Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DDP Modules > Deception > Flashcards

Deception Flashcards

1
Q

Dishonestly Taking a Document
(Act & Section)

A

Section 228(1)(a), Crimes Act 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dishonestly Taking a Document
228(1)(a)
(elements)

A
  • Everyone
  • With intent to obtain any property, service, pecuniary advantage, or valuable consideration
  • Dishonestly
  • Without claim of right
  • Takes or obtains
  • Any document
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dishonestly Using a Document
(Act & Section)

A

Section 228(1)(b), Crimes Act 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dishonestly Using a Document
228(1)(b)
(Elements)

A
  • Everyone
  • With intent to obtain any property, service, pecuniary advantage, or valuable consideration
  • Dishonestly
  • Without claim of right
  • Uses or attempts to use
  • Any document
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dishonestly Taking or Using a Document
(Penalty)

A

7 years imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Obtain
(define)

A

obtain, in relation to any person, means to obtain or retain for himself or herself or for any other person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Property
(define)

A

Property includes any real or personal property, and any estate or interest in any real or personal property, money, electricity, and any debt, and anything in action, and any other right or interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Service
(define)

A

R v Cara
“Service is limited to financial or economic value and Excludes privileges or benifits”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pecuniary Advantage
(Case Law)

A

Hayes v R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hayes v R held
(pecuniary advantage)

A

A pecuniary advantage is “anything that enhances the accused’s financial position. It is that enhancement which constitutes the element of advantage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Valuable consideration
(define)

A

Hayes v R
“anything capable of being valuable consideration, whether of a monetary kind or of any other kind; in short, money or money’s worth.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Valuable consideration
(examples)

A
  • monetary payment in return for goods or services
  • goods given in return for services provided
  • issuing a false invoice to receive payment for goods never supplied.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dishonestly
(define)

A

Dishonestly, in relation to an act or ommission, means done or omitted without a belief that there was express or implied consent to, or authority for, the act or omission from a person entitled to give such consent or authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dishonestly
(case law)

A

Hayes v R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hayes v R held
(dishonestly belief)

A

The question is whether the belief is actually held, not whether that belief is reasonable. However, reasonableness may be relevant as evidence on the issue of whether the belief was actually held.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

claim of right
(define)

A

claim of right, in relation to any act, means a belief in a proprietary or possessory right in property in relation to which the offence is alleged to have been committed, although that belief may be based on ignorance or mistake of fact or of any matter of law other than the enactment against which the offence is alleged to have been committed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nature of belief in claim of right
(4 points)

A

First - must be a belief in a proprietary or possessory right in property.

Second - belief must be for the property in relation to the alleged offence

Third - the belief must be held at the time the alleged offence was committed.

Fourth - the belief must be actually held by the defendant. Does not need to be reasonable, and can be a mistake or ignorance. The reasonableness will influence the credibility of the belief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Take
(define)

A

For tangible property, theft is committed by a taking when the offender moves the property or causes it to be moved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Document
(define)

A

document means a document, or part of a document, in any form; and includes without limitation, -
(a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Document (a)
(define)

A

any paper or other material used for writing or printing that is marked with matter capable of being read

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Document (b)
(define)

A

(b) any Bhotograph, or any photographic negative, plate, slide, film, or microfilm, or any photostatic negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Document (c)
(define)

A

(c) any disC, tape, wire, sound track, card, or other material or device in or on which information, sound or other data are recorded, stored (whether temporarily or permanently), or embodied so as to be capable, with or without the aid of some other equipment, of being reproduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Document (d)
(define)

A

(d) any material by means of which information is supplied, whether directly or by means of any equipment, to any device used for recording or storing or processing information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Document (e)
(define)

A

(e) any material derived, whether directly or by means of any equipment, from information recorded or stored or processed by any device used for recording or storing or processing information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Document
(case law)

A

R v Misic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

R v Misic held

A

“Essentially a document is a thing which provides
- evidence or
- information or
- serves as a record.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Uses or attempts to use
(case law)

A

Hayes v R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

R v Hayes held
(use/attempted use)

