Flight Operations

Question 1

One of the main advantages of the axial flow compressor type of gas turbine engine as compared to the centrifugal type is:

A) comparatively small frontal area of the compressor
B) lower weight
C) increased efficiency over a wider RPM range
D) ease of manufacture

Answer 1

A) comparatively small frontal area of the compressor

Question 2

That section of a turbine engine which extracts energy from the expanding high velocity combustion gases to drive the compressor section(s) and fan (or propeller) is the :

A) diffuser section
B) turbine section
C) booster fan section
D) accessory drive section

Answer 2

B) turbine section

Question 3

That component of a gas turbine engine which is located at the outlet side of a centrifugal compressor and whose function is to convert high velocity airflow into high pressure airflow for delivery to the combustion section is known as the:

A) booster fan section
B) convergent delivery duct
C) planetary drive section
D) diffuser section

Answer 3

D) diffuser section

Question 4

The majority of the energy produced in the burner section of a turbojet engine is used for?

A) Engine Thrust
B) Hot Bleed Air
C) Running the engine compressor
D) Engine noise

Answer 4

C) Running the engine compressor

Question 5

In a turbo-fan engine, why is bypassed air more efficient at creating engine thrust?

A) Cooler by passed air is more dense than hot exhaust air, therefore containing more energy
B) The burned fuel mixed with the core air does not produce usable thrust
C) It is not more efficient, the benefit to bypassed air is a reduction in noise
D) Since bypassed air is not used to rotate the compressor section of the engine it can produce more forward thrust

Answer 5

A) Cooler by passed air is more dense than hot exhaust air, therefore containing more energy

Question 6

Engine N1 and N2 gauges are an indication of what?

A) The rotation rate of the compressor and turbine sections respectively, expressed as a percentage
B) Alternative ways of displaying Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) on digital EFIS displays
C) Percentage of thrust the engine is producing(N1) as compared to what it should be producing (N2)
D) The rotation rate of the low and high pressure compressors respectively, expressed as a percentage

Answer 6

D) The rotation rate of the low and high pressure compressors respectively, expressed as a percentage

Question 7

When starting a gas turbine engine the two primary gauges to observe are:

A) the low pressure compressor and the exhaust gas temperature
B) the propeller RPM and the exhaust gas temperature
C) the high pressure compressor and internal turbine temperature
D) the compressor turbine and the free turbine

Answer 7

C) the high pressure compressor and internal turbine temperature

Question 8

The relationship between the mass flow of cold air through the fan to the mass flow of the hot air through the turbine is known as the:

A) recovery ratio
B) bypass ratio
C) power extraction ratio
D) engine pressure ratio

Answer 8

B) bypass ratio

Question 9

What provides the rotational energy for an axial flow compressor in a turbojet engine?

A) The low pressure compressor obtains energy from the high pressure compressor which has a higher rotation rate
B) Electrical energy produced from a generator attached to the constant speed drive
C) The engine turbine using bleed air transferred through high stage bleed ducts
D) The engine turbine using energy from hot exhaust gasses exiting the engine’s burner section

Answer 9

D) The engine turbine using energy from hot exhaust gasses exiting the engine’s burner section

Question 10

What occurs in the burner section of a gas turbine?

A) Fuel is mixed with compressed air then ignited to create the energy needed to run the engine
B) The fuel/air mixture which enters the burner is ignited to create the energy needed to run the engine
C) Excess fuel not used to produce thrust is collected here and ignited in order to run the engine’s compressor
D) Fuel is mixed with air and ignited before moving through the engine compressor and turbine

Answer 10

A) Fuel is mixed with compressed air then ignited to create the energy needed to run the engine

Question 11

EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio) is correctly defined as:

A) the ratio of turbine discharge total pressure to the total pressure at the compressor inlet
B) the ratio of engine compressor discharged pressure to the engine inlet total pressure
C) the ratio of turbine inlet pressure to turbine discharge pressure
D) the ratio of fan section airflow to basic engine airflow

Answer 11

A) the ratio of turbine discharge total pressure to the total pressure at the compressor inlet

Question 12

Compressor stall is caused by:

A) the fuel control unit scheduling an inadequate fuel flow to the primary fuel nozzles
B) below normal internal temperatures at the power turbine section
C) excessive angle of attach on the compressor blades
D) stator blade warping when the engine is operating at a high EPR setting

Answer 12

C) excessive angle of attach on the compressor blades

Question 13

In identifying a compressor stall condition, which of the following would be the predominant symptoms?
1. loud explosive bangs
2. high oil temperature
3. lower EGT or ITT reading
4. lower torque or N1 reading
5. higher than normal fuel
6. higher compressor readings flow
7. higher EGT or ITT reading
8. engine surging

A) 1,4,7,8
B) 1,3,5,8
C) 3,4,6,8
D) 2,4,6,7

Answer 13

A) 1,4,7,8

Question 13

The purpose of a compressor bleed valve in a gas turbine engine is to:

A) provide hot air for anti-ice purposes
B) maintain a constant pressure across compressor and turbine sections of the engine
C) regulate gas generator RPM during rapid acceleration of the engine
D) reduce the possibility of compressor stall

Answer 13

D) reduce the possibility of compressor stall

Question 14

The stationary blade-type airfoil devices that are installed between each compressor stage in order to direct the airflow into succeeding stages at the optimum angle in an axial flow compressor are known as:

A) cascade vanes
B) stators
C) impeller blades
D) diffuser vanes

Answer 14

B) stators

Question 15

A “hung” or false start of a gas turbine engine is one in which:

A) the engine lights up, but the exhaust gas temperature exceeds the allowable limit for an engine start
B) the engine lights up normally, but the RPM, rather than increasing to idling speed, remains at some lower speed
C) too high a fuel flow was scheduled before the engine attained self-accelerating speed
D) the engine shaft bows preventing rotation of the compressors

Answer 15

B) the engine lights up normally, but the RPM, rather than increasing to idling speed, remains at some lower speed

Question 16

Which of the following statements is true with reference to an engine hot start?

