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1
Q

When do you get 4 in 1 vaccine?

A

3-4 years

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1
Q

Treat hydronephrosis

A

Nephrostomy

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2
Q

Rheumatic heart disease acute vs chronic

A

ARCS

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3
Q

Angina drugs

A

BB CCB
Nitrates

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4
Q

Stable angina test

A

Coronary angio

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5
Q

Heart failure

A

ACE/BB
Sprinolactone
Specialist

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6
Q

Hypertension

A

A/C
A+C
A+C+D
<4.5 spirin
>4.5 ab, bb

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7
Q

NSTEMI management

A

GRACE>3% = coronary angio
Fondaparinaux if no immediate PCI
Secondary: aspirin + bleed clop, no bleed ticagrelor

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8
Q

Fibrinolysis afterward what do you do?

A

ECG at 90 minutes, if still ST elevated, do PCI

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9
Q

Loafer is caused by

A

Ascaris

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10
Q

ARDS seat the person

A

Prone

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11
Q

AF drugs

A

BB, CCB, digoxin

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12
Q

Bradycardia management

A

Atropine
External pacing

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13
Q

Broad tachycardia stable

A

irregular: help
regular: amiodarone

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14
Q

Renal colic test

A

CT KUB

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15
Q

Bladder cancer is mostly

A

Transitional

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16
Q

Renal stones what do you do?

A

<5 watch
10-20 shock or uteroscopy
>20 percutaneous nephrolith

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17
Q

TURP syndrome can be exacerbated by

A

GLYCINE

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18
Q

Prostate investigation

A

MRI

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19
Q

Erectile dysfunction in young

A

Urology, do morning testosterone

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20
Q

Urethra males top to bottom

A

Prostatic, membranous, bulbar, penile

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21
Q

Tamsulosin SE

A

Posteral hypo
Dizziness

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22
Q

Prostatis treat

A

14 days cipro

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23
Q

What two stones are lytic

A

Uric and Xanthine

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24
Q

Decrease calcium stones

A

Thiazizds, citrate

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25
Q

Decrease oxalate stones

A

Chloestyramine + B6

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26
Q

Decrease uric acid stones

A

Allopurinol or alkalinization

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27
Q

What do you use when starting GnRH agonists in prostate cancer to avoid flare?

A

Cyproterone
Bicalumatide

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28
Q

Lateral anal fissure

A

REFER

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29
Q

Volvulus manage

A

Caecal - operation
Sigmoid - sigmoidoscopy

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30
Q

Hydatid cysts investigation

A

CT

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31
Q

Acute pancreatitis scoring

A

Glasgow

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32
Q

After cholecystectomy jaundice

A

CBD stone

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33
Q

FAST scan

A

free fluid

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34
Q

Treat anal fissure

A

Bulk laxatives

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35
Q

Mesalazine SE

A

Pancreatitis

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36
Q

What can increase in a SBO?

A

Amylase

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37
Q

What is SPECIFIC to the pancrease

A

Lipase

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38
Q

Snorring what kind of airway

A

Oropharyngeal

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39
Q

Fluids can cause what abnormality?

A

Hyperchlor acidosis

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40
Q

Bronchiolitis has a high fever, T or F

A

F, usually low fever

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41
Q

Chickenpox increases risk for what infection?

A

GAS

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42
Q

Hypotonia in a baby what syndrome

A

Prader WIlli

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43
Q

<3 months old with fever what do you do?

A

Bloods , FBC, culture
CXR is resp
Stool cultures if diarrhoea

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44
Q

Treat NEC

A

Broad spec antibiotics

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45
Q

Treat Whooping cough

A

Macrolide

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46
Q

Vaccines in pregnancy

A

Pertussis and flu

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47
Q

When do benign rolandic happen?

A

Night

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48
Q

Chronic reflux test

A

Micturating cys

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49
Q

Damage from VUR

A

DMSA

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50
Q

When can a baby run

A

18-2 years

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51
Q

When do you do a bone marrow biopsy in ITP?

A

Splenomegaly

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52
Q

Fever on alternating days

A

Malaria

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53
Q

If someone has lymphogranuloma vereneum what other test do you perform?

A

HIV

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54
Q

Incubation of Ebola

A

2-21

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55
Q

Fever facial spasms and dysphagia in an IV drug user

A

Tetanus

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56
Q

Preceding influenza predisposes to what pneumonia?

A

Staph

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57
Q

Hemibalism

A

Stroke in CL subthalmic nucleus

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58
Q

PAG in

A

Midbrain

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59
Q

LC

A

Pons

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60
Q

Most common disc prolapse (type not level)

A

PL (lower)
then FL (upper)

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61
Q

Maintenance fluids

A

1L + 40mmol K+

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62
Q

What does PEEP do in heart failure?