A

“An unsuccessful use of a document is as much a use as a successful one. An unsuccessful use must not be equated conceptually with an attempted one. The concept of attempt relates to use not to the ultimate obtaining of a pecuniary advantage, which is not a necessary element of the offence. Because the use does not have to be successful it may be difficult to draw a clear line between use and attempted use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Definition of Attempts (1)

A
  • Everyone who,
  • Having an intent to commit an offence,
  • does or omits an act for the purpose of accomplishing his object
  • is guilty of an attempt to commit the offence
  • whether in the circumstances it was possible to commit the offence or not
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Definition of Attempts (2)

A

The question whether an act done or omitted with intent to commit an offence is or is not only preparation for the commission of that offence, and too remote to constitute an attempt to commit it, is a question of law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Definition of Attempts (3)

A

An act done or omitted with intent to commit an offence may constitute an attempt if it is done immediately or proximately connected with the intended offence, whether or not there was any act unequivocally showing the intent to commit that offence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Obtaining Property by Deception
(Act & Section)

A

Section 240(1)(a), Crimes Act 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Obtaining Property by Deception
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • by any deception
  • without claim of right
  • obtains ownership or possession of or control over
  • any property, privilege, service, pecuniary advantage, benefit, valuable consideration
  • directly or indirectly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Obtaining Credit by Deception
(Act & Section)

A

Section 240(1)(b), Crimes Act 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Obtaining Credit by Deception
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • by any deception
  • without claim of right
  • in incurring any debt or liability
  • obtains credit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Obtaining by Deception
Altering documents
(Act & Section)

A

Section 240(1)(c), Crimes Act 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Obtain by deception
Altering documents
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • by any deception
  • without claim of right
  • induces or causes any other person to
    Deliver over, execute, make, accept, endorse, destroy, or alter
  • any document or thing capable of being used to derive a pecuniary advantage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Causing Loss by Deception
(Act & Section)

A

Section 240(1)(d), Crimes Act 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Causing Loss by Deception
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • by any deception
  • without claim of right
  • causes loss to any other person
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Deception
(define)
(3 parts a b & c)

A

Section 240(2)
Deception means-
(a) a false representation, whether oral, documentary, or by conduct, where the person making the representation intends to deceive any other person and -
(i) knows that it is false in a material particular; or
(ii) is reckless as to whether it is false in a material particular; or
(b) an omission to disclose a material particular, with intent to deceive any person, in circumstances where there is a duty to disclose it; or
(c) a fraudulent device trick or stratagem used with intent to deceive any person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Representation
(define)

A

Not defined, but Semester & Brookbanks suggest “it must be capable of being false so it must contain a proposition of fact”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

False representation
(important points)

A
  • must be false in a material particular
  • defendant must know it is false in a material particular or
  • be reckless whether it is false
  • wilful blindness will suffice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Must proves for deception
(4 parts)

A
  • that there was an intent to deceive
  • that there was a representation by the defendant
  • that the representation was false; and
  • that the defendant either:
    knew it to be False in a material particular OR
    was reckless whether it was false in a material particular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Intent to deceive
(case law)

A

R v Morely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

R v Morely held
(Intent to deceive)

A

An intention to deceive requires that the deception is practised in order to deceive the affected party. Purposeful intent is necessary and must exist at the time of the deception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Recklessness
(case law)

A

Cameron v R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cameron v R held

A

Recklessness is established if:
(a) the defendant recognized that there was a real possibility that:
(i) his or her actions would bring about the proscribed result and/or
(ii) that the proscribed circumstances existed; and
(b) having regard to that risk those actions were unreasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Intent
(define)

A
  • A deliberate act, and
  • Intent to Produce a Specific Result
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Deception Examples
Orally

A

Verbally claiming to own goods that are in fact subject to a hire purchase agreement.

Or R v Caslin the false prostitute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Deception Examples
by conduct

A

Representing oneself to be a collector for charity by appearing to be carrying an official collection bag.