A) The engine lights up normally, but the RPM, rather than increasing to that of idle speed, remains at some lower value
B) The engine lights up normally, however the exhaust gas temperature readings are higher than a normal start
C) During the start the internal turbine temperatures exceed the maximum allowable limit potentially causing damage to internal engine components
D) During the start the exhaust gas temperature exceeds the maximum allowable limit potentially causing damage to the engine cowlings and tail pipe

Answer 16

C) During the start the internal turbine temperatures exceed the maximum allowable limit potentially causing damage to internal engine components

Question 17

When air is extracted from the compressor section for service functions such as air conditioning or anti-icing then:

A) thrust will decrease and turbine temperature will decrease
B) thrust will increase due to increased combustion chamber efficiency
C) thrust will decrease and turbine temperature will increase
D) thrust will increase and exhaust gas temperature will decrease

Answer 17

C) thrust will decrease and turbine temperature will increase

Question 18

Which of the following statements is true with reference to thrust reversers on turbofan engines?

A) Clamshell type reversers are mounted around the engine exhaust duct and can only re-direct the hot gases exiting from the hot section forward
B) Target type reversers utilize target doors and turning vanes to redirect both hot and cold thrust forward
C) On Cascade type reverses, blocker doors seal off the fan exit as a sleeve moves to expose the cascade vanes
D) Variable Fan reverses adjust the pitch of the fan blades to re-direct the fan air forward

Answer 18

C) On Cascade type reverses, blocker doors seal off the fan exit as a sleeve moves to expose the cascade vanes

Question 19

On a low-bypass turbofan engine, how much of engine thrust is reversed when clamshell type engine reversers are deployed on landing?

A) 100%
B) between 50% to 75% depending on aircraft design
C) the effectiveness of reverse thrust is dependent on aircraft velocity
D) there will always be some forward thrust produced with engine reversers deployed

Answer 19

A) 100%

Question 20

On large turbofan engines reverse thrust is accomplished by which of the following?

A) Reverse thrust is accomplished by pivoting a number of target type blocker doors to deflect the fan airstream forward
B) Target doors which are mounted on the rear section of the engine nacelle open to form a clamshell behind the engine diverting fan and hot exhaust air forward
C) A translating sleeve moves rearward to move the blocker doors in to position and expose the cascade vanes. The blocker doors divert the fan air through the cascades accomplishing reverse thrust
D) Both a and c

Answer 20

D) Both a and c

Question 21

During “BETA” operation in a turbo-prop aircraft, power lever position

A) schedules the operation of the constant speed unit
B) controls both blade angle and fuel flow ( Beta plus power range)
C) determines the amount of negative torque signal fed to the constant speed unit
D) automatically programs the amount of oil entering the pitch lock regulator

Answer 21

B) controls both blade angle and fuel flow ( Beta plus power range)

Question 22

A turboprop power plant design known as a “FREE TURBINE” type is one in which:

A) there are two separate shaft- one to drive the compressor section and the other to transmit power to the reduction gearbox and thus turn the propeller
B) the reduction gearbox and thus turn the propeller
C) the reduction gearbox unit is mounted on the outside of the engine in order to isolate the turbine section
D) the compressor turbine and the accessory drive turbine are allowed to rotate in opposite direction in order to reduce gearbox vibration

Answer 22

A) there are two separate shaft- one to drive the compressor section and the other to transmit power to the reduction gearbox and thus turn the propeller

Question 23

In an aircraft equipped with reversing-type propellers, undesired propeller reversing in flight is prevented by the installation of which of the following devices?

A) low pitch synchro-transducers
B) a high pitch bias actuator and associated blade angle detector
C) a high pitch governor
D) low pitch stops

Answer 23

D) low pitch stops

Question 24

In reference to a turbo-prop, constant speed operation is achieved by

A) using the exhaust air exiting from the power section to drive the power section
B) using a series of reduction gear to reduce the turbofan speed to approximately 2000 RPM
C) brining the condition levers to the appropriate setting for the phase of flight
D) matching the propeller load to the gas turbine power produced

Answer 24

D) matching the propeller load to the gas turbine power produced

Question 25

What is the main function of an Electronic Engine Control (EEC) or an Electronic Control Unit (ECU)?

A) To act in a fuel metering capacity to provide accurate fuel flow information to the cockpit engine gauges
B) To provide accurate power or thrust information to the engine power gauges in the cockpit
C) To regulate engine fuel flow to maintain specific power settings as flight and environmental conditions change
D) In fly by wire designed aircraft to transmit the desired power or thrust from the throttle quadrant to the fuel control unit on the engines

Answer 25

C) To regulate engine fuel flow to maintain specific power settings as flight and environmental conditions change

Question 26

APU’s on aircraft are generally used for…

1. generation of electrical power
2. heating/air-conditioning of the aircraft on the ground
3. hydraulic system operation when the A/C is on the ground
4. starting jet engines
5. aircraft anti-icing systems on the ground

A) 1,2,5
B) 1,3,5
C) 2,4,5
D) 1,2,4

Answer 26

D) 1,2,4

Question 27

The flex temperature for a gas turbine engine refers to:

A) The maximum operating temperature limit for maximum continuous power.
B) The maximum operating temperature limit for compressor turbine section of the engine
C) The ambient air minimum starting temperature for the engine
D) The assumed temperature used in calculating the reduced thrust settings for take-off

Answer 27

D) The assumed temperature used in calculating the reduced thrust settings for take-off

Question 28

What is the purpose of assumed temperature or de-rated takeoffs?

