

145
Q
  1. This type of microbacterial lesion produces the chronic granuloma.
    A. Productive type
    B. Exudative type
    C. None of the choices
    D. Both choices
A

A. Productive type

146
Q

19 lab diagnosis of c psitacci
a elisa
b complement fixation test
c. blood culture
d clinical symptomatology

A

b complement fixation test

147
Q
  1. The antibody that develops in the neonate with congenital syphilis
    A. IgA antitreponemal antibody
    B. IgG antitreponemal antibody
    C. IgM antitreponemal antibody
    D. NOTA
A

C. IgM antitreponemal antibody

148
Q

Arrange in proper order the developmental cycle of chlamydia

  1. Binary Fission
  2. Ingestion
  3. EB Attachment
  4. Reorganization into RB inside phagosome

A. 1,3,2,4
B. 3,4,2,1
C. 2,1,4,3
D. 3,2,4,1

A

D. 3,2,4,1

This sequence represents the steps as follows:

1.	EB Attachment (3) - The cycle begins with the attachment of the elementary body (EB) to the host cell.
2.	Ingestion (2) - Following attachment, the EB is ingested by the host cell.
3.	Reorganization into RB inside phagosome (4) - Once inside the host cell, the EB reorganizes into a reticulate body (RB), which is the metabolically active form of the bacterium.
4.	Binary Fission (1) - The RB undergoes binary fission, replicating within the inclusion to produce more RBs, which eventually differentiate back into EBs.
149
Q
  1. In the traditional classification system the pathogenic species of Leptospira
    A. Leptospira interrogans
    B. Both
    C. Leptospira biflexia
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. Leptospira interrogans

Leptospira interrogans is the species traditionally associated with pathogenic strains of Leptospira, responsible for causing leptospirosis in humans and animals. Leptospira biflexa, on the other hand, is generally considered to be non-pathogenic or less pathogenic and is often associated with environmental isolates.

150
Q
  1. Positive lepromin test
    A. tuberculoid
    B. lepromatous
A

A. tuberculoid

151
Q
  1. This is the most rapid, sensitive, and specific method of identification of mycobacteria
    A. none of the choices
    B. culture
    C. molecular probe
    D. acid fast staining
A

C. molecular probe

152
Q
  1. Transmitted by the Ixodes tick
    A. Treponema
    B. Leptospira
    C. None of the choices are correct
    D. Borellia burgdorferi
A

D. Borellia burgdorferi

153
Q
  1. Fried egg appearance on suitable agar media
    A. M. pneumonia
    B. M. hominis
    C. M. orale
    D. M. fermentans
A

B. M. hominis

154
Q
  1. Rat bite fever
    a. Streptobacillus
    b. C. Trichomatis
    c. Gardnerella
    d. Donovania
A

a. Streptobacillus

155
Q
  1. Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn is caused by C. psittaci
    a. false
    b. true
A

a. false

Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn is typically caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, not C. psittaci. C. psittaci is more commonly associated with psittacosis, a respiratory illness transmitted by birds.

156
Q
  1. 50-65 percent of Reiter’s syndrome patients have:
    a. Chlamydia
    b. Legionella
    c.Listeria
    d. Mycoplasma
A

a. Chlamydia

157
Q

32.fluoroquinoline resistance is caused by:
a. deletion and mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene
b. alterations in INha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis
c. alterartion in the beta subunit of RNA polymerase
d. mutation in the dna gyrase

A

d. mutation in the dna gyrase

158
Q

33This treponema cause bejel
A. T Pallidum subspecie pallidum
B. T Pallidum subspecie endemicum
C. T Pallidum subspecie carateum

A

B. T Pallidum subspecie endemicum

159
Q
  1. A 25 year old pregnant patient develops severe vomiting due to ingestion of poorly cooked meat. A gram stain of the meat sample showed gram positive bacilli. What antibiotic will you give?
    A. IV Aminoglycoside
    B. Cefuroxime
    C. Levofloxacin
    D. Ampicillin
A

D. Ampicillin

160
Q
  1. Parrot fever
    A. C. tetani
    B. C. trachomatis
    C. C. psitacci
    D. C. pneumonia
A

C. C. psitacci

161
Q
  1. Erysipelothrix
    a. G(-)bacilli
    b. G(+)bacilli
    c. G(+)cocci
    d. G(-)cocci
A

b. G(+)bacilli

Erysipelothrix is a genus of bacteria that are Gram-positive (G+) bacilli. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, the species within this genus, is known to cause erysipeloid, a skin infection primarily seen in people handling fish, meat, and poultry.

162
Q
  1. Conventional methods for identification of mycobacteria
    a. Molecular probe
    b. Polymerase chain reaction
    c. High liquid chromatography
    d. Observation of rate growth
A

d. Observation of rate growth

163
Q
  1. The cell wall of chlamydia
    a. Gram positive
    b. Gram positive with no cell wall
    c. Gram negative with LPS
    d. No cell wall
A

c. Gram negative with LPS

164
Q
  1. Tumbling motiliy
    A. Streptobacillus
    B. L.monocytogenes
    C. Gardnerella
    D. Donovania
A

B. L.monocytogenes

165
Q

40 Method of mycobacterial identification is used in profiling in mycolic acid content
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. None of the choices are correct
C. High performance liquid chromatogoraphy
D. Molecular probe

A

C. High performance liquid chromatogoraphy

166
Q
  1. C. trachomatis treatment
    A. Iodine
    B. Mulnopiravir
    C. Vaccination
    D. Erythromycin
A

D. Erythromycin

167
Q
  1. Characterized by pale anesthetic macular lesions or diffuse erryhematous infiltrated nodules
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    B. Mycobacterium leprae
    C. Mycobacterium marinum
    D. Mycobacterium ulcerans
A

B. Mycobacterium leprae

168
Q
  1. This is a central area of peripheral fibrous tissue which undergoes caseation necrosis
    A. Granuloma
    B. Tubercle
    C. None of the choices are correct
    D. Macular skin lesion
A

B. Tubercle

A tubercle refers to a small nodular lesion, particularly in the context of tuberculosis, that often contains a central area of caseation necrosis surrounded by a peripheral fibrous tissue. This structure is a type of granuloma specific to tuberculosis infection.

