Operations Bulletin Book Flashcards

1
Q

The Operations Division deputy fire chief will provide an incident update to the Homeland Security Emergency Management Agency (HSEMA) every _____ during long-duration incidents and as soon as possible after significant changes in incident status.

A

hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

To ensure that the members stay current on their skills and knowledge, mass casualty task force companies shall drill _____.

A

monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Temperatures above _____ degrees F (actual heat index) or below _____ degrees F (including wind chill) are considered extreme weather conditions and require special considerations for rehab.

A

80; 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An active shooter threat zone can be divided into three areas. The warm zone is considered _____.

A

clear but not secure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the event of an active shooter incident, the first-due battalion fire chief (BFC) is responsible for doing which of the following?

A

Locating the Metropolitan Police Department (MPD) official and establishing Unified Command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

May a hyperglycemic patient who is symptomatic be considered for the Nurse Triage Line (NTL)?

A

No, but he/she may be considered for third-party provider (TPP) transport if he/she is stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following patients is ELIGIBLE for third-party provider (TPP) transport?

A

An OBGYN patient who is 16 weeks pregnant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Rehab Unit is quartered at Engine _____ and is managed by the captain of that engine company. When dispatched, the crew of Engine _____ is responsible for responding to the scene with the unit and operating as assigned in the Rehab Group.

A

5;
5, 23 or 29

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When responding to a suspected homicide victim remaining in public view, DCFEMS personnel shall remove what items from the body?

A

Personnel shall not remove any items from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What shall apply regarding helicopter landing zones (LZs)?

A

All personnel working in or around the LZ shall wear eye protection and helmets properly secured with the chin strap in place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When arriving on the scene of an incident, where should a water supply engine (WSE) stage ideally?

A

Two blocks away from the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What statements about vehicle airbags is TRUE?

A

For some vehicle makes, deactivation will occur in a matter of seconds; others take a few minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What safety procedures will be utilized when responding to a confined space incident?

A

Under no circumstances shall any personnel other than confined space trained and certified personnel enter any permit-required confined space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Company members will perform decontamination on each other after exiting an immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH) atmosphere. What indicates the order in which decontamination and equipment removal shall take place?

A

Decontamination, PPE removal, SCBA removal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If CHEMPACK deployment is needed, the incident commander will notify the Office of Unified Communications (OUC) of this need. Who will assist in ensuring that the procedures required for notification and deployment are followed?

A

The fire liaison officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

From a rehab perspective, what is a form of active cooling?

A

Forearm immersion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Company officers are responsible for continuously assessing their crew at least every _____ minutes and more frequently when working in extreme conditions to determine their need for rehabilitation and to ensure the accountability of the members.

A

45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Members will follow the DCFEMS procedure for transporting motorized wheelchairs. What is the FIRST step of this procedure?

A

Determine whether the motorized wheelchair can be left secured at the incident location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the event of an active shooter incident, where will the Rescue Task Force (RTF)/Suppression Task Force (STF) deploy to treat victims or provide fire suppression functions?

A

The warm zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

All units responding to an active shooter incident will stage a minimum of _____ block(s) away in line of approach or at a designated staging area.

A

three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The initial Rescue Task Force (RTF) team (Recon) to enter the building in an active shooter incident will consist of _____.

A

one firefighter and one company officer

22
Q

To ensure that the members stay current on their skills and knowledge, the Rehab companies are required to drill monthly. These drills will be conducted by each platoon with documentation on DCFEMS Form 53 and submitted to the _____ with a copy submitted to _____.

A

Operations deputy fire chief; their respective battalion chief

23
Q

A triage nurse determines that a patient is eligible for the nurse triage line (NTL) and communicates this to the patient, but the patient still wants to go to the emergency department. What is the NEXT step that DCFEMS personnel should take in this situation?

A

Attempt to convince the patient that the care plan is more appropriate for his/her needs.

24
Q

Which members is complying with DCFEMS policies regarding exposure to illicit drugs?

A

A member washes his/her hands with soap and water when patient care has been completed.

25
Q

The Operations Bulletin Book includes which standard operating procedures for vehicle fires?

A

Because of the danger of projectiles, the best tactic is to approach the vehicle from an angle.

26
Q

What shall apply regarding the use of mobile and portable radios, cellular phones and mobile data terminals (MDTs) at the scene of a pre- detonation incident?

A

Such communication methods may not be used within 500 feet of the incident site but may be used in the staging area.

27
Q

According to the Operations Bulletin Book, the first-arriving truck company at the scene of a structural collapse is responsible for?

A

Establishing Level III accountability.