A

Makes L better
Makes R worse

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63
Q

What are some causes of pseudocushings

A

Alcohol
Depression

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64
Q

Cushing’s receptor, thyroid receptor

A

A1
B1

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65
Q

McCune Albright gene

A

GNAS

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66
Q

What causes SIADH

A

Cyclosporin
Carbamazepine
SSRIs

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67
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

BAH

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68
Q

MEN1

A

Parathyroid
Pancreas
Pituitary

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69
Q

MEN2A/B

A

Parathyroid (A)
Phaeo
Thyroid - MTC
Marfanoid /ganglioneuomas

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70
Q

Phaeo investigation

A

Urinary metanephrines

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71
Q

Painless goitre middle aged female

A

Reidels

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72
Q

Hurtle cells

A

Hashimotos

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73
Q

Small Bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome investigation

A

Hydrogen breath test

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74
Q

Drugs causing cholestasis

A

OCP, Co-amox, steroids

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75
Q

Frequent COPD exacerbation antibiotic prophylaxis

A

Azithromycin

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76
Q

If spirometry - then try

A

FeNO

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77
Q

Pleural effusion in COPD patient

A

Pleural tap with US

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78
Q

Treat ABPA

A

Prednisolone

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79
Q

If Co2 normal in COPD what is target sat?

A

94-98

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80
Q

Pneumonia causes what kind of shunt?

A

R-L

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81
Q

Uncongugated hyper bilirubin syndromes

A

CN
Gilbert

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82
Q

Conjugated hyper bilirubin

A

DJ
Rotor

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83
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst found in the

A

Lesser sac

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84
Q

Taut

A

Low 02 affinity

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85
Q

Spike fevers, joint pain, rash

A

JA

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86
Q

Piecemeal necrosis

A

AIH

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87
Q

When do you do an ABG in terms of %

A

<92

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88
Q

Antibody in membranous nephropathy

A

Phospholipase A2

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89
Q

AIN causes

A

Pee
Pain
Penecillin + cephalosporin
PPI
rifamPicin

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90
Q

Chronic pyelonephritis causes “” kidney

A

Thyroid

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91
Q

ADPDK heart

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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92
Q

Atropine constricts/dilates
Pilocarpine constricts/dilates

A

Dilates
Constricts

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93
Q

Aspirin toxicity

A

RAlk first
MAcid later

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94
Q

Women on inducers can have what contraception

A

Injection

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95
Q

Station is in relation to

A

Ischial spine

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96
Q

Treat amaurosis fugaux

A

ASPIRIN ASAP

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97
Q

Nuclear cataracts

A

Age

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98
Q

Polar cataracts

A

Inherited

99
Q

Subcapsular cataracts

A

Steroids

100
Q

Dense cataracts

A

Diabetes

101
Q

Dilate your pupil drugs

A

Atropine, tropicanimide

102
Q

Ashermans is when what layer is damaged?

A

Basalis

103
Q

DM target in hypo risk and all other

A

53
48

104
Q

Liraglutide MOA

A

GLIP mimic

105
Q

When starting allopurinol what else do you need?

A

NSAID

106
Q

Metformin CI in who?

A

GFR <30

107
Q

When do you replace sugar in DKA management?

A

Glucose < 14

108
Q

Dermatomyositis additional test

A

CAP CT for malignancy

109
Q

NOF fracture classification

A

Garden

110
Q

What inhibits T4 absorption?

A

Calcium and iron

111
Q

Peripheral arterial disease management

A

Clopidogrel and atorvastatin

112
Q

Chagas disease investigation

A

Echo - cardiomyopathy is common

113
Q

Lemierre’s syndrome

A

Thrombophlebitis of IJV after throat infection

114
Q

What fluid in sepsis?

A

Crystalloid

115
Q

Rose spots

A

Salmonella

116
Q

MRSA positive

A

Nasal mupirocin + chlorhexidine for the skin

117
Q

Treat legionella

A

Erythromycin/clarithromycin

118
Q

Confirm meningitis

A

Whole blood PCR and blood cultures

119
Q

Cyst in liver described as anchovy sauce

A

Entamoeba histolytica

120
Q

qSOFA score

A

resp rate >22
SBP <100
Altered mentation

121
Q

Leptospirosis diagnosis

A

Serology

122
Q

What pneumonia is associated with cold sore activation

A

Strep pneumonia

123
Q

Alternative to oral metronidazole in BV

A

Topical clindamycin

124
Q

What antibiotics causes black hairy tongue

A

TetracyclinesH

125
Q

HIV diarrhoea ziehl-neelsen protozoa

A

Cryptosporidium

126
Q

Hookworms cause what?