169
Q
  1. Causes rat bite fever
    A. Borellia buccalis
    B. Borellia refringens
    C. Spirillum minor
    D. Borellia burgdorferi
A

C. Spirillum minor

170
Q
  1. Microorganisms that produce pigment in the dark
    a. non-chromogens
    b. none of the choices are correct
    c. scrotochromogens
    d. photochromogens
A

c. scrotochromogens

171
Q
  1. This treponema causes yaws
    A. T. Pallidum subspecies pallidum
    B. T. Pallidum subspecies endemicum
    C. T. Pallidum subspecies carateum
    D. T. Pallidum subspecies pertenue
A

D. T. Pallidum subspecies pertenue

172
Q
  1. Congenital syphilis is transmitted vertically from mother to baby during?
    a. 2-28 weeks AOG
    b. 6-8 weeks AOG
    c. 10-15 weeks AOG
    d. 32- 36 AOG
A

c. 10-15 weeks AOG

173
Q
  1. Saprophyte
    A. Gardnerella
    B. Chromobacterium
    C. Acinetobacter
    D. Alcaligenes
A

D. Alcaligenes

174
Q
  1. Water organisms that produce superficial skin lesions
    A. Mycobacterium marinum
    B. Mycobacterium fortuitum
    C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

175
Q
  1. LGV is transmitted by
    A. Droplet spread
    B. fecal-oral ingestion
    C. insect vectors
    D. Sexual Contact
A

D. Sexual Contact

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. It is caused by certain serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis.

176
Q
  1. M. genitalium is the easist organism to culture
    a. true
    b. false
A

b. false

Mycoplasma genitalium is notoriously difficult to culture in a laboratory setting due to its fastidious nature and specific growth requirements.

177
Q
  1. Bilateral inguinal buboes
    A. Legionella
    B. Listeria
    C. LGV
    D. Acetinobacter
A

C. LGV

Bilateral inguinal buboes are a characteristic feature of Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), which is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. The other options listed are not typically associated with this presentation.

178
Q
  1. This test is the first to be positive in early syphilis
    A. FTA-ABS test
    B. VDRL
    C. RPR
    D. None of the choices
A

A. FTA-ABS test

179
Q
  1. Severe asymmetric nerve involvement
    A. Tuberculoid
    B. Lepromatous
A

A. Tuberculoid

180
Q
  1. The mycobacterial strain is particularly resistant to first line anti- TB drugs and requires treatment for life
    a. Mycobacterium Avium complex
    b. Mycobacterium kansasii
    c. Mycobacterium leprae
    d. None of the choioce are correct
A

a. Mycobacterium Avium complex

181
Q
  1. Microorganisms which produces pigment in light
    a.none of the choices are correct
    b. photocromogens
    c. scotochromogens
    d. non-chromogens
A

b. photocromogens

182
Q
  1. The incubation period fo C. trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is 1-2 days
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A

b. FALSE

The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is longer than 1-2 days. It typically ranges from 5 to 14 days after exposure. Inclusion conjunctivitis, also known as chlamydial conjunctivitis, can take several days to develop symptoms after the bacteria have been transmitted to the eye.

183
Q

58 Abundant acid fast bacili in skin lesions
A. Tuberculoid type
B. Lepromatous type

A

B. Lepromatous type

184
Q

59 process known to cause isoniazide resistance
a. Deletion of mutations in the catalase-peroxidases gene
b. Alterations in the Beta subunit of RNA polymerase
c. Alterations in genes encoding the rS12 protein and 16s rRNA

A

a. Deletion of mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene

Isoniazid resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is primarily due to mutations in the katG gene, which encodes the catalase-peroxidase enzyme needed to activate isoniazid.

185
Q

60 Clue cells
a. Acinetobacter
b. Alcaligenes
c. Chromobacterium
d. Gardnerella

A

d. Gardnerella

Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, characteristic of bacterial vaginosis, most commonly associated with Gardnerella vaginalis.

186
Q
  1. ureaplasma urealyticum requires urea as a growth substrate
    a. true
    b. false
A

a. true

187
Q
  1. Skin lesions with pyemia and multiple abscess
    A. Chromobacterium
    B. Alcaligenes
    C. Flavobacterium
    D. Psitacossis
A

A. Chromobacterium

Skin lesions with pyemia and multiple abscesses are more commonly associated with infections caused by Chromobacterium violaceum, which is a Gram-negative bacterium. The other options listed are less commonly associated with this presentation.

188
Q
  1. Known to cause streptomycin resistance
    A. Alterations in hA gene mycolic acid synthesis
    B. Mutations in gene encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA
    C. mutations in DNA gyrase
A

B. Mutations in gene encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA

189
Q
  1. L. monocytogenes
    a. Spore forming
    b. Non-spore forming
A

b. Non-spore forming

L. monocytogenes (Listeria monocytogenes) is a non-spore-forming Gram-positive bacterium.

190
Q
  1. A constituent of tubercle bacilli responsible for producing caseous necrosis
    A. Mycolic acid
    B. Muramyl dipeptide
    C. Waxes
    D. Phospholipids
A

D. Phospholipids

191
Q
  1. Continuous bacteremia
    A. Lepromatous type
    B. Tuberculoid type
A

A. Lepromatous type

192
Q
  1. Malignant form
    a. Lepromatous type
    B. Tuberculoid type
A

a. Lepromatous type

193
Q
  1. C Psitacci is transmitted similar to mechanism of COVID 19 infection
    A.True
    B. False
A

B. False

C. psittaci, the causative agent of psittacosis (also known as parrot fever), is primarily transmitted to humans through inhalation of dust contaminated with dried secretions (like feces or urine) from infected birds, rather than the respiratory droplets through which COVID-19 is spread.