Or R v Barnard the fake student in cap and gown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Deception Examples
Documentary

A

Presenting a false certificate of qualification, or completing valueless cheques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A representation by the defendant
(case law)

A

R v Morely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

R v Morely held
(representation)

A

Representations must relate to a statement of existing fact, rather than a statement or future intention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Silence as a representation

A

As a general rule silence or non-disclosure will not be regarded as a representation.

The exception is label swapping, where you don’t tell a shop keeper the price is wrong.

Police v Dronjak - 2 labels and knew the wrong price

Rao v Police - actively swapped the price tags.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Knowledge established
(4 ways)

A

Knowledge can be established by:

  • an admission
  • implication from the circumstances surrounding the event
  • propensity evidence
  • wilful blindness (R v Crooks)
56
Q

Material Particular
(define)

A

“A matter will be a ‘material particular’ if it is something important or something that matters.”
R v Mallett

57
Q

device
(define)

A

A ‘plan, scheme or trick’

58
Q

Trick
(define)

A

An action or scheme undertaken to fool, outwit, or deceive.

59
Q

Stratagem
(define)

A

A cunning plan or scheme especially for deceiving an enemy, or trickery.

60
Q

“Privilege” or “benifit”
(examples)

A
  • Using another person’s gym membership card so that you can use the gym facilities
  • Access to medical services
  • The withdrawal of an assault charge
  • A reduction in sentence for an offence

If benifit or privilege does not involve money, no need for loss or injury to the person defrauded

61
Q

Ownership
(define)

A

Ownership is synonymous with the concept of title

62
Q

Possession
(case law)

A

R v Cox

63
Q

R v Cox held
(possession)

A

Possession involves two elements. The first, the physical element, is actual or potential physical custody or control. The second, the mental element is a combination of knowledge and intention: knowledge in the sense of an awareness by the accused that the substance is in his possession and an intention to exercise possession.

64
Q

Control of property, must prove?

A
  • it must be proved that the defendant did in fact exercise some control over the particular property
65
Q

Control
(define)

A

To “control” something means to exercise authorative or dominating influence or command over it.

66
Q

Pecuniary advantage
(examples)

A
  • cash from stolen goods
  • clothing or cash obtained by a credit or EFTPOS card
  • A discount (by using a student ID)
  • avoiding or deferring a payment of a debt

R v Dakers,- same TAB ticket twice, still a use, just an unsuccessful one.

67
Q

Debt or liability incurred must be….

A

… legally enforceable

68
Q

Debt
(define)

A

‘Debt’ means money owing from one person to another

69
Q

Liability
(define)

A

‘Liability’ means a legally enforceable financial obligation to pay, such as the cost of a meal
(succulent Chinese meal)

70
Q

Fisher v Raven held

A

Credit refers to the obligation on the debtor to pay or repay, and the time given for them to do so by the creditor. Credit does not extend to an obligation to supply services or goods.

71
Q

Credit
(case law)

A

Fisher v Raven

72
Q

Credit obtained,
(examples)

A
  • Obtaining money on loan
  • extending existing overdraft facilities
  • renting or leasing a dwelling
73
Q

Timing of intent to deceive
(case law)

A

R v McKay

74
Q

R v McKay held

A

That the credit had been obtained on booking in but at that time the accused did not possess an intent to deceive

75
Q

Continuing representation

A

In many cases a representation, whether by words or conduct, may be of a continuing effect….
If during the course of a meal a diner decides to avoid payment, the continuing representation of an intention to pay will become false and any subsequent obtaining of food is s240

76
Q

Induces
(define)

A

“To persuade, bring about or give rise to”
(very wide scope)

77
Q

Proof of inducement in deception
(must prove) - (2 points)

A
  • that the false representation was believed, and
  • that it was the consequence of that belief that the victim parted with his or her money

(direct evidence from victim is best, but in some cases circumstantial will suffice)

78
Q

Inducement
(case law)

A

R v Laverty

79
Q

R v Laverty held

A

It is necessary for the prosecution to prove that the person parting with the property was induced to do so by the false representation made.

(otherwise only an attempt)

80
Q

Deliver over
(define)

A

To deliver over, is to surrender up someone or something

81
Q

Execute
(define)

A

To execute, is to put a course of action into effect.