A

IDA

127
Q

What does haemophilia ducreyi indicate

A

Chancroid

128
Q

Treat vancomycin red man syndrome

A

Stop and then re-start drug when symptoms resolve

129
Q

Complete heart block treatment

A

Transvenous [acing

130
Q

Mobitz type 2 AV block treat

A

Transvenous pacing

131
Q

Treat salmonella

A

Ciprofloxacin

132
Q

Bloody diarrhoea + fever treat

A

Ciprofloxacin

133
Q

Spouted stoma =

A

End!

134
Q

PID treatment

A

Metronidazole, ceftriaxone, doxy

135
Q

Meningitis how many prophylactic doses after exposure?

A

1

136
Q

Femoral hernia incision

A

McEvedy’s

137
Q

Indication for thoracotomy?

A

> 1.5L blood of >200ml per hour for >2 hours

138
Q

Right sided tenderness on PR

A

AppendicitisD

139
Q

Do you give antibiotics in pancreatitis

A

No

140
Q

CXR in diaphragmatic rupture

A

Non visible diaphragm

141
Q

Primary vs secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

atorvastatin 20
80

142
Q

What are 5 risk factors for neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

Preterm
Maternal DM
IUGR
Hypothermia
Neonatal sepsisL

143
Q

Liver: hyper echoic lesion, fullness, normal AFP

A

Hemangioma

144
Q

How much should once daily insulin be reduced by on day on surgery

A

20%

145
Q

Thromboses vs external haemorrhoid

A

External usually flesh or red coloured
Thromboses = blue b lackI

146
Q

In kids do you try the stimulant laxative or osmotic first

A

Stimulant

147
Q

Pulse in PDA

A

Collapsing

148
Q

AP vs PA heart

A

Magnified on AP

149
Q

Pulmonary oedema after Mi

A

Mitral regurgitation

150
Q

Remission in UC

A

Azathioprine or mercaptopurine

151
Q

Treat SBBO

A

Rifaximin

152
Q

IPF diagnosis

A

CT

153
Q

What qualifies someone for LTOT

A

2 times <7.3

154
Q

PPH defined as

A

> 500ml

155
Q

What size needle to decompress chest pneumothorax

A

14G

156
Q

Treat pneumothorax in chronic lung disease

A

Chest drain

157
Q

Visual impairment in GCA is secondary to

A

AION

158
Q

What decreases effectiveness of clopidogrel

A

Omeprazole

159
Q

What is Corrigans sign and when do you see it

A

Rapid upstroke and collapse of carotid artery pulse
AR

160
Q

What does your PEF have to be to be discharged after asthma attack

A

> 75%

161
Q

UKMEC for SLE

A

4

162
Q

How do you diagnose NALD ?

A

Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test

163
Q

1-2 weeks after MI
Acute heart failure
Tamponade

A

FREE WALL RUPTUREW

164
Q

What do statins interact with notoriously

A

Macrolides

165
Q

Induce remission crohn’s

A

Glucocorticoids
Second line is Masalazine

166
Q

Induce remission UC

A

Topical aminosalicylate
Oral
Oral corticostoid

167
Q

SEVERE COLITIS treatment

A

Hospital
IV steroids

168
Q

Urea upper vs lower GI bleed

A

Increased upper

169
Q

Perianal fistula in chrons management

A

Metronidazole

170
Q

Maintain remission chrons

A

Azathioprine or mercaptopurine

171
Q

Maintaining remission UC mild-mod

A

Proctitis - topical aminosalicylate or oral
left sided: oral aminosalicylate

172
Q

In severe colitis what investigation is preferred?

A

Sigmoidoscopy (colonoscopy can perforate)

