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BTC 5-24 > ATM 1 > Flashcards

ATM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Flight Information service

A

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights

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2
Q

What type of service is provided in Class F airspace?

A

Advisory service

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3
Q

who does approach control service provide an ATS service to?

A

controlled flights associated with arrival and departure

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4
Q

Identification definition

A

The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular aircraft is seen on a situation display and positively identified

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5
Q

Identification methods

A

Turn method
Departing aircraft method
position report method

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6
Q

If a radar controller issues vectors to avoid unknown traffic what should be the controller consider as far as possible?

A

rules of the air

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7
Q

What items shall a controller take into consideration when issuing turns for identification?

A

Terrain
PSR coverage
Rules of the air
other returns
proximity to controlled airspace

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8
Q

Identification by the departing aircraft method must be achieved by?

A

1nm from the end of the runway in use

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9
Q

indentification may be achieved by correlating a particular position indication with a report from the aircraft over a position or navigational fix what are they?

A

VOR/NDB
Geographical point/VRP

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10
Q

How is geographical separation determined?

A

Navigational aid, geographical position
Must be on radar display and approved

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11
Q

If you see a squawk code appearing on a surveillance screen that does not match that which you have allocated, what should you do?

A

Instruct pilot to reset code
if error still persists, enter squawk 0000
if error persists further, instruct pilot to turn off transponder

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12
Q

What does verification mean?

A

a check to confirm that an aircrafts mode c readout is accurate within agreed parameters

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13
Q

When has a level been vacated?

A

+/- 300ft and continuing in anticipated direction

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14
Q

What does maintaining a flight level mean?

A

Mode C readout indicates +/- 200ft from that level in RVSM (FL290-FL410) and +/- 300ft in other airspace

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15
Q

When is an aircraft passing through a level?

A

Mode C readout shows that the level has been passed by more than 300ft and is continuing in the required direction

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16
Q

When is an aircraft said to have reached an assigned level

A

3 successive mode c readouts or 15 seconds indicate as appropriate

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17
Q

How close can you get to the edge of controlled airspace?

A

2.5nm

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18
Q

When vectoring is terminated after taking the aircraft off its desired route the controlled shall tell the pilot to?

A

Resume own navigation

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19
Q

When can an aircraft leave controlled airspace?

A

to avoid weather
in an emergency
when the pilot requests to

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20
Q

What is included in the ATIS?

A

Name
indicator
type
designator
time
approach
runway
conditions
braking action
delay
transition level
essential info
METAR

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21
Q

When can reduced runway separation be used?

A

During the hours of daylight, 30 mins after sunrise to 30 mins before sunset

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21
Q

Is there any reduced runway separation minima that can be applied between a preceding landing aircraft and a succeeding departing aircraft?

A

No

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22
Q

What are the aircraft categories of aircraft for reduced runway separation minima?

A

CAT 1- Single propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated take off mass of 2000kg or less
CAT 2- Single propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated take off mass between 2000kg and 7000kg, and twin propeller aircraft below 7000kg
CAT 3- All other aircraft

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23
Q

What pressure setting is used for aircraft flying at flight levels?

A

1013.25 hPa

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24
Q

When do we reference flight levels?

A

above the transition altitude

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25
Q

What is a transition level?

A

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude, located at least 1000ft above the transition altitude

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26
Q

What does the concept of FUA allow states to do?

A

Maximising the use of airspace available.
Airspace should not be designated as either pure military or civil it should be considered as one continuum

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27
Q

What is an ATC instruction?

A

Directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring the pilot to take a specific action

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28
Q

What is a clearance limit?

A

The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance

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29
Q

What items are contained on a clearance?

A

Aircraft Ident
Clearance limit
route of flight
Levels of flight
any necessary instructions

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30
Q

in what order is a conditional clearance given?

A

The callsign
The condition
The clearance
Brief reiteration of the condition

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31
Q

What parts of a clearance shall be readback?