A) They reduce fuel consumption
B) They increase passenger comfort by slowing acceleration
C) They reduce engine noise for certain noise abatement procedures
D) They reduce engine wear

Answer 28

D) They reduce engine wear

Question 29

In a turbojet aircraft, how does switching engine bleed-air valves off for departure provide better takeoff performance?

A) No bleed-air allows for the pressurization outflow valve to close reducing drag
B) This only applies to aircraft that use bleed-air for wing anti-ice
C) Having bleed-air valve closed allows the engines to produce greater thrust
D) Switching bleed-air off moves engine compressor blades to higher compression levels

Answer 29

C) Having bleed-air valve closed allows the engines to produce greater thrust

Question 30

A bleed leak warning light illuminated in the cockpit could be an indication that there is a:

A) break bleed line fluid leak, which could result in a primary brake system failure
B) hydraulic air bleed system failure resulting low hydraulic system pressure due to lack of air pressure in the reservoir
C) bleed air leak within air cycle compressor and expansion turbine resulting in a pressurization failure
D) pneumatic air bleed leak which left unattended could result in a fire within the aircraft

Answer 30

D) pneumatic air bleed leak which left unattended could result in a fire within the aircraft

Question 31

Which of the following statements best describes an aircraft pressurization system?

A) Bleed air from the engines is continually distributed to the cabin area, outflow valves control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization
B) Bleed valves control the amount of bleed air allowed to enter the cabin area to obtain the desired level of pressurization
C) Ram air is vented into the cabin area utilizing ram air turbines, outflow valves control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization
D) Engine driven air cycle packs distribute air to the cabin area, inflow valve control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization

Answer 31

A) Bleed air from the engines is continually distributed to the cabin area, outflow valves control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization

Question 32

With respect to aircraft pressurization systems, identify which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Modern aircraft pressurization systems start to pressurize the cabin during the take-off run at which time a descent would be noted on the cabin rate of climb/descent indicator
B) The maximum cabin altitude of a pressurized aircraft should not normally exceed 12,500 feet ASL
C) During a normal pressurized climb, following take-off, the cabin rate of climb would be less than the aircraft rate of climb
D) If during descent the aircraft altitude becomes equal to the cabin altitude, the rate of descent of both the cabin and the aircraft will be the same

Answer 32

B) The maximum cabin altitude of a pressurized aircraft should not normally exceed 12,500 feet ASL

Question 33

What is the purpose of a safety out flow valve on an aircraft pressurization system?

A) To prevent too low a cabin differential pressure from being reached
B) To vent cabin air overboard when cabin altitude is reached
C) To prevent ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin pressure
D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel

Answer 33

D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel

Question 34

The maximum ratio of cabin air pressure to ambient air pressure that a pressurization system and aircraft pressure vessel can sustain is referred to as ______.

A) max cabin altitude
B) max vessel pressure
C) max ambient pressure
D) max diff

Answer 34

D) max diff

Question 35

With respect to aircraft pressurization systems, what is the purpose of a negative pressure relief valve?

A) To prevent the cabin differential pressure from becoming too low
B) To vent cabin air overboard when cabin altitude is reached
C) To prevent outside ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin internal pressure
D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel

Answer 35

C) To prevent outside ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin internal pressure

Question 36

The pilot of a small turbojet aircraft cruising at FL330 wishes to descend and land at an airport that is 2,000ft ASL. The cabin altitude of the aircraft is 7,000ft ASL. If the jet descends at a rate of 2,500ft per minute, what rate of descent should the pilot set on the cabin rate selector to affect a cabin differential pressure of zero on landing?

A) 500 ft./min
B) 400 ft./min
C) 300 ft./min
D) 200 ft./min

Answer 36

B) 400 ft./min

Question 37

A battery temperature overheat warning on the cockpit advisory panel could be an indication of a:

A) low battery voltage
B) high battery voltage
C) battery thermal runaway
D) ground power failure causing batter depletion

Answer 37

C) battery thermal runaway

Question 38

What functions do Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) and Inverters (INVs) perform on aircraft electrical system?

A) TRU’s are employed to convert DC to AC and INV’s are employed to convert AC to DC
B) TRU’s are employed to convert AC to DC and INV’s are employed to convert DC to AC
C) TRU’s provide automatic bus fault protection on an aircraft DC system and INV’s provide automatic overload protection on an aircraft AC system
D) TRU’s are employed as voltage regulators in AC systems and INV’s are employed as voltage regulators of DC system

Answer 38

B) TRU’s are employed to convert AC to DC and INV’s are employed to convert DC to AC

Question 39

An aircraft’s electrical bus bar system can best be described as:

A) a carefully organized bunch of separate but interconnected circuits which allow important circuits to be isolated or powered by alternate sources in the event of component failure
B) multifunctional devices which provide voltage regulation, generator current direction, circuit and generator protection
C) a system of electrical circuits used to control power fluctuations or surges
D) a passive system which transfers electrical power between AC and DC powered systems depending on system demand

Answer 39

A) a carefully organized bunch of separate but interconnected circuits which allow important circuits to be isolated or powered by alternate sources in the event of component failure

Question 40

Aircraft electrical circuit protection is provided by which of the following devices

1. TRU
2. GCU
3. AC GEN
4. INV
5. CB
6. AC and DC EMER BUS

A) 1,2,6
B) 1,3,5
C) 2,5
D) 2,3,6

Answer 40

C) 2,5

Question 41

Many large turbine aircraft employ jet pumps to draw fuel into collector lines in order to ensure the high pressure fuel pump has enough fuel to supply the engine. There jet pumps are activated by:

A) high pressure fuel from the high pressure fuel pump
B) electrical boost pumps located in the fuel tanks
C) the hydromechanical fuel control unit
D) direct drive from the engine accessory section

Answer 41

A) high pressure fuel from the high pressure fuel pump

Question 42

Which of the follow statements is false with regards to capacitance fuel measurement system?