194
Q
  1. One serovar of Chlamydia trachomatis causes eye infections, while the second serovar causes genital infections
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

Different serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis are responsible for different types of infections: some serovars cause eye infections, such as trachoma (serovars A-C), while others are responsible for genital infections, including lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) (serovars D-K for urogenital infections and L1-L3 for LGV).

195
Q
  1. Conjunctivits
    a. C. psitacci
    b. C. tranchomatis
    c. C. pneumonia
    d. C. tetani
A

b. C. tranchomatis

196
Q
  1. Bacterial vaginosis
    A. Gardnerella
    B. Flavobacterium
    C. C. trachomatis
    D. Donovania
A

A. Gardnerella

197
Q
  1. Chlamydia infectious particle
    A. Elemental body
    B. Reticulate body
    C. Reticular body
    D. Elementary body
A

D. Elementary body

The elementary body is the infectious form of Chlamydia, capable of infecting host cells.

198
Q
  1. lipid constituent of tubercle bacilli responsible for granuloma formation
    A. waxes
    B. phospholipids
    C. muramyl dipeptide
    D. mycolic acid
A

C. muramyl dipeptide

199
Q
  1. The variation forms the basis for the serological classification of Leptospira species
    A. Antigenic structure
    B. Morphology
    C. Culture
    D. Growth requirements
A

A. Antigenic structure

200
Q
  1. The diagnostic method of choice for C. trachomatis pneumonia in the newborn is culture of respiratory secretions.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

201
Q
  1. This is a disease related to syphilis which is highly endemic in children producing ulcerating papules in arms and legs through direct contact
    A. Pinta
    B. Bejel
    C. None of the choices are correct
    D. Yaws
A

D. Yaws

202
Q
  1. A 26-year-old gemale commercial sex worker consulted at your clinic. She was found to have foul-smelling vaginal discharge with vaginal epithelial cells studded with numerous bacteria. What will be your treatment?
    a. Tetracycline
    b. Dactinomycin
    c. Metronidazole
    d. Cefoxitin
A

c. Metronidazole

203
Q
  1. Chlamydia can make ATP
    A. FALSE
    B. TRUE
A

A. FALSE

Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot produce its own ATP. It relies on the host cell’s ATP for energy.

204
Q
  1. Mycoplasma are responsive to treatment with Co-amoxiclav as they do not have penicillinase activity
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

205
Q

80.a serologic test for syphilis which estimates the amount of regain in plasma giving quantitative results
a. VDRL
b. None of the choices are correct
c. Flocculations
d. rpr

A

c. Flocculations

A serologic test for syphilis that estimates the amount of reagin (an antibody) in plasma and gives quantitative results is typically based on flocculation reactions. Tests like the VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) are examples of such tests that measure the amount of reagin in the blood and are used for diagnosing syphilis.

206
Q

The most sensitive means of diagnosis C. Pneumonia
a. NAAT
b. culture
C. serology

A

a. NAAT (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test)

The most sensitive means of diagnosing Chlamydia pneumoniae (C. pneumonia) is through NAAT, which can detect the genetic material of the bacterium in clinical samples. This method is highly sensitive and specific for the detection of C. pneumonia.

207
Q
  1. Spirochetes produces this distinct antobody substance which gives positive flocculations tests
    A. Reagin
    B. Hyaluronidase
    C. Cardiolipin
    D. Lipids
A

A. Reagin

208
Q
  1. Chlamydia have shared group or genus-specific antigens.
    A. False
    B. True
A

B. True

209
Q
  1. Yellow Pigment
    a. Legionella
    b. Acinetobacter
    c. Chromobacterium
    d. Flavobacterium
A

d. Flavobacterium

210
Q
  1. Serovar C
    a. LGV
    b. Trachoma
    c. LGBT
    d. oculogenital disease
A

b. Trachoma

Serovar C of Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with trachoma, an infectious eye disease that can lead to blindness.

211
Q
  1. Staining method for identifying acid-fast bacilli
    a. Ziehl-Nieelsen technique
    b. None of the choices are correct
    c. Wrights stain
    d. Giemsa stain
A

a. Ziehl-Neelsen technique

The Ziehl-Neelsen staining technique, also known as the acid-fast stain, is used to identify acid-fast bacilli like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It’s commonly employed in the diagnosis of tuberculosis.

212
Q
  1. Mycoplasma are part of the normal microbiota of the mouth.
    A. False
    B. True
A

B. True

213
Q

88 Urogenital infections
A. C. pneumonia
B. C. psitacci
C. C. Trachomatis
D. C. tetani

A

C. C. Trachomatis

214
Q
  1. Obvious disfigurement
    A. Lepromatous type
    B. Tuberculoid type
A

A. Lepromatous type

Lepromatous leprosy can lead to obvious disfigurement due to the widespread skin lesions, nodules, and potentially severe damage to the skin, nerves, and other tissues.