A

ATC route clearances
Clearance and instructions to land, take off, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack
Runway in use, altimeter settings, SSR codes , new comms channels, level instructions, heading and speed instructions
Transition level

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32
Q

What action should be taken in an incorrect readback?

A

correct them immediately

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33
Q

How does an aircraft give notice of difficulties that compel it to land requiring immediate assistance (radio failure)?

A

Flash landing lights/nav lights

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34
Q

What are the emergency phases?

A

Uncertainty phase- INSERFA
Alert phase- ALERFA
Distress phase- DESTRESFA

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35
Q

ATFCM

A

Air traffic flow and capacity management

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36
Q

What is a slot?

A

Calculated take off time

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37
Q

What is the slot tolerance?

A

-5 mins and +10 mins

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38
Q

Why do we have slot tolerances?

A

Alleviates aerodrome congestion
prevents bottlenecks in airspace
Ground delay, saves fuel

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39
Q

who is responsible for slot adherence?

A

ATC and airline operator

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40
Q

Name 2 safety nets

A

Short term conflict alert and RIMCAS

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41
Q

For a given angle of bank, reducing the speed of the aircraft will?

A

Tighten the turn

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42
Q

How do you calculate turns for aircraft with a loss of directional instruments?

A

Time the turn and get the pilot to turn at rate 1

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43
Q

In which classes of airspace can VMC climb/descent happen and at what altitude?

A

Class D and E
Below 10,000ft

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44
Q

What methods can be used to identify an aircraft on a secondary radar?

A

SSR/MLAT label
Mode S recognition
Squawk IDENT
observation of compliance with an instruction

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45
Q

What are the criteria for ADC reduced separation?

A

Wake turbulence minima
Visibility 5km
Cloud ceiling abv 1000ft
Distance markers or surface movement system

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46
Q

What are the levels of FUA?

A

Level 1- strategic
Level 2- pre tactical
Level 3- tactical

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47
Q

What are the 3 types of conditional route?

A

CDR1 pre plannable
CDR2 sometimes plannable
CDR3 never plannable

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48
Q

Pan-Pan call

A

Name of station addressed.
Aircraft ident.
Nature of emergency.
Pilot’s intentions.
Position, level and heading.
Pilot qualification.
Other information (time permitting).

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49
Q

Mayday call

A

Name of station addressed.
Aircraft Ident.
Nature of emergency.
Pilot’s intentions.
Position, level and heading.
Other information (time permitting).

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50
Q

What type of flights can use SIDS & STARS

A

IFR

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51
Q

Purpose of SIDs and STARs

A

terrain clearance.
Radio Communication Failure (RTF)
procedures.
NPRs
uninterrupted climb and descent.
Must cater for the poorest performing
Reduce RTF loading

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52
Q

What is the composition of a STAR?

A

Basic indicator (where en route ends)
Validity indicator (amendment)
Route indicator (route it comes from)

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53
Q

What does a STAR contain?

A

Standard arrival routes
Descent Gradients
Level Restrictions
Speed Limitations
Holding Pattern
Frequency and identity Coding of navigation aids used

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54
Q

What is the composition of a SID?

A

Basic indicator
Validity indicator
Runway indicator

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55
Q

SIDs contain:

A

Standard Departure routes
Frequency and identity coding of navigation aids used
Climb gradients
level restrictions
Speed limitations
Transition altitude

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56
Q

Criteria for 2.5nm separation on approach

A

AIP
BRAKING ACTION
AWARE
Contaminants
Update
Speeds
Wake
Occupancy
Observe
Threshold

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57
Q

What is co-ordination?

A

The act of negotiation between two or more parties
each vested with the authority to make executive
decisions appropriate to the task being discharged.

