Matching And Brain Dump Flashcards

1
Q

Approves audit budget and resource allocation.

A

Executive mgmt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Provide audit oversight

A

Audit committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ensure the achievement & maintenance of org requirements with applicable certifications

A

Compliance officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Develop and maintain knowledge and subject matter expertise relevant to the type of audit

A

External auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the correct order of steps in an information security assessment

A
  1. Define the perimeter
  2. Identify the vulnerability
  3. Assess the risk
  4. Determine the actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A physical or electronic token stores a set of secrets between the claimant and the credential service provider.

  1. Out of band token
  2. Memorized secret token
  3. Pre-registered Knowledge Token
  4. Look up Secret Token
A

Pre-registered Knowledge Token

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A physical token that is uniquely addressable and can receive a verifier selected secret of one time use

  1. Out of band token
  2. Memorized secret token
  3. Pre-registered Knowledge Token
  4. Look up Secret Token
A

Out of band token

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A series of responses to a set of prompts or challenges established by the subscriber and credential service provider during the registration process.

  1. Out of band token
  2. Memorized secret token
  3. Pre-registered Knowledge Token
  4. Look up Secret Token
A

Look up secret token

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A secret shared between the subscriber and credential service provider that is typically character strings

  1. Out of band token
  2. Memorized secret token
  3. Pre-registered Knowledge Token
  4. Look up Secret Token
A

Memorized secret token

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the type of control: labeling of sensitive data
1. Logical
2. Technical
3. Physical
4. Administrative

A

Administrative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the type of control: Biometrics for authentication
1. Logical
2. Technical
3. Physical
4. Administrative

A

Technical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the type of control: Constrained user interface
1. Logical
2. Technical
3. Physical
4. Administrative

A

Logical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the type of control: Radio frequency identification (RFID) badge
1. Logical
2. Technical
3. Physical
4. Administrative

A

Physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Match the name of access control model with the restriction: End user cannot set controls
1. Role based
2. Discretionary
3. Mandatory
4. Rule based

A

Mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Match the name of access control model with the restriction: Subject has total control over objects
1. Role based
2. Discretionary
3. Mandatory
4. Rule based

A

Discretionary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Match the name of access control model with the restriction: Dynamically assigns permissions to particular duties on job function
1. Role based
2. Discretionary
3. Mandatory
4. Rule based

A

Role based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Match the name of access control model with the restriction: dynamically assigns roles to subjects based on criteria assigned by a custodian
1. Role based
2. Discretionary
3. Mandatory
4. Rule based

A

Rule based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A software security engineer is developing a black box-based plan that will measure the system’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match Input parameter with the functional testing technique:

Select one input that doesn’t belong to any of the identified partitions.

  1. Equivalence class
  2. State-based
  3. Boundary value
  4. Decision table
A

State-based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A software security engineer is developing a black box-based plan that will measure the system’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match Input parameter with the functional testing technique:

Select inputs that are at the external limits of the domain of valid values

  1. Equivalence class
  2. State-based
  3. Boundary value
  4. Decision table
A

Equivalence class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A software security engineer is developing a black box-based plan that will measure the system’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match Input parameter with the functional testing technique:

Select invalid combinations of input values.

  1. Equivalence class
  2. State-based
  3. Boundary value
  4. Decision table
A

Decision table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A software security engineer is developing a black box-based plan that will measure the system’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match Input parameter with the functional testing technique:

Select unexpected inputs corresponding to each known condition.

  1. Equivalence class
  2. State-based
  3. Boundary value
  4. Decision table
A

boundary value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Below are the common phases to creating a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plan starting with the Risk assessment. Put the remaining BC\DR phases to the appropriate corresponding order.

BC/DR Plan Development
Plan Maintenance
Business Impact Analysis
Training, Testing, & Auditing
Mitigation Strategy Development

A

Risk Assessment

BIA
Mitigation Strategy Development
BC/DR Plan Development
TTA
Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Match the objectives to the assessment question in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Do you advertise shared security services with guidance for project teams?

  1. Eduction & Guidance
  2. Secure Architecture
  3. Strategy & Metrics
  4. Vulnerability Management
A

Secure Architecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Match the objectives to the assessment question in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Are most people tested to ensure a baseline skill set for secure development practices?

