Quiz Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which sympathomimetic is not recommended to be given as a continuous infusion?

Answer 1

Ephedrine

Question 2

Phrase for Catecholamines and Sympathomimetics

Answer 2

ALL sympathomimetics are catecholamines but not all catecholamines are sympathomimetics

Question 3

While receiving norepinephrine, a patient accidentally pulls at his IV, causing the skin around the IV site to become red and dark purple. After shutting off the IV infusion, which medication may be administered to prevent further damage due to extravasation?

Answer 3

Phentolamine

Question 4

At low doses, epinephrine causes which effects most predominantly?

Answer 4

Beta 2

Question 5

Which of the following vasoconstrictors may work best if the patient is acidotic due to sepsis?

Answer 5

Norepinephrine

Question 6

A patient with hypotension and tachycardia would benefit most from using which vasopressor?

Answer 6

Phenylephrine

Question 7

Bronchospasms may occur more frequently with which beta blocker?

Answer 7

Non-Selective Beta Blockers: Propanolol, Nadolol, Timolol
Combined alpha and non-selective: Labetalol and Carvedilol

Question 8

Chronic use of which class of antihypertensives may potentiate the activity of neuromuscular blockers?

Answer 8

Alpha-2 Agonists

Question 9

Hydralazine primarily reduces blood pressure by which mechanism of action?

Answer 9

pure arteriole vasodilator
decrease DBP > SBP
has its own receptor site

Question 10

Angiotensinogen is released from which organ?

Answer 10

LIVER

Question 11

If a patient is using a Phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitor for pulmonary hypertension (ex: Sildenafil (Revatio)), which vasodilator is unsafe to use to control blood pressure?

Answer 11

Nitroglycerin

Question 12

Sodium nitroprusside induced cyanide toxicity may present with which of the following symptoms?

Answer 12

Profound hypotension, blurred vision, pink skin, absent reflexes, faint heart sounds

Question 13

Which antihypertensive may lead to prolonged sedation if using Midazolam for sedation?

Answer 13

Clonidine,
also reduces propofol and thiopental requirements

Question 14

Which of the following medications may cause accelerated hypertension due to withdrawal if discontinued abruptly, and not restarted soon after a procedure?

Answer 14

Clonidine

Question 15

Which vasodilator has the fastest onset of action?

Answer 15

Nitro

Question 16

Which combination of antihypertensives increases the risk of hyperkalemia for patients with chronic kidney disease?

Answer 16

ACE Inhibitors ( w/ NSAIDS, aspirin)
Beta Blockers

Question 17

High doses of catecholamines primarily produce which effects?

Answer 17

Increase HR, BP,

Question 18

True of False: Inoconstrictors have lower rates of myocardial oxygen consumption than inodilators.

Answer 18

False, they have higher (Epi, Norepi, Dopamine)

Question 19

Which electrolyte abnormality greatly increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity?

Answer 19

Hypercalemia (or hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia if only options)

Question 20

Glucagon is useful for beta blocker overdose by:

Answer 20

Acts on receptor other than Beta to increase cAMP (Glucagon receptor)

Question 21

True or False: Milrinone is less potent than Inamrinone and has a lower risk of side effects.

Answer 21

False: milrinone is 15-20x more powerful than Inamrinone and DOES NOT have Thrombocytopenia risk

Question 22

Which lab value should be monitored closely after administration of Milrinone?

Answer 22

Calcium or Creatinine?

Question 23

Which inotropes have the highest risk of arrhythmia development?

Answer 23

Dobutamine (lowest risk)<DA<Epi<Isoproterenol (highest risk)

Question 24

Which type of arrhythmia is the most frequent cause of death from digoxin toxicity?

Answer 24

V-fib

Question 25

Giapreza ® is a medication used for low blood pressure readings in shock. To which endogenous hormone is this synthetic medication similar?

Answer 25

Angiotensin II

Question 26

Adenosine may be used for treatment of which of the following arrythmias?

Answer 26

Treatment for PSVT (no effect on arrhythmia distal to AV node)

Question 27

Torsades de Pointes (TdP) may be exacerbated by which electrolyte abnormality?

Answer 27

Mainly a K+ driven arrhythmia (Class IA and class III drugs block potassium channels and prolong QTc interval)

Question 28

True or False: Class Ia antiarrhythmics are considered to be the most pro-arrhythmic.

Answer 28

False: the most pro-arrhythmic are class Ic

Question 29

Which classes of antiarrhythmic are most highly associated with Torsades de Pointes?

Answer 29

Class IA and class III drugs block potassium channels and prolong QTc interval)

Question 30

Which of the following medications may precipitate Torsades de Pointes?

Answer 30

Ia - Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide, Moricizine

III- Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Sotalol, Ibutilide, Dofetilide, Bretylium

Question 31

Adenosine produces an arrhythmia to stop an arrhythmia. What is seen on EKG after a dose of adenosine?

Answer 31

3rd degree AV block

Question 32

Sotalol is primarily classified as which type of antiarrhythmic?

Answer 32

Class III (K+ blocking)

Question 33

Which of the following antiarrhythmics has the highest risk of drug-drug interactions?

Answer 33

Amiodarone has a lot

Question 34

Alpha-1 antagonists do what?

Answer 34

Reduce afterload by causing vasodilation

Question 35

Alpha-2 Agonists….

Answer 35

Reduce sympathetic outflow

Question 36

Cardio-selective Beta-1 antagonists….

Answer 36

Reduce inotropy, chronotropy, dromotropy and renin release

Question 37

Hydralazine reduces…

Answer 37

Afterload

Question 39

Nitroglycerin reduces…

Answer 39

Preload

Question 40

SNP reduces….

Answer 40

Both preload and afterload