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58
Q

LOL

A
  • definition of areas of responsibility and common interest,
    airspace structure and airspace classification(s);
  • any delegation of responsibility for the provision of ATS;
  • procedures for the exchange of flight plan and control
    data, including use of automated and/or verbal coordination
    messages;
  • means of communication;
  • requirements and procedures for approval requests
    significant points, levels or times for transfer of
    control;
    significant points, levels or times for transfer of
    communication;
    conditions applicable to the transfer and acceptance
    of control, such as specified altitudes/flight levels,
    specific separation minima or spacing to be established
    at the time of transfer, and the use of automation; ATS surveillance system coordination procedures
    SSR code assignment procedures;
    procedures for departing traffic;
    designated holding fixes and procedures for
    arriving traffic;
    applicable contingency procedures; and
    any other provisions or information relevant to
    the coordination and transfer of control of flights.
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59
Q

What are the 3 methods of co-ordination?

A

Verbally
Electronically
Standing Agreement

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60
Q

What is a standing agreement?

A

A standing agreement is an agreement between two sectors about how they will present certain flights to each other. Telephone coordination only needs to be done if a flight cannot be presented in the agreed manner for whatever reason, or if the conditions of the standing agreement do not apply to a particular flight.

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61
Q

Why is a transfer of communications permitted?

A

So that instructions which become effective later can be issued

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62
Q

When can a transfer of control occur?

A

Agreed Reporting Point,
On estimate for FIR boundary,
At or passing agreed level,
Climbing or descending to agreed level – providing
standard separation exists

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63
Q

When can an aircraft be released to Tower from Area?

A

When whole approach is in VMC

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64
Q

ACC shall tell approach…

A

a) identification, type and point of departure of arriving
aircraft;
b) estimated time and proposed level of arriving aircraft over
holding fix or other specified point;
c) actual time and proposed level of arriving aircraft over
holding fix if aircraft is released to the unit providing
approach control service after arrival over the holding fix;
d) requested type of IFR approach procedure if different to
that specified by the approach control unit
e) expected approach time issued;
f) when required, statement that aircraft has been
instructed to contact the unit providing approach
control service;
g) when required, statement that an aircraft has been
released to the unit providing approach control service
including, if necessary, the time and conditions of
release;
h) anticipated delay to departing traffic due to congestion.

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65
Q

The means of coordination shall be dependent upon:

A

The availability of adequate communications channels.
The functions to be performed.
The types of data to be exchanged.
The letters of agreement.
The processing facilities at the centres concerned.

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66
Q

Possible means of communication may include :

A

Direct speech circuits.
Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication
Network. (AFTN)
Digital data exchange between ATS units.
Direct computer-computer circuits.

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67
Q

Tower must tell approach about:

A

a) arrival and departure times;
b) if required, statement that the first aircraft in an approach
sequence is in communication with and is sighted by the
aerodrome control tower, and that reasonable assurance
exists that a landing can be accomplished;
c) all available information relating to overdue or unreported
aircraft;
d) information concerning missed approaches;
e) information on aircraft that constitute essential local
traffic to aircraft under the control of the approach control
unit concerned.

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68
Q

Co-ordination between positions in a tower

A

a) One aircraft passed to another controller
b) Adjacent sectors may be affected by proximity of aircraft
c) procedural controller delegation to other ATSP.

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69
Q

Steady red ALDIS lamp

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

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70
Q

Red pyrotechnic ALDIS lamp

A

Notwithstanding any previous
instructions, do not land for
the time being

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71
Q

Flashing red ALDIS lamp

A

DO NOT LAND
AERODROME
UNSAFE

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72
Q

Green ALDIS lamp

A

Cleared to land

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73
Q

Flashing Green ALDIS lamp

A

RETURN TO AERODROME AND
WAIT FOR PERMISSION TO LAND

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74
Q

Flashing white ALDIS lamp

A

LAND AT THIS AERODROME & PROCEED TO APRON
(LANDING AND TAXI CLEARANCES TO FOLLOW)

75
Q

Acknowledgement of ALDIS lamp when in flight

A

(1) during the hours of daylight:
— by rocking the aircraft’s wings, except for the
base and final legs of the approach;
(2) during the hours of darkness:
— by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s
landing lights or, if not so equipped, by
switching on and off twice its navigation lights.