215
Q
  1. Signs of congenital syphilis except:
    A. Hutchinson’s teeth
    B. Nodular skin lesions
    C. Saddlenose
    D. Periostitis
A

B. Nodular skin lesions

216
Q
  1. Chromatin-closed safety pin appearance
    A. Donovania
    B. Gardnerella
    C. C. Trachomatis
    D. Flavobacterium
A

A. Donovania

217
Q
  1. A mycobacterium which is a photochromagen with low to absent communicability.
    A. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
    B. Mycobacterium kansasii
    C. Mycobacterium Avium complex
    D. Mycobacterium ulcerans
A

B. Mycobacterium kansasii

Mycobacterium kansasii is a photochromogen, meaning it produces pigment when exposed to light. It typically has low to absent communicability among humans.

218
Q
  1. Alcaligenes fecalis
    A. Gram (+) bacilli
    B. Gram (-) cocci
    C. Gram (-) bacilli
    D. Gram (+) cocci
A

C. Gram (-) bacilli

Alcaligenes faecalis is a Gram-negative bacillus.

219
Q
  1. Decontamination and concentration of specimen for identification of mycobacteria involves
    a. all of the choices are correct
    b. neutralization with buffer
    c. liquefaction with n-acetyl-cysteine
    d. decontamination with NaOH
A

a. all of the choices are correct

220
Q
  1. Markedly deficient cell mediated immunity
    A. Lepromatous type
    B. Tubeculoid type
A

A. Lepromatous type

221
Q
  1. In LGV, inguinal lymph nodes become enlarged and matted, draining pus through the skin
    a. TRUE
    b. False
A

a. TRUE

222
Q
  1. Ferments glucose
    A. M. hominis
    B. M. genitalium
    C. Ureaplasma
    D. M. pneumoniae
A

D. M. pneumoniae

223
Q
  1. L. monocytogenes
    A. G(-) bacilli
    B. G(-) cocci
    C. G(+) cocci
    D. G(+) bacilli
A

D. G(+) bacilli

224
Q
  1. Tertiary stage of syphillis is characterized by the following except?
    A. gummas
    B. Aortitis
    C. degenerative changes in the CNS
    D. Condylomas
A

D. Condylomas

225
Q
  1. Exhibit slow symmetric nerve involvement
    A. Lepromatous type
    B. Tubercoloid type
A

A. Lepromatous type

226
Q
  1. The function of a viral capsid is
    A. providing binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell
    B. serving as vehicle of transmission from one host to another
    C. protection against the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

227
Q
  1. Lodges in the trigeminal ganglia
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV 1

228
Q
  1. Predominantly transmitted through the oral fecal route
    A. Viral Hepatitis C
    B. Viral Hepatitis A
    C. Viral Hepatitis B
    D. Viral Hepatitis D
A

B. Viral Hepatitis A

229
Q
  1. Primary infection of this herpes virus commonly causes exanthema subitum or roseola infantum
    a. HHV7
    b. HHV6
    c. HHV8
    d. EBV
A

b. HHV6

230
Q
  1. true regarding virus isolation, EXCEPT:
    a. examples of semi-continuos cells are human embryonic kidney and skin fibrolasts
    b. primary cell culture is the best cell culture systems available since they support the widest range of viruses
    c. very expensive and difficult to obtain reliable supply
    d. continuos cells are the most easy to handle with wide range of viruses supported
A

b. primary cell culture is the best cell culture systems available since they support the widest range of viruses

231
Q
  1. The viral nucleocapsid is the combination of:
    A. Genome and Capsid
    B. Capsomere and Genome
    C.Capsid and Spikes
    D. Envelope and Capsid
A

A. Genome and Capsid

232
Q
  1. Which of the following is a fundamental principle of viral disease causation?
    A. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease
    B. the type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of that virus
    C. One virus type induces a single diseases syndrome
    D. A particular disease sundrome has a single viral cause
A

A. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease

233
Q

8 has animal vectors
a. None of the choices is correct
b. HSV 2
c. HSV 1
d. All of the choices are correct

A

a. None of the choices is correct

234
Q

9 in serology criteria for diagnosing Primary infections includes EXCEPT:
A. high single titer-of IgG (Total antibody)
B. Absence or slight increase in IgM
C. four-fold increase in titer of IgG or total antibody between acute and convalescent sera
D. seroconversion
E. presence of IgM

A

B. Absence or slight increase in IgM

235
Q
  1. core of double stranded DNA is composed of
    a. all of the choices are correct
    b. nucleocapsid
    c. tegument
    d. protein coat
A

a. all of the choices are correct

236
Q
  1. Target organ of HHV 7
    A. Lymphoid tissue
    B. Neuron
    C. Glands
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. Lymphoid tissue

237
Q
  1. May be inactive in the sacral ganglia
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. both choices are correct
    D. none of the choices are correct
A

B. HSV 2

238
Q

13 Has reservoirs
a. HSV 1
B. HSV 2
C. all of the choices are correct
D. none of the choices are correct

A

D. none of the choices are correct

239
Q
  1. Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?
    A. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA
    B. This genome is circular
    C. Their genome is segmented
    D. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA
A

D. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA

240
Q
  1. Negative serologic marker in patients with disease of the biliary tract and toxic injury of the liver
    A. HbsAg
    B. Anti-HBs
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Anti-Hbc
A

C. All of the choices are correct

241
Q
  1. There are no chronic complication noted
    a. Viral hepatitis D
    b. Viral hepatitis B
    c. Viral hepatitis C
    d. Viral hepatitis A
A

d. Viral hepatitis A

242
Q
  1. Infects mostly adults
    A. None of the choices are correct
    B. HSV1
    C. HSV2
    D. Both are correct.
A

C. HSV2

243
Q
  1. Serologic marker which becomes positive as a result of vaccine type response
    A. Anti-HBc
    B. HBeAg
    C. Anti-HBs
    D. HbsAg
A

C. Anti-HBs

Anti-HBs (antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen) becomes positive as a result of a vaccine-type response to hepatitis B. This marker indicates immunity to hepatitis B, either from vaccination or recovery from a past infection. In the context of vaccination, it is the specific serologic marker indicating a successful immune response to the hepatitis B vaccine.