  1. Eduction & Guidance
  2. Secure Architecture
  3. Strategy & Metrics
  4. Vulnerability Management
A

Education & guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Match the objectives to the assessment question in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Does most of the org know about what’s required based on risk ratings?
1. Eduction & Guidance
2. Secure Architecture
3. Strategy & Metrics
4. Vulnerability Management

A

Strategy & metrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Match the objectives to the assessment question in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Are most project teams aware of their security point(s) of contact and response team(s)?

  1. Eduction & Guidance
  2. Secure Architecture
  3. Strategy & Metrics
  4. Vulnerability Management
A

Vulnerability mgmt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the network design below, where is the MOST secure Local Area Network (LAN) segment to deploy a Wireless Access Point (WAP) that provides contractors access to the Internet and authorized enterprise services?

A

LAN 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Given the various means to protect physical and logical assets, match the access management area to the technology.

TECHNOLOGY
1. Authentication
2. Firewall
3. Window
4. Encryption

MANAGEMENT AREA
A. Information
B. Devices
C. Systems
D. Facilities

A
  1. Authentication ==> C. Systems
  2. Firewall ==> B. Devices
  3. Window ==> D. Facilities
  4. Encryption ==> A. Information
29
Q

Order the below steps to create an effective vulnerability management process.

Implement Patch Deployment
Implement Change Management
Implement recurring scanning schedule
Identify Risks
Identify assets

A
  1. Identify assets
  2. Identify Risks
  3. Implement Change Management
  4. Implement Patch Deployment
  5. Implement recurring scanning schedule
30
Q

What is the correct term for:

A measure of the extent to which an entity is threatened by a potential circumstance or event, the adverse impacts that would arise if the circumstance or event occurs, and the likelihood of occurrence.

  1. Threat Assessment
  2. Risk
  3. Protection Needs
  4. Security Treatment
A

Risk

31
Q

What is the correct term for:

The method used to identify the confidentiality, integrity, and availability requirements for organizational and system assets and to characterize the adverse impact or consequences should the asset be lost, modified, degraded, disrupted, compromised, or become unavailable.

  1. Threat Assessment
  2. Risk
  3. Protection Needs
  4. Security Risk Treatment
A

Protection needs

32
Q

What is the correct term for:

The method use to identify and characterize the dangers anticipated throughout the life cycle of the system.

  1. Threat Assessment
  2. Risk
  3. Protection Needs
  4. Security Risk Treatment
A

Threat assessment

33
Q

What is the correct term for:

the method used to identify feasible security risk mitigation options and plans.

  1. Threat Assessment
  2. Risk
  3. Protection Needs
  4. Security Risk Treatment
A

Security Risk Treatment

34
Q

Identity the component that MOST likely lacks digital accountability related to information access.

A

Backup Media
In the given components of an IT infrastructure – Backup Media, Backup Server, Database Server, Web Server, and Storage Area Network (SAN) – the one that most likely lacks digital accountability is typically Backup Media. This is because backup media (like tapes, disks, or other physical media) often do not have the capability to independently log who accessed them or what was done, especially when they are removed from the backup server or storage area network.

35
Q

Place in order, from BEST (1) to WORST (4), the following methods to reduce the risk of data remanence on magnetic media.

  1. Overwriting
  2. Degaussing
  3. Destruction
  4. Deleting
A
  1. Destruction
  2. Degaussing
  3. Overwriting
  4. Deleting
36
Q

Place the following information classification steps in sequential order.

Declassify information when appropriate
Apply the appropriate security markings
Conduct periodic classification reviews
Assign a classification level
Document the information assets

A
  1. Document the information assets: Before you can protect information, you need to know what exists. This step involves identifying and recording all information assets that an organization possesses. Understanding what information you have is crucial to determining how it should be classified.
  2. Assign a classification level: Once information assets are documented, each item needs to be assessed for its sensitivity, value, and the impact of its disclosure or loss. Based on this assessment, an appropriate classification level is assigned (e.g., Public, Confidential, Secret, Top Secret) that reflects the level of protection needed.
  3. Apply the appropriate security markings: After classification levels are assigned, the next step is to physically or digitally mark the information. These markings indicate the classification level and handling requirements, ensuring that anyone who comes into contact with the information understands how it must be protected.
  4. Conduct periodic classification reviews:** Over time, the sensitivity of information can change. Regular reviews of the classification levels are necessary to determine if the current classifications are still appropriate or if they need to be adjusted up or down. This ensures that the protection measures remain aligned with the value and sensitivity of the information.
  5. Declassify information when appropriate: **As part of the review process or when certain conditions are met (such as time-sensitive information reaching a certain date), information may be declassified. Declassification must be done deliberately, following a process that ensures information is not prematurely released.
37
Q

In which order from MOST to LEAST impacted does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?