A) It remains accurate in all phases of flight
B) The system measures volume of fuel which is then converted to weight by the FMS computer
C) Fuel measurement is achieved electrically without the need for moving parts by converting a capacitance measurement to an equivalent fuel measurement
D) Depending upon the aircraft size there may be multiple fuel capacitance probes connected in parallel in each tank that assist with an average reading of fuel weight

Answer 42

B) The system measures volume of fuel which is then converted to weight by the FMS computer

Question 43

Magnasticks are fuel quantity measuring devices which:

A) are located beneath the fuel caps and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity
B) are located in the refueling panel to permit selection of the desired fuel load and automatic shut-off of the refueling valves when the desired fuel load is boarded
C) are located beneath the wings and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity
D) are located within the fuel tanks and transmit accurate quantity measurements to the fuel quantity gauges in the cockpit

Answer 43

C) are located beneath the wings and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity

Question 44

What function(s) are performed by an accumulator on an aircraft hydraulic system?

A) To prevent fluid flow in the event of a serious system leak
B) To absorb power fluctuations or surges in the system during high system demands and store system pressure to provide backup for key operations in case of pump failure
C) Diverts fluid back to the reservoir as system pressure increases beyond a prescribed elvel
D) To selectively channel hydraulic fluid to a component or components to accomplish specific tasks

Answer 44

B) To absorb power fluctuations or surges in the system during high system demands and store system pressure to provide backup for key operations in case of pump failure

Question 45

The accumulator of an aircraft hydraulic system is pre-loaded to 1,000 PSI. If the system normally operates at a pressure of 3,000 PSI, the system pressure gauge and the accumulator gauge reading after engine start-up would be respectively:

A) 0 and 1,000 PSI
B) 3,000 and 4,000 PSI
C) 3,000 and 3,000 PSI
D) 4,000 and 1,000 PSI

Answer 45

C) 3,000 and 3,000 PSI

Question 46

One method to compensate for variable system demands when one or more subsystems are activated on a hydraulic system is through the installation of _____.

A) pressure control valves
B) fixed displacement hydraulic pumps
C) variable displacement hydraulic pumps
D) actuating cylinders

Answer 46

C) variable displacement hydraulic pumps

Question 47

Which of the following statements best describe the operation of a typical anti-skid device?

A) As an aircraft begins to skid, pumping of the rakes initializes the anti-skid system to control brake pressure in order to obtain maximum stopping performance
B) When the anti-skid control module detects that the wheel speed transducer velocity is lower than the reference speed velocity, a brake release signal is commanded
C) When a wheel speed transducer detects a rapid deceleration, a signal is sent to the normal brake metering valve so that a constant metered pressure is applied to the brakes
D) When the anti-skid control module detects a rapid deceleration in wheel speed, a signal is sent to the anti-skid warning system to advise the crew that a full skid condition is imminent

Answer 47

B) When the anti-skid control module detects that the wheel speed transducer velocity is lower than the reference speed velocity, a brake release signal is commanded

Question 48

Which of the following statements is true with reference to an anti-skid system’s lock wheel and touchdown protection?

A) Lock wheel protection is implemented to automatically brake the main gear wheel following selection of landing gear retraction
B) Lock wheel protection prevents tire scuffing by commanding full brake release following a bounced landing
C) Touchdown protection is implemented when a skid condition is detected within 5 seconds after main gear compression
D) Touchdown protection prevents inadvertent brake application prior to wheel spin up on low friction runways

Answer 48

D) Touchdown protection prevents inadvertent brake application prior to wheel spin up on low friction runways

Question 49

If a Category B item is deferred under the MEL on May2 at 1800Z, when would the MEL expire?

A) At 1800Z on May 5
B) At 0000Z on May 6
C) At 1800Z on May 6
D) At 0000Z on May 5

Answer 49

B) At 0000Z on May 6

Question 50

INDUCED drag is:

A) proportional to the square of the speed
B) proportional to the product of the coefficient of skin friction and the length of the mean camber line
C) inversely proportional to the square of the speed
D) directly proportional to the product of the speed and the square of the wingspan section

Answer 50

C) inversely proportional to the square of the speed

Question 51

When operating an aircraft in the slow flight speed range, the required power is greater than that for endurance because:

A) more of the aircraft’s total weight is acting along the longitudinal axis
B) the L/D ratio is reduced, and the drag is increased
C) greater deflection of elevator control surface is causing a reduced downwash and a distorted boundary layer
D) the L/D ratio is increased, and the drag is increased.

Answer 51

B) the L/D ratio is reduced, and the drag is increased

Question 52

In order to obtain maximum range in a constant wind condition, a pilot who is flying a turbojet aircraft at near optimum altitude and at the recommended airspeed should:

A) maintain airspeed and reduce power as the fuel weight decreases due to burn-off
B) reduce power and indicated airspeed as fuel weight decreases
C) maintain a constant power setting and allow the indicated airspeed to attain the maximum allowable value
D) fly at an airspeed which corresponds to 0.66 x L/D max. x V2

Answer 52

B) reduce power and indicated airspeed as fuel weight decreases

Question 53

Which of the following features will improve the lateral stability of an aeroplane?