244
Q
  1. Infects mostly young children
    a. HSV 1
    b. HSV 2
    c. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

a. HSV 1

245
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses belong to family Flaviviridae?
    A. Hepatitis C virus
    B. Yellow fever virus
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Rubella virus
A

C. All of the choices are correct

246
Q
  1. The Herpes virus transmitted through bites of old world monkeys or macaques
    A. Human Herpes Virus 7
    B. EBV
    C. B Virus
    D. Human Herpes Virus 8
A

C. B Virus

The B virus (Cercopithecine herpesvirus 1) is transmitted through bites or scratches from old world monkeys, such as macaques.

247
Q
  1. Enzyme neuraminidase is carried by which of the following viruses?
    A. Epstein-Barr Virus
    B. Adenovirus
    C. HIV
    D. Influenza virus
A

D. Influenza virus

248
Q
  1. Viruses range in size from approximately
    A. 300 nm - 1 um
    B. 1 - 25 um
    C. 1 - 25 nm
    D. 25-300 um
A

A. 300 nm - 1 um

249
Q
  1. True of Hepatitis D infection
    A. None of the choices are correct
    B. Both choices are correct
    C. Independent of co-existing HBV infection
    D. Simultaneous infection or co-infection with HBV
A

B. Both choices are correct

250
Q
  1. No homologous immunity
    A. Viral hepatitis C
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis A
    D. Viral hepatitis D
A

A. Viral hepatitis C

251
Q
  1. The following are double stranded DNA viruses, EXCEPT:
    A. Epstein barr virus
    B. Human immunodeficiency virus
    C. Hepadnavirus
    D. Varicella Zoster Virus
    E. None of the choices are correct
A

B. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

HIV is a retrovirus, which means it is an RNA virus, not a double-stranded DNA virus. The other viruses listed (Epstein-Barr virus, Hepadnavirus, Varicella Zoster Virus) are all double-stranded DNA viruses. Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the herpesvirus family, Hepadnavirus includes the Hepatitis B virus, and Varicella Zoster Virus causes chickenpox and shingles, all of which have double-stranded DNA genomes.

252
Q
  1. These agents are associated with disease such a Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease in humans, scrapie in sheep & bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in cattle
    a. Bacteriophage
    b. Viruses
    c. Prions
    d. Viroids
A

c. Prions

253
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a fundamental principle of viral disease causation
    A. One virus type indiuces a single disease syndrome
    B. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease
    C. A particular disease syndrome has a single viral cause
    D. The type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of the virus
A

B. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease

254
Q

29.Promotes interferon production
a. Imiquimod
b. Tamiflu
c. Alpha Interferon
d. Fortovase

A

c. Alpha Interferon

255
Q
  1. true of nasopharyngeal carcinoma except
    a. all are correct
    b. patient have high level of antibody to EBV
    c. infect female of chinese origin
    d. ebv dna is regularly found in nasopharyngeal cardinoma cell
A

c. infect female of chinese origin

256
Q
  1. Enveloped viruses have a _____ shape
    A. Complex
    B. Icosahedral
    C. Roughly spherical
    D. Helical
A

C. Roughly spherical

Enveloped viruses often have a roughly spherical shape due to the lipid bilayer envelope that surrounds their capsid. This envelope, derived from the host cell membrane, can confer a more flexible, spherical appearance, although the capsid inside the envelope may have icosahedral or complex symmetry.

257
Q
  1. Associated with herpes meningitis.
    A. HSV1
    B. HSV2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

C. Both choices are correct

258
Q
  1. Difference between bacteriophage and animal viral multiplication EXCEPT.
    A. Attachment sites are plasma membrane proteins and glycoproteins in animal virus
    B. In bacteriophage, capsid enters by endocytosis or fusion
    C. Biosynthesis occurs in cytoplasm in bacteriophage
    D. Latency slow viral infections such as cancer occurs in animal virus
A

B. In bacteriophage, capsid enters by endocytosis or fusion

259
Q
  1. Associated with Kerititis
    A. HSV1
    B. None of the choices are correct
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. HSV2
A

A. HSV1

260
Q
  1. Occurence of virus in blood takes months to years
    A. Viral Hep C
    B. Viral Hep A
    C. Viral Hep B
    D. Both Hep A & B
A

D. Both Hep A & B

261
Q
  1. The serologic marker is positive during early acute HBV infection.
    A. anti-Hbs
    B. None of the choices are correct
    C. HbsAg
    D. Anti-Hbc
A

C. HbsAg

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is the serologic marker that appears early in acute HBV infection. Its presence in the blood indicates an active hepatitis B virus infection, either acute or chronic. HBsAg is one of the first markers to appear after infection and can be detected before symptoms begin to show.

262
Q

37 Kaposi’s sarcoma associated herpes virus
A. Human herpes virus 8
B. Human herpes virus 6
C. Epstein barr virus
D. Human herpes virus 7

A

A. Human herpes virus 8

263
Q
  1. In lytic cycle, assembly of phage particles into virions occurs during which phase?
    A. Penetration
    B. Biosynthesis
    C. Maturation
    D. Attachment
A

C. Maturation

In the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage, the assembly of phage particles into mature virions occurs during the maturation phase. This is after the biosynthesis phase, where viral components are produced, and before the release of the new virions from the host cell.