82
Q

Endorse
(define)

A

To endorse, is to write or sign on a document

83
Q

Alter
(define)

A

To alter, is to change in character or composition, typically in a comparatively small but significant way

84
Q

Accept
(define)

A

To accept, is to receive something.

85
Q

Person
(define)

A

Person, owner, and other words and expressions of the like kind, include
- the Crown and
- any public body or local authority, and
- any board, society, or company, and
- any other body of persons, whether incorporated or not, and
- the inhabitants of the district of any local authority, in relation to such acts and things as it or they are capable of doing or owning

86
Q

s240(1)(d) - must prove
(3 points)

A
  • the loss was caused by deception
  • it was reasonably foreseeable some more than trivial loss would occur, but
  • need not prove the loss was intentionally caused
87
Q

Deception Offences
(penalties)

A

Over $1000 - 7 years
$500 - $1000 - 1 year
Under $500 - 3 months

88
Q

Propensity Rule
Section 40, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (1)(a)
definition

A

(1)(a)
Means evidence that tends to show a person’s propensity to act in a particular way or to have a particular state of mind, being evidence of acts, omissions, events, or circumstances with which a person is alleged to have been involved.

89
Q

Propensity Rule
Section 40, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (1)(b)
exception

A

(b)
does not include evidence of an act or omission that is—
(i) 1 of the elements of the offence for which the person is being tried; or
(ii) the cause of action in the proceedings in question

90
Q

Propensity Rule
Section 40, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (2)
who

A

(2)
A party may offer propensity evidence in a civil or criminal proceeding about any person

91
Q

Propensity Rule
Section 40, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (3)
restrictions

A

(3)(a)
In criminal proceeding, in accordance with 41, or 42, or 43.
(b)
For sexual assault complainant, only in accordance with 44.

92
Q

Propensity Rule
Section 40, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (4)
veracity

A

(4)
Evidence solely or mainly relevant to veracity not applicable

93
Q

Propensity Offered by prosecution
Section 43, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (1)
balancing

A

Only if the probative value outweighs the risk of unfair prejudicial effect.

94
Q

Propensity Offered by prosecution
Section 43, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (3)
what a judge may consider

A

(a) the frequency of the acts
(b) the connection in time between the propensity acts and the charge acts
(c) the extent of the similarity between the two
(d) number of people making similar allegations
(e) whether (d) is because of collusion or suggestibilty.
(f) the extent that the circumstances are unusual

95
Q

Propensity Offered by prosecution
Section 43, Evidence Act 2006
Subsection (4)
what the judge MUST consider

A

(a) whether the evidence is likely to unfairly predispose the fact-finder against the defendant

(b) whether the fact-finder will tend to give disproportionate weight in reaching a verdict to evidence of other acts or omissions

96
Q

Title
(define)

A

“a right or claim to the ownership of property”

97
Q

Section 149, Contract and Commercial Law Act 2017
sale by person who is not owner

A

Applies if
- not the owner
- not sold with authority or consent of owner

(2) The buyer acquires no better title to the goods than the seller had, unless the owner of the goods is by the owner’s conduct preclude from denying the seller’s authority to sell.

98
Q

Section 149, Contract and Commercial Law Act 2017
sale under voidable title

A

Applies if
- seller had voidable title
- seller’s title not yet voided

(2) The buyer acquires a good title to the goods if the buyer buys the goods in good faith and without notice of the seller’s deficit in title

99
Q

Section 246(4), Crimes Act 1961

A

IF:
(a) any property stolen or obtained by any other imprisonable offence has been returned to the owner, or
(b) legal title to any such property has been acquired by any person–
a subsequent receiving of it is not an offence, even though the receiver may know that the property had previously been stolen or obtained by any imprisonable offence.

100
Q

Theft by person in special relationship
(Act & Section)

A

Section 220, Crimes Act 1961

101
Q

Section 220 applies to….?

A

(1) This section applies to any person who has received or is in possession of, or has control over, any property on terms or in circumstances that the person knows require the person–

(a) to account to any other person for the property, or for any proceeds arising from the property; or

(b) to deal with the property, or any proceeds arising from the property, in accordance with the requirements of any other person

102
Q

Section 220
Everyone to whom (1) applies commits theft who…..