76
Q

Acknowledgement of ALDIS lamp when on ground

A

1) during the hours of daylight:
— by moving the aircraft’s ailerons or rudder.
(2) during the hours of darkness:
— by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s
landing lights or, if not so equipped, by
switching on and off twice its navigation lights.

77
Q

VERTICAL OR HORIZONTAL SHALL BE APPLIED
BETWEEN:

A

All flights in Class A and B airspace,
IFR flights in Class C, D and E airspace,
IFR & VFR flights in Class C airspace,
IFR & SVFR,
SVFR (as prescribed by the appropriate authority)

78
Q

Separation Standards are a MINIMA and shall be
increased when:

A

Requested by the pilot,
ATCO considers it necessary.
Directed by the appropriate authority.
Wake Turbulence.

79
Q

*Essential Traffic Information
Shall include:

A

Direction of flight of aircraft concerned.
Type (and Wake Category if req.) of other aircraft.
Cruising level of aircraft concerned; and
1) ETA over the reporting pt. nearest to where the level will
be crossed; or
2) relative bearing of the aircraft concerned in terms of the
12-hour clock as well as distance from the conflicting traffic;
or
3) actual or estimated position of the aircraft concerned.

80
Q

What must you do in a loss of separation?

A

Use every means to obtain required minimum with
least possible delay

81
Q

What is the vertical limit of VFR flight?

A

FL290

82
Q

During operations in or vertical transit through RVSM airspace for non RVSM aircraft, pilots shall report non-approved status:

A

a) at initial call
b) in all requests for level changes; and
c) in all readbacks of level clearances

83
Q

An aircraft may be cleared to a level previously
occupied by another aircraft after the latter has
reported vacating it, except when:

A

–Severe turbulence is known to exist.
–The higher aircraft is effecting a cruise climb.
–The difference in aircraft performance is such
that less than the applicable separation may
result.

84
Q

What is the Level where we start using Mach Numbers? (ICAO)

A

Above FL250

85
Q

Longitudinal separation shall be established by requiring aircraft to:

A

–Depart at a specified time
–To lose time to arrive over a geographical
location at a specified time
–To hold over a geographical location until a
specified time

86
Q

When can 1 minute longitudinal separation be used in departures?

A

When the aircraft take off with diverging tracks of more than 45 degrees immediately after take off

87
Q

When can 2 minute longitudinal separation be used in departures?

A

when the preceding aircraft is 40kt or more faster than the following aircraft and both aircraft will follow the same track

88
Q

When can 5 minute longitudinal separation be used in departures?

A

while vertical separation does not exist if a departing aircraft will be flown through the level of a preceding departing aircraft and both aircraft propose to follow the same track.

89
Q

In applying a time or distance-based
longitudinal separation between aircraft on
same track, caution if…

A

the following aircraft is maintaining a higher airspeed than the preceding

90
Q

Longitudinal Separation shall be established by
requiring aircraft to:

A

Depart at a specified time

To lose time to arrive over a geographical
location at a specified time

To hold over a geographical location until a
specified time

91
Q

For the purpose of application of Longitudinal
Separation, the terms:

A

Same Track
Reciprocal Tracks
Crossing Tracks

92
Q

Same track:

A

When the track of one aircraft is separated from
the track of the other by less than 45°

93
Q

Reciprocal Track:

A

When the track of one aircraft is separated from
the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°

94
Q

Crossing Track:

A

Intersecting tracks which are not classed as
‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’

95
Q

Time based, same level & track
Minimum =

A

15 minutes

96
Q

When would time based separation be reduced to 10 minutes? (same track)

A

if navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed

97
Q

When would time based separation be reduced to 5 minutes? (same track)

A

Provided the preceding aircraft is maintaining a
TAS of 37km/h (20kts) or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, that have reported over
the same exact reporting point or departed
from the same Aerodrome.

Between departing and en-route aircraft
after the en-route aircraft has reported over a
fix, so located as to ensure that 5 minute
separation can be established at the point the
departing aircraft will join the route.

98
Q

When would time based separation be reduced to 3 minutes? (same track)

A

provided the preceding aircraft is maintaining a
TAS of 40kts or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft. (when previously using 5 minutes)

99
Q

TIME BASED – CROSSING TRACKS
Aircraft at same cruising level-

A

15 mins standard

100
Q

TIME BASED – CROSSING TRACKS
Aircraft at same cruising level in Europe?

A

10 mins standard

101
Q

What separation must be maintained during a level change?

A

Whatever longitudinal separation you are using

102
Q

Where lateral separation is not provided, vertical
separation shall be provided
for at least:

A

10 minutes prior to and after the time the aircraft are estimated to pass, or the time the aircraft are estimated to have passed
-Provided that it has been determined that the aircraft have passed each other, this minimum need not apply

103
Q

DISTANCE BASED – SAME TRACK / SAME LEVEL

A

20nm (37km) Provided each aircraft utilises “on-track” DME stations or on-track DME and collocated waypoint if one using GNSS or same waypoint if both using GNSS

104
Q

DISTANCE BASED – SAME TRACK / SAME LEVEL
May be reduced to 10nm (19km)
Provided:

A

The leading aircraft maintains a TAS of 20kts (37km/h) or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. Each aircraft utilizes “on-track” DME stations.

105
Q

What relative angle of crossing tracks is required distance based separation when changing levels?

A

90 degrees

106
Q

Distance based separation on a level change?

A

10nm

107
Q

What distance separation is used for reciprocal tracks?

A

40nm head on
10nm after passing

108
Q

Mach 0.01 =

A

6 knots

109
Q

An allowance of ? mach for each 2-3000ft
level difference will achieve a closer match.

A

0.01

110
Q

Longitudinal separation minima with Mach
number technique based on time.
When the Mach number technique (MNT) is
applied and provided that:

A

a) reported over the
same common point + same track/ diverging tracks until separation is provided; or
b) not reported over the
same common point and it is possible to ensure, that the
appropriate time interval will exist

111
Q

Longitudinal separation minima with Mach
number technique based on time
Between turbojet aircraft on the same track,
whether in level, climbing or descending flight
shall be:

A

10 minutes

112
Q

9 minutes =

A

0.02

113
Q

8 minutes =

A

0.03

114
Q

7 minutes =

A

0.04

115
Q

6 minutes =

A

0.05

116
Q

5 minutes =

A

0.06

117
Q

Lateral separation of aircraft is obtained by
requiring operation:

A

On different routes, or
In different geographical locations

118
Q

Geographical locations are determined by?

A

Visual observation
Use of navigation aids
Use of area navigation (RNAV) equipment

119
Q

Means by which lateral separation may be
applied include the following:

A

-By reference to the same or different geographical locations
-By use of the same navigation aid or method
-By use of different navigation aids or methods
-RNAV operations where RNP is specified on
parallel tracks or ATS routes
-Transitioning into airspace where a greater lateral
separation applies

120
Q

Geographical separation

A

separation positively
indicated by position reports over different
geographical locations as determined visually
or by reference to a navigation aid

121
Q

4 methods of track separation with NAV aids

A

VOR
NDB
VOR/GNSS
GNSS/GNSS

122
Q

VOR track separation

A

Both aircraft are established on radials
diverging by at least 15° and at least one aircraft
is at a distance of 15nm or more from the
facility.

123
Q

NDB track separation

A

Both aircraft are established on tracks to
or from the NDB which are diverging by at least
30° and at least one aircraft at a distance of
15nm or more from the facility.

124
Q

GNSS/GNSS track separation

A

Each aircraft is confirmed to be established on a
track with zero offset between two waypoints
and at least one aircraft is at a minimum distance
from a common point

125
Q

VOR/GNSS track separation

A

the aircraft using VOR is established on a radial
to or from the VOR and the other, using GNSS is
confirmed to be established on a track with zero
offset between two waypoints and at least one
aircraft is at a minimum distance from a
common point

126
Q

What must be ensured when using different navigation aids or methods?

