Feb ’21 Flashcards

1
Q

D was entrapped where:

A

-The criminal design originated with law enforcement officers, and
-The defendant was not predisposed to commit the crime prior to contact by the government.

The prosecution may use prior crimes to show predisposition, but only if they are:
-close in time,
-similar, and
-such that the probative value outweighs the prejudice.

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2
Q

Possession and distribution of a drug requires that D knew…

A

…the character of the substance possessed and distributed.

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3
Q

An accommodation defense does not result in ___ but rather in ___.

A

Acquittal; mitigation of the sentence.

Must prove motivation was to accommodate another.

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4
Q

Opening an unlocked door ___ sufficient for a “breaking.”

A

Is

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5
Q

Statutory burglary does not require…

A

A breaking if it was done at night.

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6
Q

Can a court overrule a criminal defendant’s objection to a joint trial?

A

Yes. It is within the court’s discretion.

The main inquiry is whether the objecting party would be prejudiced, e.g. by unrelated crimes of a codefendant.

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7
Q

How can a seller create an express warranty without using that language or even intending to?

A

Where a seller makes an affirmation of fact or promise that relates to the goods and becomes part of the basis of the bargain, it creates an express warranty that the goods will conform to that affirmation or promise.

Same for descriptions. Not for opinions.

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8
Q

When does an implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose exist?

A

Where the seller at the time of contracting has reason to know any particular purpose for which the goods are required and that the buyer is relying on the seller’s skill or judgment to select or furnish suitable goods, there is unless excluded or modified an implied warranty that the goods shall be fit for such purpose.

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9
Q

When does an implied warranty of merchantability exist?

A

Goods purchased from a merchant are implicitly warranted to be fit for their ordinary purpose so as to pass without objection in the trade.

A merchant is a person who deals in goods of the kind or otherwise by his occupation holds himself out as having knowledge or skill peculiar to the practices or goods involved in the transaction or to whom such knowledge or skill may be attributed by his employment of an agent or broker or other intermediary who by his occupation holds himself out as having such knowledge or skill.

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10
Q

Unless the circumstances indicate otherwise, all implied warranties are excluded by expressions like…

A

…”as is,” “with all faults” or other language which in common understanding calls the buyer’s attention to the exclusion of warranties and makes plain that there is no implied warranty.

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11
Q

Revocation of acceptance requires that:

A

-the nonconformity substantially impairs the value of the goods;
-acceptance was reasonably induced by the difficulty of discovering the nonconformity before acceptance, or by the seller’s assurance to cure;
-the buyer gave notice of revocation within a reasonable time after discovering the nonconformity and before any substantial change in condition of the goods not caused by their own defects.

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12
Q

What is the measure of damages for breach of express warranty discovered after acceptance?

A

Buyer has a choice:

-revoke and refund plus incidental; or
-cost of repair plus incidental.

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13
Q

A lawyer shall not act as an advocate in an adversarial proceeding in which the lawyer is likely to be a…

A

…necessary witness.

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14
Q

Two persons can enter into a binding contract not to revoke or amend their wills, but the agreement must be…

A

…explicit and will not be inferred simply from execution of reciprocal wills.

Proof of the contractual nature of this agreement between testators must be clear and satisfactory.

The proof could be in the form of an express statement in the Wills, testimony by witnesses as to “admissions” by the testators, or circumstances that imply an agreement.

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15
Q

Enforcement of an oral contact against someone now deceased requires…

A

…corroboration from a source other than the party seeking enforcement and not in their control.

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16
Q

The two requirements for finding that a document is a testamentary instrument are…

A

…capacity and testamentary intent.

Testamentary intent entails reference to property, persons, and death and a desire that the document itself effect the transfer of property to persons at death.

At least some evidence of such intent must appear on the face of the Will.

[Feb. ’15:] The elements of capacity include showing that the testator had, at time of execution, “the mental capacity to (a) know the nature of his property, (b) the natural objects of his bounty (his heirs), (c) be capable of forming an orderly plan of disposition and (d) understand the disposition made by the will.”

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17
Q

For a testamentary instrument to serve as a will it must also be…

A

…valid, i.e., properly executed.

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18
Q

A holographic will must be:

A

-entirely in the handwriting of the testator (as proved by two witnesses familiar with their handwriting);
-signed by the testator (using any marking the testator would ordinarily use);
-showing evidence of testamentary intent on its face.

19
Q

The Virginia Freedom of Information Act requires…

A

…that public bodies shall: (a) have all meetings open to the public, unless a specific exemption for a closed meeting applies; (b) give notice of the date, time, and location of its meetings by posting on its website, posting area, and at the office of the clerk or chief administrator; (c) allow their meetings to be filmed; and, (d) shall keep proper minutes of their meetings.

“meeting” means an informal assemblage of (i) as many as three members or (ii) a quorum, if less than three, of the constituent membership of any public body.

20
Q

The VA FIA requires that unless otherwise required by law or subject to a specific exemption under the Act, all ___ shall be…

A

public records

open to citizens of the Commonwealth and representatives of newspapers and magazines with circulation in the Commonwealth.