A) wing dihedral
B) a yaw damper system
C) servo tabs
D) a differential aileron system

Answer 53

A) wing dihedral

Question 54

An aircraft having wings with a pronounced DIHEDRAL encounters turbulence which causes on wing to lower. Before the dihedral design feature can provide the forces needed to restore the original “wings-level” position:

A) the aircraft must initiate a turn towards the “raised” wing
B) the aircraft must develop a sideslip towards the “dropped” wing
C) the aircraft must develop yawing movement towards the “raised” wing
D) the aircraft must initiate a skid towards the “dropped” wing

Answer 54

B) the aircraft must develop a sideslip towards the “dropped” wing

Question 55

If the C of G of an aircraft is at the most aft limit, what would be the effect on the stability of this aircraft:

A) increased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis
B) increased lateral stability about the longitudinal axis
C) decreased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis
D) decreased lateral stability about the longitudinal axis

Answer 55

C) decreased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis

Question 56

An aircraft has greater longitudinal stability when:

A) the centre of pressure is forward of the C of G
B) the wings have a high angle of incidence
C) the C of G is well forward of the centre of pressure
D) the wings have a high dihedral angle

Answer 56

C) the C of G is well forward of the centre of pressure

Question 57

Why is having a moving horizontal stabilizer a more effective way of trimming large aircraft?

A) At high speeds it provides more longitudinal stability and a higher Critical Mach Number
B) It allows for a greater centre of gravity range and reduces drag in flight
C) At low speeds the elevator is not a large enough control surface to effectively control aircraft pitch
D) At high speeds the elevator is not a large enough control surface to effectively control aircraft pitch

Answer 57

B) It allows for a greater centre of gravity range and reduces drag in flight

Question 58

An aircraft in a constant descent, weight will equal:

A) Vertical component of lift and drag
B) Vertical component of lift only
C) Lift perpendicular to the flight path
D) Resultant of lift and thrust

Answer 58

A) Vertical component of lift and drag

Question 59

A turbojet departing from an airport with a high elevation would have what affect on the takeoff airspeeds and distance?

A) There would not be an affect on airspeeds or takeoff distance
B) V1 & Vr speeds and the takeoff distance would increase
C) The takeoff distance would increase but V1, Vr and V2 would remain the same
D) Vr and V2 speeds would increase

Answer 59

B) V1 & Vr speeds and the takeoff distance would increase

Question 60

Wing tip vortices of MINIMUM strength would be developed by an aircraft:

A) flying at low speed, having a short wing span, and with a clean configuration
B) flying at a high speed, having a long wing span, and with a clean configuration
C) flying at a low speed, having a long wing span, and with a landing configuration
D) flying at a high speed, having a short wing span, and with a clean configuration

Answer 60

B) flying at a high speed, having a long wing span, and with a clean configuration

Question 61

With respect to departing aircraft, it is known that vortex generation is most severe:

A) in that airspace immediately following the point of rotation
B) during the initial acceleration period following the application of take-off thrust
C) at the moment when the aircraft climbs through an altitude equal to three times its wing span
D) during the third segment of the aircraft’s take-off flight path profile

Answer 61

A) in that airspace immediately following the point of rotation

Question 62

Wake turbulence research has disclosed that wing tip vortices of maximum strength are generated by aircraft operating under conditions of:

A) high gross weight, clean configuration and high speed
B) low gross weight, landing configuration and low speed
C) high gross weight, clean configuration and low speed
D) low gross weight, landing configuration and high speed

Answer 62

C) high gross weight, clean configuration and low speed

Question 63

Considering flight in turbulent conditions at a given airspeed, what will the effect of a decrease in aircraft gross weight be:

A) acceleration forces will be higher
B) positive acceleration forces will be higher while negative acceleration forces will be lower
C) acceleration forces will be lower
D) acceleration forces will show no appreciable variation

Answer 63

A) acceleration forces will be higher

Question 64

The speed of sound in the atmosphere is solely dependent upon:

A) air temperature
B) true altitude
C) pressure altitude
D) the number of ionized particles present in a given volume of air

Answer 64

A) air temperature

Question 65

Within which of the following Mach ranges does the transonic flight regime usually occur?

A) 1.20M to 2.25M
B) 0.85M to 1.50M
C) 0.75M to 1.20M
D) 0.50M to 1.15M

Answer 65

C) 0.75M to 1.20M

Question 66

The type of airflow normally present within the transonic regime of flight is:

A) subsonic and hypersonic
B) transonic and supersonic
C) supersonic and hypersonic
D) subsonic and supersonic

Answer 66

D) subsonic and supersonic

Question 67

As airflow passes through a shock wave, pressure, temperature and velocity are affected. Which of the following statements would be correct?

A) pressure increases, temperature decreases, velocity decreases
B) pressure decreases, temperature increases, velocity increases
C) pressure decreases, temperature decreases, velocity increases
D) pressure increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases

Answer 67

D) pressure increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases

Question 68

How does Critical Mach Number (Mcrit) change with air temperature?

A) As air temperature increases Mcrit increases
B) As air temperature decreases Mcrit decreases
C) Air temperature has no effect on Mcrit
D) Mcrit will increase only when temperatures are below ISA

Answer 68

C) Air temperature has no effect on Mcrit

Question 69

Critical Mach Number may be defined as:

A) the Vmo structural limit of an aircraft at high altitudes
B) the speed at which supersonic airflow covers the entire wing area of an aircraft
C) the speed at which compressibility effects begin
D) the highest airspeed at which airflow over any part of the aircraft first reaches (but does not exceed) Mach 1.0

Answer 69

D) the highest airspeed at which airflow over any part of the aircraft first reaches (but does not exceed) Mach 1.0

Question 70

Limiting Mach Number may be defined as:

A) the speed at which supersonic airflow covers the entire wing area of an aircraft
B) the Mach speed at which a shock wave first appears on the aircraft
C) the maximum operating speed of an aircraft in relation to the speed of sound
D) the speed at which boundary layer separation first occurs

Answer 70

C) the maximum operating speed of an aircraft in relation to the speed of sound

Question 71

Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the Mach Meter?