264
Q
  1. The following viruses are readily isolated for cell culture except:
    A. Adenovirus
    B. Coxsackie B virus
    C. Cytomegalovirus
    D. Rhinoviruses
    E. Parainfuenza
A

D. Rhinoviruses

Rhinoviruses are notoriously difficult to isolate in cell culture compared to the other viruses listed. They require specific conditions, such as cooler temperatures and particular cell types, for successful isolation and growth, making them less readily isolated for cell culture than viruses like Adenovirus, Coxsackie B virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Parainfluenza, which generally grow more easily in a variety of cell culture systems.

265
Q
  1. Inferferons are the important part of the host defense against infections. What is interferon’s principal action?
    A. It coats viral particles and blocks their attachment to cells
    B. It induces synthesis of one or more cellular proteins that inhibit translocation or transcription
    C. It protects the virus infected cell that produced it from cell death
    D. It is present in the serum of healthy individuals. producing a viral surveillance role.
A

B. It induces synthesis of one or more cellular proteins that inhibit translocation or transcription

266
Q
  1. Which of the following virus is enveloped?
    A. None of the choices are correct
    B. Adenovirus
    C. Poliovirus
    D. Herpesvirus
A

D. Herpesvirus

267
Q
  1. Duration of immunity is unknown
    A. Viral Hepatitis A
    B. Viral Hepatitis C
    C. Viral Hepatitis D
    D. Viral Hepatitis B
A

B. Viral Hepatitis C

268
Q
  1. Associated with herpes encephalitis
    a. none of the choices are correct
    b. hsv2
    c. hsv1
    d. both choices are correct
A

c. hsv1

269
Q
  1. Has year round seasonal incidence
    A. Viral Hepatitis B
    B. Viral Hepatitis A
    C. Viral Hepatitis C
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

270
Q
  1. Target organ of HSV 1
    a. None of the choices are correct
    b. Lymphoid Tissue
    c. Glands
    d. Neurons
A

d. Neurons

271
Q
  1. May have normal to slightly elevated immunoglobulin levels
    A. Both hepatitis A and
    B. Viral hepatitis A
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. Viral hepatitis B
A

C. Viral hepatitis C

272
Q
  1. Papillomaviruses causes warts and cancer but how do they most often infect humans?
    A. Via scratches and breaks in the skin
    B. Are nosocomial and spread in hospitals
    C. Are airborne
    D. Are water borne
A

A. Via scratches and breaks in the skin

273
Q
  1. A virion lacks
    A. Polymerase
    B. ligase
    C. Replicase
    D. Lysozyme
A

A. Polymerase

274
Q
  1. Which is not a characteristic of viruses
    A. Exhibit high specificity for their respective host
    В. Contain DNA or RNA but never both
    С. Are obliged intracellular parasites
    D. Are active both inside and outside of host cells
    E. Can infect bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, plants and animals
A

D. Are active both inside and outside of host cells

275
Q
  1. Target organ of Kaposi’s Sarcoma (HHV-8) associated herpes virus
    A. Glands
    B. Lymphoid Tissue
    C. Neuron
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

B. Lymphoid Tissue

276
Q
  1. No heterologous immunity
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

277
Q
  1. Serologic marker which is positive in patients with HBV infection in the remote past and in low level carriers
    A. anti-Hbs
    B. anti-HBc
    C. HbsAg
    D. HBeAg
A

B. anti-HBc

278
Q
  1. Which one of the following immunizations should be administered immediately after birth?
    a. Diptheria-pertussis tetanus (DPT) vaccine
    b. BCG vaccine
    c. Hepatitis B
    d. Hemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
A

b. BCG vaccine

279
Q
  1. viruses are limited in their host range because
    a. they can only absorb to cells with glycoprotein
    b. they can only replicate in certain types of cell
    c. they can only bind to cells that have opposite charge
    d. only certain cells are susceptible to viral infections
    e. they can only absorb to cells with proper receptors
A

e. they can only absorb to cells with proper receptors

Viruses are limited in their host range primarily because they require specific receptors on the surface of a host cell to attach and gain entry. The presence of the appropriate receptors on the cell surface dictates whether a virus can infect that cell or not. This specificity is a key factor in determining the host range and tissue tropism of a virus.

280
Q
  1. Aims to look for sequences that have slight changes that varies between people or viruses:
    A. ELISA test
    B. Western Blotting
    C. RLFP
    D. PCR
A

D. PCR

281
Q

56 All of the follwing descriptions concerning viral multiplication and nucleic acids are true EXCEPT that
A. Viral mRNA, viral tRNA and viral ribosomes are used in viral replication
B. viruses contain DNA or RNA not Both
C. Viruses replicate only in living cells
D.The nucleic acid of a virus is surrounded by a protein coat.

A

A. Viral mRNA, viral tRNA and viral ribosomes are used in viral replication

282
Q

57 transmitted thru oral contact
a. None of the choices is correct
b. HSV 2
c. HSV 1
d. All of the choices are correct

A

c. HSV 1

283
Q

58 main target for epstein barr virus
A. phagocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. mononuclear cells

A

C. B lymphocytes

284
Q
  1. many virus infections result in immune pathology, this is caused predominantly by which of the following?
    a. antibody mediated reactions
    b. a cytokine storm
    c. a decline in function of the immune system
    d. a response of killer T cells (CD-8)
A

b. a cytokine storm

285
Q
  1. A naked virion of herpes measures
    A. 110 nm
    B. 115 nm
    C. 125 nm
    D. 120 nm
A

C. 125 nm

286
Q
  1. Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes polymerase chain reactions (PCR)
    A. Light microscopy
    B. Viral genome detection
    C. Antigen Detection
    D. Electron Microscope
A

B. Viral genome detection

287
Q
  1. What is the usual direction of “knowledge” in a cell
    a random
    b from rna to dna to protein
    c from protein to dna
    d from dna to rna
    e from dna to rna to protein
A

e. from DNA to RNA to protein

This describes the central dogma of molecular biology, which states that genetic information flows from DNA to RNA to protein. DNA is transcribed to RNA, and RNA is then translated into protein. This process underlies the basic mechanism of gene expression in cells.