A

There is no route overlap

127
Q

If you are using parallel tracks for separation, must aircraft do?

A

Fly directly on track or on centreline of ATS route

128
Q

What happens if two aircraft are inside the box?

A

Separation is lost

129
Q

RNP 10 =

A

50nm

130
Q

RNP 4 =

A

30nm

131
Q

RNP 2 =

A

15nm

132
Q

WVE

A

Wake vortex encounter

133
Q

A380-800 Max certificated take off mass

A

560,000kg

134
Q

Heavy Wake Category

A

136,000kg or more

135
Q

Medium wake category

A

7001kg-135999kg

136
Q

Light wake category

A

7000kg or less

137
Q

What are the 3 basic effects of wake turbulence on aircraft?

A

Induced roll,
loss of height or rate of climb,
and possible structural stress,
adverse effect on engine

138
Q

The ATCU concerned shall not be required to apply wake turbulence separation:

A

-For arriving VFR flights landing on the same runway as a preceding HEAVY or MEDIUM aircraft
-Between arriving IFR flights executing a visual approach when the aircraft has reported the preceding aircraft in sight and has been instructed to follow and maintain own separation from the aircraft.

139
Q

ARRIVING AIRCRAFT (medium)
Otherwise the following non-radar separation
minima shall be applied:

A

A MEDIUM landing behind a SUPER
= 3 minutes

A MEDIUM landing behind a HEAVY
= 2 minutes

140
Q

ARRIVING AIRCRAFT (light)
Otherwise the following non-radar separation
minima shall be applied:

A

A LIGHT landing behind a SUPER
= 4 minutes
A LIGHT landing behind a HEAVY/MEDIUM
= 3 minutes

141
Q

DEPARTING AIRCRAFT
2 minutes shall be applied between:

A

A non-A380-800 HEAVY taking-off behind a SUPER
or …
A LIGHT/MEDIUM taking-off behind a HEAVY
or …
A LIGHT taking-off behind a MEDIUM

142
Q

DEPARTING AIRCRAFT
3 minutes shall be applied between

A

A LIGHT/MEDIUM taking-off behind a SUPER aircraft are using the same runway or parallel runways,
The projected flight path of the aircraft will cross the
projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same
altitude or less than 1000ft below (this applies with independent runways)

143
Q

INTERMEDIATE DEPARTURES
3 minutes shall be applied between

A

A LIGHT/MEDIUM taking-off behind a HEAVY
Or
A LIGHT taking-off behind a MEDIUM

144
Q

INTERMEDIATE DEPARTURES
4 minutes shall be applied between

A

A LIGHT/MEDIUM taking-off behind a SUPER
When The second aircraft is departing from:
-An intermediate part of the same runway
-An intermediate part of a parallel runway
separated by less than 760m

145
Q

DISPLACED LANDING THRESHOLD
2 minutes shall be applied between

A

An arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM following a HEAVY departure

An arriving LIGHT following a MEDIUM departure, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold.

A departing LIGHT/MEDIUM follows a HEAVY arrival

A departing LIGHT follows a MEDIUM arrival

An arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM aircraft follows a HEAVY departure

An arriving LIGHT follows a MEDIUM departure if projected flight paths are expected to cross.

146
Q

DISPLACED LANDING THRESHOLD
3 minutes shall be applied between

A

A LIGHT/MEDIUM taking-off behind a SUPER arrival

An arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM following a SUPER
departure, if projected flight paths are expected to cross when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold.

A departing LIGHT/MEDIUM follows a SUPER arrival.

An arriving LIGHT/MEDIUM aircraft follows a
SUPER departure, if projected flight paths are
expected to cross.

147
Q

OPPOSITE DIRECTION
2 minutes shall be applied between.

A

A LIGHT/MEDIUM and a HEAVY.