A) This instrument contains an airspeed capsule and an altitude capsule
B) Temperature and density errors occur and must be corrected by using a flight computer
C) This instrument calculates the ratio between the aircraft’s TAS and the local speed of sound
D) The same Mach number can occur at markedly different indicated air speeds

Answer 71

B) Temperature and density errors occur and must be corrected by using a flight computer

Question 72

In high speed aircraft, SWEEPBACK design is utilized to:

A) prevent wing tip stalling at approach speeds
B) increase Critical Mach Number
C) prevent aileron control reversal during transonic flight
D) prevent Mach Tuck

Answer 72

B) increase Critical Mach Number

Question 73

An undesirable effect of Sweepback design in a jet aircraft is:

A) a tendency to enter “Jet Upset” when flying in turbulence at high altitudes
B) the formation of leading edge vortices at maneuvering speed
C) “Dutch Roll” tendency
D) longitudinal instability during operation at subsonic speeds

Answer 73

C) “Dutch Roll” tendency

Question 74

How is High & Low Speed Buffet (also known as Coffin’s Corner) affected in a level turn?

A) The high speed buffet boundary will decrease and the low speed buffet will increase
B) The high speed buffet will increase and the low speed buffet will increase
C) The low speed buffet will increase, but the high speed buffet will not change
D) The low speed buffet will increase and the high speed buffet will decrease

Answer 74

D) The low speed buffet will increase and the high speed buffet will decrease

Question 75

When jet transport aircraft are flown at high altitudes, which of the following factors should be considered in preventing the onset of Mach Buffet?

1. Aircraft Weight
2. Angle of Bank
3. Temperature
4. Mach Crit Speed
5. Fuel Loading
6. Upper Level Winds
7. Turbulence Gust Loads
8. Altitude

A) 1,2,6,7
B) 1,3,6,8
C) 2,3,5,7
D) 3,4,5,8

Answer 75

B) 1,3,6,8

Question 76

Wing Vortex Generators are employed on jet aircraft to:

A) increase lateral stability during high speed cruise
B) improve control response while in the approach configuration
C) delay boundary layer separation
D) prevent Mach “tuck” and “roll-off” at transonic speeds

Answer 76

C) delay boundary layer separation

Question 77

On a large transport aircraft, what is the purpose of leading-edge flaps?

A) to increase the angle of attack at low airspeeds
B) to increase the coefficient of lift by changing the camber of wing
C) to increase the aspect ratio of the wing
D) to prevent boundary layer separation

Answer 77

B) to increase the coefficient of lift by changing the camber of wing

Question 78

Slotted Trailing Edge Flaps have what advantage over plain flaps?

A) A slot within the flap allows for easier locating of mechanical linkages
B) Since slotted flaps are smaller in size, then help reduce aircraft weight
C) The slot helps postpone boundary layer separation creating more lift at high flap settings
D) Slotted flaps do not have an advantage over plain flaps

Answer 78

C) The slot helps postpone boundary layer separation creating more lift at high flap settings

Question 79

High performance wings often incorporate a mechanism whose function is to direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge through a slot and along the top of the wing at high angles of attack. This mechanism is known as a:

A) slat
B) spoileron
C) Krueger flap
D) boundary layer energizer

Answer 79

A) slat

Question 80

_______are installed on the upper wing surfaces directly forward of the flaps and consist of panels that assist the ailerons in obtaining maximum roll rates.

A) High speed ailerons
B) Load alleviation devices
C) Roll spoilers
D) Aileron trim tabs

Answer 80

C) Roll spoilers

Question 81

Why do aircraft with inboard and outboard ailerons restrict the movement of the outboard ailerons at high speeds?

A) Outboard ailerons are too small to have a significant effect on roll control at high speeds
B) Outboard ailerons have a greater effect on Coffin’s Corner, particularly low speed buffet
C) In addition to reducing stresses on the wing, the inboard aileron is sufficient to provide roll control
D) Restricting aileron movement helps to increase Critical Mach Number

Answer 81

C) In addition to reducing stresses on the wing, the inboard aileron is sufficient to provide roll control

Question 82

On large transport aircraft ground spoilers provide which of the following aerodynamic characteristics?

A) Reduce lift and increase drag
B) Increase lift and decrease drag
C) Increase lift and drag
D) Increase the camber of the wing to produce more lift

Answer 82

A) Reduce lift and increase drag

Question 83

Which of the following is true with respect to winglets?

A) they reduce profile drag but increase induced drag
B) they reduce induced drag but do cause some increase in form drag
C) they increase profile drag and induced drag
D) they increase induced drag but reduce parasite drag

Answer 83

B) they reduce induced drag but do cause some increase in form drag

Question 84

An automatic system on large transport category aircraft which utilize inputs from air data computers to provide yaw damping and turn coordination is know as a:

A) Rudder Trim Actuator
B) Yaw Damper
C) Auto Fight Control System
D) Digital Flight Rudder Controller

Answer 84

B) Yaw Damper

Question 85

One of the main advantages of CANARD design is:

A) a reduction of “Dutch Roll” tendency
B) a delay of boundary layer separation
C) a reduced stall speeds
D) an increase in critical mach number

Answer 85

C) a reduced stall speeds

Question 86

The calibrated airspeed corrected for adiabatic compressible flow for a certain altitude is known as:

A) True airspeed
B) Rectified airspeed
C) Absolute airspeed
D) Equivalent airspeed

Answer 86

D) Equivalent airspeed

Question 87

Which of the following air conditions would provide the highest indicated airspeed?