A

who intentionally fails to account to the other person as so required or intentionally deals with the property, or any proceeds of the property, otherwise than in accordance with those requirements.

103
Q

Section 220
This section applies whether or not….

A

… the person was required to deliver over the identical property received or in the person’s possession or control.

104
Q

Section 220
For the purposes of subsection (1), it is a question of ___? ___ whether the circumstances required any person to account or to act in accordance with any requirements

A

LAW

105
Q

Two core elements of s220

A

(a) KNOWLEDGE they received the property with conditions on how they can deal with it or the proceeds, based on another’s requirements.

(b) INTENT to depart from their obligation.

106
Q

Forgery
(Act & Section)

A

Section 256, Crimes Act 1961

107
Q

Forgery
Section 256(1)
(Elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • makes a false document
  • with intention of using it
  • to obtain any property, privilege, service, pecuniary advantage, benefit, or valuable consideration.
108
Q

Forgery
Section 256(1)
(penalty)

A

10 years imprisonment

109
Q

Forgery
Section 256(2)
(Elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • makes a false document
  • knowing it to be false
  • with intent that it be used or acted upon as genuine
  • whether in NZ or elsewhere
110
Q

Forgery
Section 256(2)
(penalty)

A

3 years imprisonment

111
Q

Forgery
When is forgery complete?

A

as soon as the document is made with-
- the intent described in (1) or
- the knowledge and intent described in (2)

AND even if the false document is incomplete if it is made so as to indicate it was to be acted upon as genuine.

112
Q

False document means a document–
(define)

A

(a) of which the whole or any material part is purported to be made by any person who did not make it, or by a ficticious person.

(b) of which the whole or any material part purports to be made by or on behalf of any person who did not authorize its making, or on behalf of a ficticious person; or

(c) of which the whole or any material part has been has been altered, whether by addition, insertion, deletion, obliteration, erasure, removal, or otherwise, and that purports to have been altered by or on behalf of a person who did not alter it or authorize its alteration, or by or in behalf of a ficticious person; or

(d) that is in whole or in part, a reproduction of any other document, and that purports to have been made by or on behalf of a person who did not make it or authorize its making, or by or on behalf of a ficticious person; or

(e) that is made in the name of a person, either by that person or by that person’s authority, with the intention that is should pass as being made by some other person who did not make it, or by a ficticious person.

(eg. a ‘newly discovered’ painting by Van Gogh)

113
Q

Material alterations
(6 ways)

A
  • additions
  • insertions
  • deletions
  • obliterations
  • erasures
  • removal of material or otherwise
114
Q

Material Alteration
(define)

A

An alteration is a material Alteration if it increases the value or negotiability of a document or instrument. A false document can be made by making material alterations to a genuine document.

115
Q

Specified Intent for Forgery

A

Intent:-
- To use the false document to obtain, or
- That the false document be used or acted on as genuine

(Intent to deceive, though not an essential element, an intent to deceive by means of that which is false must be proved)

116
Q

Examples of forgery

A
  • writing an exam paper in the name of another person who is required to sit the exam
  • pre-dating a deed to give priority over another
  • Forging letters of recommendation for inclusion in a CV that are necessary to obtain a position
  • Falsely completing a statement of service on a witness summons.
117
Q

Using Forged Documents
(Act & Section)

A

Section 257(1), Crimes Act 1961

118
Q

Using Forged Documents
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • knowing a docuemt to be forged
  • (a) uses the document to obtain any property, privilege, service, pecuniary advantage, benefit, or valuable consideration; or
    (b) uses, deals with, or acts upon the document as if it were genuine; or
    (c) causes any other person to use, deal with, or act upon it as if it were genuine.
119
Q

Altering, concealing, destroying, or reproducing documents with intent to deceive
(Act & Section)