288
Q
  1. Has an incubation period of 50-180 days
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis D
    C. Viral hepatitis B
    D. Viral hepatitis C
A

C. Viral hepatitis B

289
Q
  1. Which of the following statements explains why viruses are only able to multiply in living cells?
    A. They have only enough genetic information for DNA replication
    B. Viruses are too small in size to multiply outside living cells
    C. Their binary fission is controlled by host cell genes
    D. DNA is only able to replicate inside living cells
    E. Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication
A

E. Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication

290
Q
  1. Epstein barr virus cause/s the following diseases except
    a nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    b kaposi sarcoma
    c hodgkin disease
    d infectious mononucleosis
A

b. Kaposi sarcoma

Kaposi sarcoma is caused by the Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), not by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). EBV is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin disease, and infectious mononucleosis, among other conditions.

291
Q
  1. Many viruses can be grown in the laboratory. Which of the following statements about virus propagation is not true.
    A. Some viruses with broad host ranges can multiply in many types of cells
    B. Some mammalian viruses can be cultivated in hen’s eggs
    C. Some viruses can be propagated in cell free media
    D. Some human viruses can be grown in mice
A

A. Some viruses with broad host ranges can multiply in many types of cells

292
Q
  1. A protein containing partial with no detachable nucleic acid are known as:
    A. Protein
    B. Prions
    C. Viriods
    D. Virion
A

B. Prions

293
Q
  1. Manifest as cold sores
    A. None of the choices
    B. HSV1
    C. HSV2
    D. Both”
A

B. HSV1

294
Q
  1. Histological appearance inclusion bodies:
    A. Electron microscopy
    B. Viral genome detection
    C. Light microscopy
    D. Antigen detection
A

C. Light microscopy

295
Q
  1. Associated with Herpetic whitlow
    A. None of the choices
    B. HSV1
    C. HSV2
    D. Both
A

D. Both

296
Q
  1. Eczema herpeticum
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

A. HSV 1

297
Q
  1. Viruses belonging to which of the following groups are likely to establish latent infections?
    A. Influenza viruses
    B. Filoviruses
    C. Herpesviruses
    D. Caliciviruses
    E. Poxviruses
A

C. Herpesviruses

298
Q
  1. Elevation of animo transferases lasts for 1-6+ months
    A. viral hepatitis
    B. Both hepatitis A and B
    C. Viral hepatistis C
    D. Viral Hepatitis B
A

A. viral hepatitis

299
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to quantitate the infectious titer of viruses?
    A. Polymerase chain reaction
    B. Electron microscopy
    C. Hemagglutination
    D. Enzyme immunoassay
    E. Plaque assay
A

A. Polymerase chain reaction

300
Q
  1. The skin is an impenetrable barrier to virus entry, but a few viruses are able to breach this barrier and initiate infection of the host. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin abrasions?
    a. Papillomavirus
    b. Influenza virus
    c. Rhinovirus
    d. Rotavirus
    e. Adenovirus
A

a. Papillomavirus

301
Q
  1. Virus of different families have varied geometric structures. which of the following is true
    a the nucleu acid is commonly linear
    b all viruses have the same basic geometry
    c. all virus have a lipid bilayer
    d. virus nucleocapsis are either icosahedreal or helical
A

d. virus nucleocapsis are either icosahedreal or helical

302
Q
  1. Which of the following nucleic acid types are not found in viruses
    a. all of the choices are correct
    b. circular single stranded RNA
    c. linear double stranded DNA
    d. circular double stranded DNA
    e. linear single stranded RNA
A

a. all of the choices are correct

303
Q

78.First step in infection of a host bacterial cells by a phage
a. absorption
b. penetration
c. replicaion
d. adsorption
e. uncoating

A

d. adsorption

The first step in the infection of a host bacterial cell by a bacteriophage (phage) is adsorption. During this step, the phage attaches to specific receptors on the surface of the bacterial cell, initiating the infection process.

The infection process of a host bacterial cell by a bacteriophage (phage) typically follows these sequential steps:

  1. Adsorption: The phage binds to specific receptor sites on the surface of the bacterial cell wall. This specificity determines the host range of the phage.
  2. Penetration (or Injection): After adsorption, the phage injects its genetic material (DNA or RNA) into the bacterial cell, leaving the phage capsid outside the cell.
  3. Biosynthesis: The phage DNA takes over the cell’s machinery to begin synthesizing viral components, such as viral nucleic acids and proteins. During this phase, the host cell’s DNA may be degraded.
  4. Assembly (or Maturation): Newly synthesized viral components are assembled into complete virions (virus particles) within the host cell.
  5. Release: The host cell is lysed (broken open), and new phage particles are released into the environment, ready to infect other cells. The lysis of the host cell is often facilitated by phage-encoded enzymes.

This process describes a lytic cycle, where the infection leads to the production of new phages and the destruction of the host cell. Some phages can also undergo a lysogenic cycle, where the phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome and replicates along with it without causing immediate harm to the host.

304
Q
  1. viruses of different families have varied geometric structure which of the following is true
    a. the nuclei acid is commonly linear
    b. all viruses have the same basic geometry
    c. all viruses have a lipid bilayer
    d. virus nucleocapsid are either icosahedral or helical
A

d. virus nucleocapsid are either icosahedral or helical

305
Q
  1. What is the most important factor for virus classification?
    A, How many proteins the virus has
    B. The geometry of the virus
    C. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA
    D. The disease of a virus causes
A

C. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA

306
Q
  1. Sexually transmitted
    A. HSV 1
    B. HSV 2
    C. Both choices are correct
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

B. HSV 2

307
Q
  1. Control of cytomegalovirus inclusion disease involves the following except

a. Screening of transplant donors and recipients for CMV antibody
b. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines
c. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV
d. Isolation of newborns with generalized CMV inclusion diseases from other newborns

A

b. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines

As of my last update in April 2023, there are no licensed live or recombinant CMV (Cytomegalovirus) vaccines available for the prevention of CMV infection. While vaccines for CMV are under development and research, they are not yet part of the standard control measures for preventing CMV inclusion disease. The other options (a, c, and d) are relevant for the control and prevention of CMV transmission and infection.

308
Q
  1. associated with cutaneous herpes
    a. hsv1
    b hsv2
    c both choices are correct
    d. non of the choices are correct
A

c both choices are correct

309
Q
  1. This can spread easily and can be resistant to acid and bile in the enteric tract
    a. enveloped viruses
    b rna viruses
    c naked viruses
    d. dna viruses
A

c naked viruses

310
Q
  1. Naked strand of RNA expressed only in the presence of Hepatitis B virus.
    A. adeno-associated virus
    B. Delta agent
    C. None of the choices are correct
    D. Sattelited viruses
A

B. Delta agent

The Delta agent, also known as Hepatitis D virus (HDV), is a virus that cannot replicate independently without the presence of Hepatitis B virus (HBV). HDV is considered a subviral satellite because it requires the helper functions provided by HBV, particularly its surface antigen (HBsAg), for its own assembly and secretion. HDV infection can occur only in individuals who are infected with HBV, leading to co-infection or superinfection, which can result in more severe liver disease compared to HBV infection alone.

311
Q

86 May affect neonates
A. VIral hepatitis D
B. VIral hepatitis B
C. VIral hepatitis C
D. VIral hepatitis A

A

B. VIral hepatitis B

312
Q
  1. Present in the saliva and/or semen.
    A. Both hepatitis A and B
    B. Viral hepatitis C
    C. Viral hepatitis A
    D. Viral hepatitis B
A

A. Both hepatitis A and B

313
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses has not been associated with human cancer?
    A. Hepa B virus
    B. Hepa C virus
    C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
    D. Varicella-Zoster virus
A

D. Varicella-Zoster virus

314
Q
  1. It has the highest mortality rate
    A. Viral Hepatitis D
    B. Viral Hepatitis C
    C. Viral Hepatitis B
    D. Viral Hepatitis A
A

C. Viral Hepatitis B

315
Q
  1. What is the most common way for a virus to kill a cell?
    A. Induces apoptosis via caspases
    B. Fragments cellular DNA
    C. Totally blocks cellular transcription
    D. Dissolves the cellular membrane
A

A. Induces apoptosis via caspases

316
Q
  1. Mode of Action is to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
    A. Saquinovir
    B. Acyclovir
    C. Tamiflu
    D. Interferon
A

B. Acyclovir

317
Q
  1. what happens during the incubation period
    a. the period commonly last for a few hours
    b. virus is cleared from the body by the immune system
    c. virus replication happens in intracellular level
    d. period commonly last few days
A

c. virus replication happens in intracellular level

318
Q
  1. When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately, the situation is called.
    A. Lysis
    B. Synergism
    C. Symbiosis
    D. Lysogeny
A

D. Lysogeny

319
Q
  1. The enveloped form of herpes virus measures
    a. 150nm
    b. 120nm
    c. 160nm
    d. 140nm
A

a. 150nm

320
Q
  1. Virus particles present in the sample will be absorbed onto the grid by the antibody while the grid is coated with specific anti-sera
    A. Radioimmunoassay
    B. Immunofluorescence
    C. Viral Genome Detection
    D. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM)
    E. Classical Immune electron microscopy (IEM)
A

D. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM)

321
Q
  1. True regarding viral multiplication of bacteriophages. Except
    A. release occurs via cell lysis only
    B. Uncoating is necessary
    C. Multiplication is similar to animal viruses
    D. Only the nucleic acid enters the cytoplasm
A

B. Uncoating is necessary

For bacteriophages, uncoating is not a necessary step in the same way it is for many animal viruses. Bacteriophages often inject their genetic material directly into the bacterial host cell, leaving the capsid outside the cell. In contrast, uncoating is a step where animal viruses, after entering a cell, remove their capsid to release the viral genome into the host cell’s cytoplasm. This distinction highlights a fundamental difference in the infection processes between bacteriophages and animal viruses.

322
Q
  1. target organ of HHV 6
    A. Glands
    B. Lymphoid tissue
    C. Neuron
    D. NOT
A

B. Lymphoid tissue

323
Q
  1. The main criteria used to group viruses are structure, chemical composition, and what other characteristic
    A.Presence and type of envelope
    B.Overall viral size
    C.Area of host cell in which the virus multiplies
    D.Similarities in genetic makeup
    E.Type of capsid
A

A.Presence and type of envelope

324
Q
  1. There is occurence of the virus in the urine
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. Viral hepatitis D
A

A. Viral hepatitis A

325
Q
  1. Abrupt onset of disease
    A. Viral hepatitis A
    B. Viral hepatitis B
    C. Viral hepatitis C
    D. Viral hepatitis D
A

A. Viral hepatitis A

1 - MICRO / PARA (DUMP) (12 decks)

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