A) cold, moist
B) hot, humid
C) cold, dry
D) hot, dry

Answer 87

C) cold, dry

Question 88

Hydroplaning is a phenomenon that occurs when a tire loses contact with the runway surface due to a buildup of water between the tire and the runway. Hydroplaning is a function of:

A) the square of the tire pressure
B) the gross weight of the aircraft
C) the number and size of the aircraft tire
D) the speed of the airplane, tire pressure and water depth

Answer 88

D) the speed of the airplane, tire pressure and water depth

Question 89

Which of the following statements is true with reference to dynamic hydroplaning?

A) It may occur when a runway is contaminated by a thin film of water
B) It normally occurs with a thin film of water on smooth runways or where rubber deposits are present causing the tire to loose partial contact with the runway
C) The tire lifts off the pavement and rides on a wedge of water which causes wheel rotation to stop. It normally does not occur unless a severe rain storm is in progress
D) It occurs when heat is generated during a locked wheel condition, which causes the tire to revert back to its chemical properties

Answer 89

C) The tire lifts off the pavement and rides on a wedge of water which causes wheel rotation to stop. It normally does not occur unless a severe rain storm is in progress

Question 90

A small executive jet aircraft has a main wheel pressure of 135 PSI, and a nose wheel pressure of 45 PSI. Which of the following statements about hydroplaning would be correct?

A) the main wheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the nose wheel
B) the nosewheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the main wheels
C) both the nosewheel and main wheels will hydroplane at the same speed
D) the main wheels will only hydroplane in a crosswind situation and the nosewheel will only hydroplane in a turn

Answer 90

B) the nosewheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the main wheels

Question 91

An aircraft that is flying an ILS approach initially in a headwind situation encounters an abrupt wind shear zone which involves a headwind to a calm wind shear. Which of the following represents the power management required to track the 3 degree glide slope at a constant airspeed during the conditions given?

A) Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a further power increase as the shear is encountered; then a reduction in power to stabilize on a glide slope
B) Initially, a lower than normal power setting followed by a further power decrease as the shear is encountered; then an increase in power to stabilize on a glide slope
C) Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a further power decrease at the shear zone; then an increase when on glide slope
D) Initially, a lower than normal power setting followed by an increase at the shear zone; no further power change required

Answer 91

A) Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a further power increase as the shear is encountered; then a reduction in power to stabilize on a glide slope

Question 92

Aircraft are not certified to successfully complete a go-around without ground contact once it has entered the low-energy landing regime. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the low energy landing regime?

A) Aircraft flaps and landing gear are in the landing configuration
B) Airspeed is stable at Vref+ wind additive
C) Aircraft height is at 50 feet (representative depending on type) or less above the runway elevation
D) Aircraft is in a descent

Answer 92

B) Airspeed is stable at Vref+ wind additive

Question 93

When a constant headwind component shears to a calm wind, the initial cockpit indications to a pilot would be:

A) aircraft pitches up; altitude and indicated airspeed increase
B) aircraft pitches down; altitude and indicated airspeed decrease
C) aircraft pitches up; indicated airspeed decreases; altitude increases
D) aircraft pitches down; altitude decrease; indicated airspeed increases

Answer 93

B) aircraft pitches down; altitude and indicated airspeed decrease

Question 94

On take off you encounter vertical wind shear. What actions should be taken with the aircraft with respect to angle of attack and airspeed?

A) Increase the angle of attack to 10° nose up
B) Ease the nose forward to increase the airspeed
C) Set full power and increase the angle of attack to achieve an airspeed just above the stick shaker
D) Set the power and angle of attack to achieve turbulent penetration speed

Answer 94

C) Set full power and increase the angle of attack to achieve an airspeed just above the stick shaker

Question 95

An aeroplane flying at a given altitude experiences a complete blockage of its static air source. If the aeroplane were to depart from that altitude, the airspeed indicator would:

A) over-read during either descent or climb
B) show no change during any change of altitude
C) under-read during either descent or climb
D) under-read during a climb and over-read during a descent

Answer 95

D) under-read during a climb and over-read during a descent

Question 96

The pendulous unit and the vanes of a pressure-driven attitude indicator are responsible for the acceleration errors noticeable during the take-off phase of flight. The false indications presented to the pilot are:

A) a false left bank
B) a false right bank
C) a false climb
D) a false descent

Answer 96

C) a false climb

Question 97

In transport category aircraft the importance recognizing a stall in flight is paramount to flight safety. Which of the following will always occur in an aerodynamic stall?

1. buffeting
2. high G loads
3. slow speed
4. lots of aerodynamic noise
5. stall warning systems will always activate
6. the aircraft will always descend
7. stall warnings can sometimes be mistaken for high speed warnings.

A) 1,4,6
B) 4,5,6
C) 1,3,5
D) All six answers are correct

Answer 97

A) 1,4,6

Question 98

Your approach is such that you arrive over the landing threshold with a higher than normal airspeed. Which technique should you use to achieve the shortest landing ground roll?

A) set the aircraft down normally and use aerodynamic braking
B) let the aircraft float until the normal touchdown speed is achieved then use medium braking
C) set the aircraft down as soon as possible and use maximum braking
D) flare the aircraft slightly lower than normal and apply the brakes before touchdown

Answer 98

C) set the aircraft down as soon as possible and use maximum braking

Question 99

What are the minimum PAPI Approach Slope Indicator System Safe Obstruction Clearance Are dimensions?