Disloyal Employees
User-instigated
Targeted Infiltration
Virus Infiltrations

A

User-instigated
Virus Infiltrations
Targeted Infiltration
Disloyal Employees

  1. User-instigated: Incidents that are user-instigated, such as clicking on phishing links, using weak passwords, or inappropriate handling of data, are often the most impacted by user awareness training. Training can significantly reduce these incidents by educating users on recognizing and properly responding to security threats.
  2. Virus Infiltrations: Viruses often infiltrate systems through actions taken by users, such as downloading infected files or visiting malicious websites. Awareness training helps users identify potentially dangerous files and websites, thus reducing the occurrence of such events.
  3. Targeted Infiltration: While targeted attacks by sophisticated threat actors can be more challenging to prevent, user awareness can still play a role. Educated users are more likely to notice and report suspicious activities, which can be early indicators of a targeted attack.
  4. Disloyal Employees: The impact of awareness training on disloyal or malicious insiders is generally the least because such individuals intentionally bypass security controls. However, training can still have an indirect effect by fostering a security-conscious culture and educating bystanders on how to recognize and report suspicious insider behavior.

User awareness training might not prevent all malicious actions by disloyal employees, but it can reduce the risk of accidental insider threats and make it more difficult for malicious insiders to operate without detection.

38
Q

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments?

A

“WS-Federation”

The Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification that maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments is “WS-Federation”. WS-Federation is a part of the larger WS-Security framework and is specifically designed to allow different security realms to federate, enabling users to authenticate across different systems or organizations using a common set of credentials.

WS-Federation works in conjunction with WS-Trust, which provides the mechanisms to issue, renew, and validate security tokens, and enables the implementation of various identity models including federation. However, WS-Federation extends this to provide the way those security tokens can be used to allow systems to interoperate and share the identity of the authenticated user in a secure manner across different security domains.

39
Q

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed and validated?

A

“WS-Trust”

The WS-Security specification that negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed, and validated is “WS-Trust”. WS-Trust is an extension of the WS-Security specification which provides extensions for issuing, renewing, and validating security tokens. It defines the protocols for request and issuance of security tokens and also outlines how clients can obtain access to secure resources using those tokens.**

The Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification that handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access is “WS-Trust”. WS-Trust provides extensions to WS-Security for issuing, renewing, and validating security tokens, and establishes the relationship between a security token service and the requester. It also defines how policies for access to resources are applied and enforced using these tokens.

In conjunction with WS-Policy, which outlines the capabilities and constraints of the security policies, WS-Trust plays a crucial role in managing the lifecycle of security tokens and controlling access to resources based on those policies.

40
Q

Rank the Hypertext Transfer protocol (HTTP) authentication types shows below in order of relative strength. Drag the authentication type on the correct positions on the right according to strength from weakest to strongest

A

“Basic” as the weakest
“Digest” as weak
“Integrated Windows Authentication” as strong
“Client Certificate” as the strongest

image seems to depict various HTTP authentication methods ranked by their relative strength. Based on standard security practices, the correct order from weakest to strongest should be:

Basic: This is considered weak because it sends credentials in clear text (base64 encoded, which can be easily decoded), and is only secure over HTTPS.
Digest: Stronger than Basic as it uses a challenge-response mechanism for password transmission, which does not send the password in clear text.
Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA): This can be stronger than Digest as it can use more secure methods like NTLM or Kerberos, which don’t send passwords over the network and can provide mutual authentication.
Client Certificate: This is the strongest as it uses certificates rather than passwords. It establishes a mutual authentication where both the server and the client authenticate each other, and it relies on public key infrastructure (PKI) which is significantly more secure against various attack vectors.