A LIGHT and a MEDIUM when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach,

148
Q

OPPOSITE DIRECTION
3 minutes shall be applied between

A

A LIGHT/MEDIUM and a SUPER when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is:
-Using an opposite direction runway
for take-off
-Landing on the same runway in the opposite direction
-landing on a parallel opposite direction runway
separated by less than 760m

149
Q

In issuing clearances or instructions, air traffic
controllers should take into account the hazards
caused by Jet blast and Propeller slipstream to;

A

▪Taxiing aircraft
▪Aircraft taking-off or landing, particularly when
intersecting runways are being used.
▪Vehicles and personnel operating on the aerodrome.

150
Q

What are the requirements for TCAS II?

A

turbine-powered aeroplanes with a maximum certified take-off mass (MCTOM) of more than 5700 kg or a maximum operational passenger seating
configuration (MOPSC) of more than 19

151
Q

What is ACAS?

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System-
“An aircraft system based on SSR transponder
signals which operates independently of ground
based equipment to provide advice to the pilot
on potential conflicting traffic that are equipped
with SSR transponders”

152
Q

What is TCAS?

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System is an implementation of the ICAO ACAS standard.

153
Q

What does TCAS obtain?

A

range and altitude data obtained by
interrogating other aircraft transponders to
determine the possibility of collision

154
Q

When range and altitude of an intruder are
computed and a collision risk is predicted, TCAS
II will…

A

declare the intruder a “threat” and give
manoeuvre advice in visual and aural form.

155
Q

Mode A/C Transponders (TCAS)

A

Give both Traffic Advisory and Resolution Advisory, but only if
Mode C available but any manoeuvre may not be in the logical
sense.

156
Q

Mode S Transponders (TCAS)

A

‘communicate’ with each other and ‘agree’ a course of action

157
Q

TCAS system components

A

Antennae
TCAS Processor
Transponder Control Panel
Vertical Speed Indicator – Visual Display
Voice Warning System “Traffic Traffic”

158
Q

What does the size of TCAS protected volume depend on?

A

the altitude, speed, and heading of the aircraft involved in the encounter.

159
Q

Hollow cyan (light blue) or white
diamond

A

other traffic.

160
Q

Solid cyan (light blue) or white
diamond

A

proximate traffic

161
Q

Solid yellow or amber circle

A

intruders

162
Q

Solid red square

A

threats

163
Q

TCAS non altitude reporting traffic

A

TCAS has no way of
determining whether this
is a ‘threat’ as no Mode C
data is being transmitted.

164
Q

What is proximity traffic?

A

Any target within 6nm
and within 1200ft

165
Q

Traffic Advisory
TA

A

Traffic assumes “threat” status.
20 – 48 secs before Closest Point of Approach (CPA)
PILOTS ARE ADVISED NOT TO TAKE AVOIDING ACTION ON THE BASIS OF A ‘TA’
MAY REQUEST TRAFFIC INFORMATION FROM ATC.
BUT DON’T ROUTINELY PASS

166
Q

Resolution Advisory RA

A

Starts the conflict resolution process
up to 35 secs before CPA
“Climb, Climb Now”
PILOTS SHALL RESPOND IMMEDIATELY (Disengage
autopilot and respond within 5 seconds, unless
doing so would jeopardise the aircraft)
BUT HAVE BEEN INSTRUCTED TO RESTRICT
MANOEUVRES TO THE MINIMUM NECESSARY TO
RESOLVE CONFLICTION, ADVISE ATC ASAP AND
RETURN TO ORIGINAL FLIGHT PATH AS SOON AS
SAFE TO DO SO.

167
Q

TCAS limitations

A

Enhanced RA “Increase Descent” is inhibited below
1450ft AGL.

A Descend RA is inhibited below 1100ft AGL.

All RAs inhibited below 1000ft AGL.

All spoken messages inhibited below 500ft AGL.

RAs also inhibited when some terrain avoidance
systems or windshear warnings are active

168
Q

What are the frequent causes of nuisance RAs?

A

HIGH VERTICAL SPEED – PARTICULARLY AT LOW
LEVEL AND IN CONGESTED AIRSPACE.