A) 6 degrees on either side of the extended runway centreline out to 4 NM from the threshold
B) 4 degrees on either side of the extended runway centreline out to 4 NM from the threshold
C) 4 degrees on either side of the extended runway centreline out to 6 NM from the threshold
D) 6 degrees on either side of the extended runway centreline out to 6 NM from the threshold

Answer 99

A) 6 degrees on either side of the extended runway centreline out to 4 NM from the threshold

Question 100

Which of the following is a low intensity approach lighting system?

A) MALSF
B) LIAL
C) MALSR
D) SSALS

Answer 100

B) LIAL

Question 101

“The Clean Aircraft Concept” refers to:

A) the in-flight use of aircraft de-icing and anti-icing equipment
B) de-icing and anti-icing fluids application principals
C) takeoff being prohibited when frost, snow or ice is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft
D) an air carrier’s operating philosophy with regards to passenger public relations

Answer 101

C) takeoff being prohibited when frost, snow or ice is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft

Question 102

Frost, ice or snow formations having the thickness and surface roughness similar to medium/coarse sand paper on the leading edge and the upper surface of a wing can:

A) decrease lift by 30% and increase drag by 40%
B) decrease lift by 10% and increase drag by 20%
C) decrease lift by 40%
D) increase drag by 20%

Answer 102

A) decrease lift by 30% and increase drag by 40%

Question 102

What is the definition of critical surface contamination?

A) Ice or snow adhering to the aircraft’s wings or tail
B) Frost, ice or snow adhering to the aircraft’s engines, wings, tail or landing gear
C) Frost, ice or snow adhering to any part of the aircraft
D) Frost, ice or snow adhering to the aircraft’s lifting and control surfaces, wings, tail or upper fuselage surface of aircraft with rear-mounted engines

Answer 102

D) Frost, ice or snow adhering to the aircraft’s lifting and control surfaces, wings, tail or upper fuselage surface of aircraft with rear-mounted engines

Question 103

Following the application of Type I and Type IV fluid, the crew observe snow on top of the applied fluids. Which of the following is true?

A) take off is permitted when the aircraft’s rotation speed over 100kts
B) takeoff is not permitted
C) takeoff is permitted provided the appropriate maximum hold over time is not exceeded
D) takeoff is permitted if the aircraft is de-iced first and then later anti-iced

Answer 103

B) takeoff is not permitted

Question 104

What is required when Type II or IV anti-icing fluids are applied to an aircraft?

A) the rotation speed must be 100 knots or greater
B) the rotation speed must be 80 knots or greater
C) the takeoff run must be increased
D) the rotation speed must be increased

Answer 104

A) the rotation speed must be 100 knots or greater

Question 105

In flight as ice accumulates on a wing…

A) the stalling speed will increase and the angle at which the wing will stall will decrease
B) the stalling speed will decrease and the angle at which the wing will stall will increase
C) there will be no change in the stall characteristics of the aircraft
D) the aircraft will not be able to be loaded to the MCTOW

Answer 105

A) the stalling speed will increase and the angle at which the wing will stall will decrease

Question 106

The wing icing phenomenon called Cold-Soaking has been known to:

A) cause the formation of clear ice on top of the wing areas above the fuel tanks
B) cause frost to form on the upper and lower part on the wings near the fuel tanks
C) cause frost to form in conditions of high relative humidity even when temperatures are well above freezing
D) all of the above

Answer 106

D) all of the above

Question 107

Which of the following statements is false with regard to tail plane stalls.

A) A tail plane stall is most likely to occur on approach at relatively high airspeeds
B) an uncontrollable pitch down may occur without any warning when landing flap is selected
C) Some symptoms of an impending tail plane stall may include; loss of elevator effectiveness, elevator pulsing, oscillation or vibration
D) Planning to fly approaches with maximum flap settings can minimize the chance of having a tail plane stall occurrence

Answer 107

D) Planning to fly approaches with maximum flap settings can minimize the chance of having a tail plane stall occurrence

Question 108

The formation of clear ice above the fuel tanks of cold soaked wings is dependent on:

A) the type, depth and liquid content of precipitation, ambient air temperature and wing temperature
B) the type fuel, the temperature of the fuel at altitude is cruise and liquid content of precipitation
C) the type, depth and liquid content of precipitation, ambient air temperature and the type of de-icing fluid applied prior to takeoff
D) the type of fuel and speed at which the aircraft is fueled, ambient air temperature and wing temperature

Answer 108

A) the type, depth and liquid content of precipitation, ambient air temperature and wing temperature

Question 109

Type I de-icing fluid with a higher concentration of Glycol would be able to do which of the following with respect to re-freezing and further accumulation after being applied to aircraft surfaces;

A) prevent re-freezing and further accumulation for the duration of holdover time
B) is used for removal of contamination and does nothing to prevent re-freezing or further accumulation
C) provides some protection against re-freezing but not much against further accumulation
D) only prevents further accumulation

Answer 109

C) provides some protection against re-freezing but not much against further accumulation

Question 110

Holdover time is the estimated time that the application of de-icing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost, ice or the accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins…

A) when the application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid is completed, and expires when the fluid losses it’s effectiveness
B) when the final application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid commences, and expires when the fluid blows off during the takeoff roll
C) when the final application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid commences, and expires when the fluid losses it’s effectiveness
D) when the first application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid commences, and expires when the fluid losses it’s effectiveness

Answer 110

C) when the final application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid commences, and expires when the fluid losses it’s effectiveness