41
Q

Match the level of evaluation to the correct common criteria (CC) assurance level.

A

FT, ST, MT, MD, SD, SV, FV
Fun time, sometime, mountain time, my day, shannon day, shannon vag, finger vag

EAL1 – Functionally Tested: This level is the most basic form of testing and is used for assurance that the product functions in a manner consistent with its documentation, but without any in-depth testing or independent verification.
EAL2 – Structurally Tested: Provides assurance that security features have been implemented correctly and includes a combination of security-enforcing functional tests and structural tests.
EAL3 – Methodically Tested and Checked: Adds more in-depth testing and checking to EAL2, including a review of the security-related documentation and an analysis of the product structure and its security features.
EAL4 – Methodically Designed, Tested, and Reviewed: At this level, the product undergoes a thorough and methodical review and testing process. This includes both functional and penetration tests and is considered to be the highest level that is normally achievable for commercially developed products.
EAL5 – Semiformally Designed and Tested: Involves a semi-formal design process with testing that goes beyond EAL4. This level applies to products that require a high level of independently assured security in a planned and systematic manner.
EAL6 – Semiformally Verified Design and Tested: Provides a higher and more comprehensive level of assurance than EAL5 by using a semiformal verification process. It is generally applicable to security-critical components and can be used in situations where the risk of attack is high.
EAL7 – Formally Verified Design and Tested: Represents the highest level of assurance, which is achievable with rigorous testing and formal verification methods. This level is appropriate for the most secure, safety-critical, and high-risk environments where the cost of failure is considered extremely high.

42
Q

RAID ____ is known for mirroring without striping. It would duplicate the data exactly on another disk, so “123456789” would be on two separate disks in its entirety.

A

1

Known for mirroring data across two or more disks. While it provides redundancy, it does not offer the same level of performance enhancement as RAID 0

43
Q

RAID ___ is known for striping without parity or mirroring. It would split “123456789” across two or more disks without any redundancy. For instance, “12345” on one disk and “6789” on another.

A

0

RAID-0 is primarily configured for high-performance data reads and writes. In RAID-0, data is split across multiple disks in a process known as striping. This configuration allows multiple disks to read and write data simultaneously, significantly increasing performance. However, it’s important to note that RAID-0 does not provide redundancy, which means if one disk fails, all data in the array is lost. Despite this drawback, RAID-0 is preferred when performance is the primary concern over data redundancy.

44
Q

RAID ___ uses both striping and parity. The file “123456789” would be distributed across three or more disks with parity data such that any single drive’s data can be recovered in the event of a disk failure. For example, “123” on one disk, “456” on the next, and “789” on another, with parity data distributed across them.

A

5

Uses both striping and parity for data storage, providing a balance of improved performance and data redundancy, but not as performant as RAID-0 for pure read/write speed.

45
Q

RAID ___ uses an additional parity block. It provides higher redundancy at the cost of write performance, and it’s not primarily configured for high-performance reads and writes

A

6

46
Q

RAID ____ equires at least four disks and creates a mirrored set out of two striped sets. So, “123” and “456” might be striped across the first two disks and then mirrored onto two more disks.

A

10 which is a combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0

47
Q

Identify the generic software testing methods with their major focus and objective.

  • “Tests functionality related to changes in software or the environment”
  1. Structural Testing
  2. Regression Testing
  3. Nonfunctional Testing
  4. Functional Testing.
A

Regression Testing:

This method of testing is used to ensure that new code changes do not adversely affect the existing functionality of the product. It’s focused on finding bugs that may have been introduced during changes such as enhancements, patches, or configuration changes.

48
Q

Identify the generic software testing methods with their major focus and objective.

  • “Tests suitability, accuracy, interoperability, and security characteristics”
  1. Structural Testing
  2. Regression Testing
  3. Nonfunctional Testing
  4. Functional Testing.
A

Functional Testing

This type of testing is concerned with checking the functional requirements of software; it tests the software functions by feeding them input and examining the output. It includes checking user interfaces, APIs, databases, security, client/server applications, and functionality of the software.

49
Q

Identify the generic software testing methods with their major focus and objective.