GROUND TESTING OF TRANSPONDERS.

169
Q

ATC notified of RA

A

Do Not Issue Instructions to the Aircraft.

ATC responsibility ceases for provision of
standard separation from affected traffic.

Controllers should not routinely pass traffic
information to aircraft conducting RA
manoeuvres, or other aircraft affected by such
manoeuvres

170
Q

The controller shall resume responsibility for
providing separation for all the aircraft affected
when:

A

1 - The controller acknowledges a report from the
flight crew that the aircraft has resumed the
current clearance; or

2 - The controller acknowledges a report from the
flight crew that the aircraft is resuming the current
clearance and issues an alternative clearance which
is acknowledged by the flight crew.

171
Q

What other systems are available for GA flights to be advised of traffic?

A

TAS
FLARM

172
Q

Alerting Service

A

A service provided to notify appropriate
organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR
aid and assist such organisations as required.

173
Q

Alerting service shall be provided:

A

For all aircraft provided with ATC service.
In so far as practicable, to all other aircraft
having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to
the air traffic services

174
Q

personnel locator beacon frequency

A

121.500

175
Q

RCC

A

rescue co-ordination centre

176
Q

Responsibility for the provision of the Alerting
service shall be provided as follows:

A

Within an FIR:
by an FIC, unless the responsibility for providing
such services is assigned to an ATCU having
adequate facilities for the exercise of such
responsibilities;
Within controlled airspace and at controlled
aerodromes by the relevant ATCU

177
Q

Distress Phase – DETRESFA

A

A situation wherein there is reasonable
certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are
threatened by grave and imminent danger or
require immediate assistance.
1: After alert phase, further attempts to
establish comms more widespread inquiries
point to the probability the aircraft is in
distress, or
2: Fuel on board considered exhausted or
insufficient for aircraft to reach safety, or
3: Info received indicating operating
efficiency of aircraft impaired and a forced
landing is likely, or
4: Info received or reasonably certain aircraft
has or is about to make a forced landing

178
Q

Alert Phase – ALERFA

A

A situation wherein apprehension exists as to
the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
1: After Uncertainty phase, further attempts
to establish comms or further inquiries fail to
reveal news, or
2: Aircraft cleared to land fails to land within 5
mins of landing estimate and comms not
regained, or
3: Information received indicating operating
efficiency of aircraft impaired, but not to
extent forced landing likely, or
4: Aircraft known or believed to be subject of
unlawful interference

179
Q

Uncertainty Phase – INCERFA

A

A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the
safety of an aircraft and its occupants
1: Earliest of no comms from/to
aircraft 30 mins after:
a: time should have been received, or
b: first time unable to contact, or
2: Aircraft fails to arrive within 30
minutes of last notified ETA or
estimated by ATSUs, whichever is later

180
Q

What is the flow management position?

A

A working position established in appropriate air
traffic control units to ensure the necessary interface
with a central management unit on matters
concerning the provision of the air traffic flow
management service

181
Q

What is the FMP responsible for?

A

ensuring the local promulgation of
procedures which affect ATC Units or operators
within the FMP’s area

182
Q

Tactical ATFM operations should consist of:

A

Executing the agreed tactical measures provides a
reduced and even flow of traffic where demand
otherwise exceeds capacity.
Monitoring the evolution of the situation ensures that the ATFM measures applied are having the desired effect
Take or initiate remedial action when long delays are
reported, including re-routing of traffic and flight level allocation, thus utilising the available ATC capacity to the maximum extent

183
Q

Strategic flow management could involve:

A

re-routing
re-scheduling

184
Q

To be efficient and reach the required
objectives, CDM must be an inclusive and
transparent process that:

A
  • up-to-date accurate information.
  • Decisions taken by those best positioned to make them.
  • STAKEHOLDER INPUT
    *CDM
185
Q

How do you calculate delay?

A

CTOT - EOBT - TaxiTime = DELAY

186
Q
A

BTC 5-24 (9 decks)

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