28
Q

The Operations Bulletin Book includes what procedures for responding to a civil disturbance?

A

Under no circumstances shall Department apparatus or personnel be used for crowd control or crowd dispersal purposes.

29
Q

DCFEMS personnel shall be sent to rehabilitation after completing a work cycle of _____ minutes of intense physical exertion with or without a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).

A

40

30
Q

The Operations Bulletin Book includes what rehabilitation procedures at an incident?

A

Members shall use post-fire decontamination wipes to clean while operating at the incident and prior to and while in rehab.

31
Q

The Operations Bulletin Book defines a bariatric patient as one weighing greater than _____ pounds and/or having a body structure that exceeds the capacity standards for a standard ambulance cot.

A

300

32
Q

In the event of an active shooter incident, where will DCFEMS stage to triage, treat and transport victims?

A

In the cold zone.

33
Q

Once it has been established that there is an active shooter incident and that there are confirmed injuries to civilians, Unified Command will deploy Rescue Task Forces (RTFs). What is the PRIMARY function of RTFs?

A

To rapidly treat, stabilize and remove the injured.

34
Q

Patients at an active shooter incident will be marked and identified by the use of colored glow sticks and/or triage tape. Yellow indicates that the patient is of _____ priority.

A

delayed

35
Q

When treating hemorrhaging patients, DCFEMS emergency medical care providers shall perform the critical actions contained in the acronym THREAT.
What does the “A” in THREAT stand for?

A

Assessment by medical providers.

36
Q

Once providers rule out a patient’s need for advanced life support (ALS) treatment and transport, they shall determine whether the patient is eligible for referral to the nurse triage line (NTL). What is one of the inclusion criteria for the NTL?

A

The patient requires at most a BLS level of care.

37
Q

What is an indicator of a Priority 1 (Unstable) patient?

A

Allergic reaction with hypotension.

38
Q

Visible drug powder exposure to the skin shall be managed by _____.

A

rapidly flushing the exposed skin and washing with soap and water

39
Q

Members are requested to respond to an incident of natural gas burning outside of a structure. Should the members attempt to extinguish the fire?

A

No, but they should hose down combustibles to prevent the fire from spreading to adjacent structures.

40
Q

In the event of a tunnel emergency, what is the PREFERRED method of communicating meter readings when making entry into the tunnel?

A

A mine phone.

41
Q

Units operating on local alarms without a BFC assigned shall conduct operations on Talkgroup ___.

A

02 MAIN

42
Q

Crews will be rotated through rehab for rest, evaluation and treatment after using on full SCBA cylinder or the equivalent, or after completing a work cycle of ___ minutes of intense physical exertion with or without SCBA, shorter times must be considered during extreme weather conditions or periods of extreme physical exertion, under the discretion of the IC

A

40

43
Q

DCFEMS department will provide certain support of routine tactical operations for the MPD. What correctly describes procedure with regard to this support?

A

If a deployment of FEMS resources is necessary, units shall not self deploy and will wait for the orders to come from the EMS group supervisor

44
Q

All unit responding to an active shooter incident will stage ____, or at a designated staging area.

A

A minimum of 3 blocks away in line of approach

45
Q

To ensue the safety of all emergency workers at the scene of an accident, on which vehicles should member cut or disconnect the 12 volt battery cable?

A

On all vehicles

46
Q

When responding to a suspected radiological release , if victims are present or the likelihood is great, fire department personnel may begin life saving actions. If initial Fire Department personnel are not equipped with radiological dosimeters, they may conduct life saving operations for a maximum of ___ minutes.

A

15 minutes

47
Q

Your unit is equipped with a carbon monoxide meter at the scene of a carbon monoxide incident. According to the operations bulletin book, what procedure is PROPER in this situation?

A

Terminate the incident when the meter reads below 8 parts per million.

48
Q

A tanker vehicle containing a flammable liquid has rolled over, and there are no leaks. What procedure and response guidelines is PROPER in this situation?

A

If an entrapment of a vehicle occupant is involved, power tools used to cut or drill must not generate a spark or excessive heat. Hose line can be used for cooling.

49
Q

What safety procedure will be utilized when responding to all water and ice rescue incidents?

A

Never tie a rope around someone in swift water. A person at the end of a tensioned rope will immediately plane to the bottom, drowning them

50
Q

There are four sources of voltage available to the street car. Which receives electrical energy from the overhead catenary system (OCS) and applies it directly to the streetcar to run the streetcar?

A

Pantograph

51
Q

If a truck company is utilized at a highway incident, and it is not the first arriving apparatus, how will it park or position itself?

A

Behind the engine company where it will provide an additional level of protection.