173
Q

Pyoderma gangrenous is assoc with

A

AML
IBD RA
GPA
PBC

174
Q

What is the most common cause of PID

A

Chalmydia

175
Q

Third line heart failure therapy

A

Ivabradine
Hydralazine/nitrate = afrocarribbean

176
Q

Indapamide MOA

A

Thiazide-like

177
Q

Heart failure drug regime

A

BB/ACE
Aldosterone
SGLT2
3. Nitrate + hydralazine, ivabradine

178
Q

Angina drugs

A

BB/CCB
Nitrate, ivabradine, etcT

179
Q

Treatment for acute pulmonary oedema

A

IV furosemide

180
Q

Which BB lower mortality in heart failure

A

Bisoprolol and carvedilol

181
Q

post mi drugs

A

dual anti p
bb
acei
statin

182
Q

DPP4

A

gliptins

183
Q

Raised INR is from inhibit/inducers

A

Inhibitors

184
Q

Newly diagnosed T1DM regime

A

2x long acting
short acting

185
Q

Pain in back old person normal straight leg raise

A

Facet joint pain

186
Q

Do you give topical NSAIDS for back pain

A

No

187
Q

DPP4i can cause

A

Pancreatitis

188
Q

What rate control drug causes constipation

A

Verapamil

189
Q

Liver transplant criteria after paracetamol OD

A

PH <7.3 >24h after ingestion

190
Q

Hypo/hyper kalaemia = digoxin toxicity

A

Hypo

191
Q

What drug can cause thrombocytopenia in old person

A

Heparin

192
Q

POM means

A

Prescription only medicine

193
Q

Ciclosporin SE

A

Hepatotoxicity

194
Q
A
195
Q

TB drug that inhibits P450

A

Isonizid

196
Q

What antibiotics should epileptics NOT get

A

Fluroquinolones - lower threshold

197
Q

What epileptic drug inhibits and induces p450

A

Sodium valproate
Carbamepazine

198
Q

Metformin and CT scans

A

Dont have 48 hours after

199
Q

Transzamuab SE

A

Cardiotoxicity

200
Q

TCA overdose treat

A

Bicarb

201
Q

Treat LSD overdose

A

Lorazepam

202
Q

Treat organophosphate ingestion

A

Atropine

203
Q

Blue lips + overdose

A

Opioid

204
Q

Reaction to N-AC usually

A

Non-IgE

205
Q

When are paracetamol levels accurate?

A

> 4 hours post ingestion

206
Q

Early signs of aspirin overdose

A

Tinnitus

207
Q

Allopurinol increases risk of ___________ toxicity

A

Azathioprine

208
Q

What drugs cause lithium toxicity

A

Ace BB Diuretics NSAIDS

209
Q

DVT treatment severe renal impairment

A

> 15 = xaban
< 15 = UFH

210
Q

Electrolyte abnormality in MDMA

A

HypoNa+

211
Q

Which heart drug can precipitate pulmonary oedema

A

Verapamil

212
Q

Blue vision

A

Viagra

213
Q

What is given during cardiac bypass surgery

A

Heparin

214
Q

Example of a muscarinic agonist

A

Pilocarpine

215
Q

Example of a muscarinic antagonist

A

Atropine
Oxybutynin

216
Q

What class of drugs are decongestants?

A

alpha agonists

217
Q

Treat adrenaline-induced ischaemia

A

Phenolatime

218
Q

In HIT, what do you switch?

A

Heparin for argatroban

219
Q

HIT is anti/prothrombotic

A

Pro!

220
Q

What TB drug induces gout

A

P one

221
Q

When is flecainide contraindicated in AF?

A

Heart structural abnormalities

222
Q

TLL most important measurement to get

A

urate

223
Q

Maintenance fluids adult

A

25-30

224
Q

cant tolerate oral bisphosphonates…

A

Zolendronic (IV)

225
Q

Differentiate between IBD and IBS in primary care

A

Calpectin

226
Q

Prior to PCI drugs in stemi

A

aspirin and pras

227
Q

Syphilis in a newborn

A

Rhinorrhea
Desquaminating rash (palms/soles)
Skeletal abnormalities

228
Q

Toxoplasmosis in newborn

A

Chorioretinitis
Calcifications on brain
Hydrocephalus

229
Q

Putaminal haemorrhage

A

Hemiparesis
Hemianesthesia
Conjugate gaze diversion

230
Q

Post thrombotic syndrome management

A

Compression stockings and exercise

231
Q

U shape on XRAY, no rectal gas, obstruction symptoms old person

A

Sigmoid volvulus

232
Q

Man with boobs testicular tumour

A

Leydig

233
Q

infant botulism signs

A

Floppy baby
ptosis

234
Q

Retrocardiac air level

A

Hernia

235
Q

Complication of infusing saline

A

Metabolic acidosis

236
Q

Metabolic acidosis is the imbalance of what ions

A

Chloride and bicarb

237
Q

Heart failure what heart sign

A

S3

238
Q

Big heart, previous cancer, you want to assume heart failure …

A

Malignant pericardial effusion

239
Q

Giaradiasis mechanism of oily stools

A

Epithelium disruption

240
Q

How to spot venous air embolism and how to treat it

A

Central venous catheter… Surgery… Barotrauma…
Obstructive shock w/sudden onset, resp distress
LEFT lateral position and o2

241
Q

Consolidation vs effusion on examination

A

Effusion - decreased fremitus
Consolidation - increased fremitus

242
Q

What causes early decelerations?

A

Head compression of baby

243
Q

Variable decals are caused by

A

Umbilical cord compression

244
Q
A

Step2 (16 decks)

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