This section also requires that a public body make 1 of 5 responses in writing to a request for records within 5 working days of the request.

21
Q

The Virginia Code provides that a locality may permit the temporary use of public rights-of-way for

A

…other than public purposes and close the rights-of-way for public use and travel during temporary use.

22
Q

The Virginia Code provides that unless otherwise specifically provided for by the (Virginia) Constitution or by other general or specific law, an ordinance may be adopted by…

A

…a majority of those present and voting at any lawful meeting.

23
Q

The mayor ___ have veto power.

A

Does not.

24
Q

No rights of a city or town in and to its waterfront, wharf property, public landings, wharves, docks, streets, avenues, parks, bridges, or other public places, or its gas, water, or electric works shall be sold except by an ordinance passed by a recorded affirmative vote of…

A

…three-fourths of all the members elected to the council.

25
Q

A sheriff may only serve the summons and complaint in…

A

…their county/city or in a contiguous county/city.

26
Q

Process must be served by…

A

…any person of age 18 years or older and who is not a party or otherwise interested in the subject matter of the controversy.

27
Q

A foreign corporation which has properly registered to do business in Virginia may be served on…

A

…any officer, director, or registered agent of the foreign corporation.

[July ’16:] manager is not proper.

28
Q

Improper service may be forgiven where…

A

…D actually receives process in a timely manner (within a year).

Does not apply to divorce and annulment.

29
Q

The statute of limitations for personal injury is ___.

A

Two years.

[Feb ’16:] day of the injury doesn’t count, if period ends on a weekend, a party has until the next working day to file.

30
Q

Where a case does not qualify as a category A venue case, venue is proper where…

A

either of the defendants resides, where a defendant has appointed a registered agent to receive process, or where the cause of action arose.

31
Q

A defendant must object to this venue within ___ days (or within the period of extension of time for filing responsive pleadings).

A

21 days.

D must also set forth where he believes venue to be proper.

[Feb ’16:] Motion should be to transfer, not to dismiss.

32
Q

A demurrer…

A

…tests the legal sufficiency of the complaint (or counterclaim/crossclaim/third-party claim).

[From July ’19:]

Must be filed in writing, within 21 days of service of process unless the trial judge grants leave for additional time within which to file it. The demurrer must state the specific grounds (not merely failure to plead a cause of action), and the trial judge may look only to the face of the plaintiff’s pleading in ruling on the demurrer.

[From July ’20:]

The standard is whether, taking the facts alleged in the Complaint as true and viewed in the light most favorable to the plaintiff, a cause of action has been stated.

33
Q

Where a party is an improper defendant, they should…

A

…file a plea of misjoinder.

34
Q

Usually a party cannot be held liable on a negotiable instrument unless it bears…

A

…her signature or the signature of an authorized representative.

35
Q

Where an account is in joint tenancy with the right of survivorship, a creditor of one of the owners who is a judgement debtor ___ reach the debtor’s share of the account.

A

Can.

This results in a lien on the debtor’s right to receive the money in the bank account.

There is a presumption that when an account is owned by a husband and wife, they own it equally.

36
Q

How to garnish?

A

21 days after judgement, file a Suggestion in Garnishment, that requests the Clerk’s Office of the court to issue a writ of execution and garnishment on the parties’ bank account.

37
Q

A minor who ostensibly enters into a contract can…

A

…either honor the deal or void the contract.

Upon reaching age 18, he must act promptly to void the contract.

38
Q

An unenforceable contract may still be upheld under…

A

…quantum meruit.

Where service is performed by one, at the instance and request of another….

Damages amount to the reasonable value of the work performed, less the compensation received for that work.

39
Q

Federal law rules about insufficient pleadings:

A

Formulaic assertions of facts and conclusions would not suffice to allege a viable complaint.

Complaints lack plausibility when the allegations are consistent with conduct for which defendants would not be liable.

40
Q

Under FRCP ___, a party can be sanctioned where electronically stored information that…

A

32.

…should have been preserved in the anticipation or conduct of litigation is lost because a party failed to take reasonable steps to preserve it, and it cannot be restored or replaced through additional discovery.

41
Q

Plaintiff could bring a ___ based on newly discovered evidence.

A

motion for relief or motion to vacate the judgment under FRCP 60(b).

42
Q

A partner is ___ from the partnership upon death.

A

Dissociated.

Disassociation does not necessarily trigger dissolution and winding up of the partnership. However, to continue the partnership must buy out the dissociated partner’s interest.

The buy-out price is greater of the partnership’s (1) liquidation value (partner’s share if business were liquidated) or (2) going-concern value (liquidation value + good will), on the date of dissociation.

The dissociated partner will remain liable only to a third party who transacted business with the partnership within one year of the dissociation and who reasonably believed that the dissociated partner was still a partner without notice or knowledge otherwise.

Partnership must indemnify the dissociated partner for all partnership obligations, whether incurred before or after the partner’s dissociation.

43
Q

In naming a law firm, it is misleading to use the name of a lawyer…

A

…not associated with the firm or a predecessor of the firm, or the name of a nonlawyer.

A lawyer shall not make a false or misleading communication about the lawyer or the lawyer’s services.