  • “Tests control flow, call hierarchies, menu, component, and integration characteristics”
  1. Structural Testing
  2. Regression Testing
  3. Nonfunctional Testing
  4. Functional Testing.
A

Structural Testing

Also known as white-box testing, structural testing is concerned with the internal structure of the software. It involves testing the internal logic, code structure, and software architecture; it’s generally done at the unit level.

50
Q

Identify the generic software testing methods with their major focus and objective.

  • performance, reliability, or other non-functional characteristics
  1. Structural Testing
  2. Regression Testing
  3. Nonfunctional Testing
  4. Functional Testing.
A

Nonfunctional Testing

This testing method focuses on the nonfunctional aspects of the software, such as performance, scalability, and reliability. It does not test specific software functions but rather how the software behaves and performs under certain conditions.

51
Q

what are the private IP address ranges?

A

10.X.X.X – Class A

172.16.X.X to 172.31.X.X – Class B

192.168.X.X – Class C

52
Q

What are the port ranges?

A

Well Known 1 to 1023
Registered 1024 to 49151
Dynamic/Private/Ephemeral 49152 to 65535

53
Q

Compare the OSI model to the TCP/IP model

A
54
Q

Describe the biometric error chart.

A
55
Q

What are examples of Hash Algol’s?

A

SHAs & MDs
NOTE: one-way and creates a unique message digest with no way to reverse
REMEMBER: hash for integrity

56
Q

What are examples of symmetric key algos?

A

AES, fishes (Blow, Two, & Skip), DESs, & RCs

57
Q

What are examples of Asymmetric algos?

A

RSA, DSA, ECC, & DH (Diffie-Helmon) which was replaced by El Gamal
NOTE: key management is easier than with symmetric & speed is slower
Use for non-repud

58
Q

How are asymmetric keys used for data encryption?

A

To encrypt a message, use the recipient’s public key. To decrypt, use your own private key.

59
Q

How are asymmetric keys used for digital signature?

A

To sign a message, use your own private key.

To validate a signed message, use the sender’s public key.

60
Q

Calculate Exposure Factor (EF)

A

Exposure Factor (EF) . The % of value an asset lost due to an incident, represented in a decimal.

Expressed as a percentage or decimal, ex: If a hurricane will cause 50% damage to a building per occurrence, the EF is:
50% or .5

61
Q

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

A

How much would it cost you
if it happened just ONE time?
SLE = Asset Value x Exposure Factor (SLE=AV*EF)

If a hurricane happens one time to a
$1,000,000 building, with a 50% EF:
SLE = $1,000,000 x .5 = $500,000

62
Q

Assess the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

A

Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). How many times does it happen in one year? Watch for AROs longer than 1 year!

If a hurricane will occur once every 10 years, the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) is:
1 time in / 10 years = .10

If a hurricane will occur twice every year, the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) (*greater than 1 year example!!!) is:
2 times in / 1 year = 2

63
Q

Derive the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)

A

Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE). How much you will lose per year? ALE = SLE x ARO

Since we have already calculated
the SLE, our solution is:
$500,000 * .10 = $50,000

64
Q

Controls Gap is ?

Residual risk is ?

Value of safeguard

A

Gap: The amount of reduced by implementing safeguards!

Residual Risk. The risk that remains even with all conceivable safeguards in place. ==> total risk - controls gap = RR

So, if the company buys a $500,000 insurance policy to cover risk of loss. The policy has a $75,000 deductible. Then, $500,000 – $425,000 = residual risk = $75,000. Note: the $425K is the “controls gap.”

Annualized cost (based on .10 ARO) $7,500

(ALE1 - ALE2) - ACS = value of safeguard

$50,000 – $7,500 – $10,000 = value of safeguard = $32,500 *a value > 0 indicates that it is a good financial choice

65
Q

What is the memorization for incident management framework?

A

DRMRRRL

Detection
Response
Mitigation
Reporting
Recovery
Remediation
Lessons Learned

66
Q

Software Capability Maturity Model

A
  1. I — Initial
  2. Read — Repeatable
  3. Data — Defined
  4. Maps — Managed
  5. Online — Optimized
67
Q

What are the 4 types of cryptography?

A

Asymmetric keys
Symmetric keys
Hashes
Block ciphers

68
Q

What are the 2 key types of security models?

A
  1. Integrity & 2. Confidentiality