A

Section 258, Crimes Act 1961

120
Q

Altering, concealing, destroying, or reproducing documents with intent to deceive
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • with intent to obtain by deception
  • any property, privilege, service, pecuniary advantage, benefit, or valuable consideration, or cause loss to any other person
  • (a) alters, conceals, or destroys any document, or causes any document to be altered, concealed, or destroyed or
  • (b) makes or causes to be made a document that is in whole or in part a reproduction of any other document.
121
Q

Using altered or reproduced document with intent to deceive
(Act & Section)

A

Section 259, Crimes Act 1961

122
Q

Using altered or reproduced document with intent to deceive
(Elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • knowing any document to have been made with intent to obtain by deception
  • with intent to obtain any property, privilege, service, pecuniary advantage, benefit, or valuable consideration or cause loss to any other person
  • uses or deals with or acts upon the document or causes any person to use or deal with, or act upon, the document.
123
Q

Altering, concealing, destroying, or reproducing documents with intent to deceive/Using altered or reproduced document with intent to deceive
(penalties)

A

10 years imprisonment

124
Q

Computer Crime
to access
(define)

A

access, in relation to any computer system, means instruct, communicate with, store data in, receive data from, or otherwise make use of any of the resources of the computer system

125
Q

Computer Crime
authorisation
(define)

A

authorisation includes an authorisation conferred on a person by or under an enactment or a rule of law, or by an order of a court or judicial process

126
Q

Computer Crime
computer system
(define)

A

(a) means—-
(i) a computer; or
(ii) 2 or more interconnected computers; or
(iii) any communication link between computers or to remote terminals or another device; or
(iv) 2 or more interconnected computers combined with any communication links between computers or to remote terminals or any other device; and

(b) any part or (a) and all related input, output, processing, storage, software, or communication facilities, and stored data.

127
Q

Accessing a computer system for dishonest purpose
(Act & Section)

A

Section 249(1)/(2), Crimes Act 1961

128
Q

Accessing a computer system for dishonest purpose
Section 249(1)
(Elements)

A

-Everyone who
- directly or indirectly
- accesses any computer system and thereby
- dishonestly or by deception and
- without claim of right
- (a) obtains any property, privilege, service, pecuniary advantage, benefit, or valuable consideration or
- (b) cause loss to any other person

129
Q

Accessing a computer system for dishonest purpose
Section 249(2)
(Elements)

A

-Everyone who
- directly or indirectly
- accessed any computer system with intent to
- dishonestly or by deception
- without claim of right
- (a) to obtain any property, privilege, service, pecuniary advantage, benefit, or valuable consideration or
- (b) to cause loss to any other person

130
Q

Damaging or interfering with a Computer System danger to life
(Act & Section)

A

Section 250(1), Crimes Act 1961

131
Q

Damaging or interfering with a Computer System danger to life
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • intentionally or recklessly
  • destroys, damages, or alters any computer system
  • if he or she knows or ought to know danger to life is likely to result
132
Q

Damaging or interfering with a Computer System without authority
(Act & Section)

A

Section 250(2), Crimes Act 1961

133
Q

Damaging or interfering with a Computer System without authority
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • intentionally or recklessly
  • without authorisation
  • knowing that he or she is not authorized, or being reckless as to whether or not her or she is authorized
  • damages, deletes, modifies, or otherwise interferes with or impares any data or
  • causes any data or software in any computer system to be damaged, deleted, modified, or otherwise interfered with or impared or
  • causes any computer system to fail or deny service to any authorized users.
134
Q

Accessing computer system without authorisation
(Act & Section)

A

Section 252, Crimes Act 1961

135
Q

Accessing computer system without authorisation
(elements)

A
  • Everyone who
  • directly or indirectly
  • intentionally accesses any computer system
  • without authorisation
  • knowing that he or she is not authorized to access that computer system or being reckless as to whether or not he or she is authorised to access that computer system
136
Q

Computer Crime penalties

A

Damaging (danger to life) - 10 years
Damaging (unauthorized) - 7 years
Accessing dishonestly (success) - 7 years
Accessing dishonestly (intended) - 5 years
Accessing w/o authorisation - 2 years

137
Q

Acccess requires…

A

Access requires that the person instructing or communicating with the computer system has some form or connection with the computer system through which instructions or communications may pass.

DDP Modules (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions