PENAL CODE

Question 1

9.54. LIMITATION ON USE OF FORCE BY DRONE. (a) In this
section:

(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the use of force, including deadly force, involving a ________ is justified under this subchapter only if:
(1) at the time the use of force occurred, the actor was employed by a law enforcement agency;
(2) the use of force:
(A) would have been justified under another
provision of this subchapter; and
(B) did not involve the use of deadly force by
means of________; and
(3) before the use of force occurred, the law
enforcement agency employing the actor adopted and submitted to the Texas Commission on Law Enforcement a policy on the agency’s use of force by means of a ____, as required by Article 2.33, Code of Criminal Procedure, and the use of force conformed to the requirements of that policy.

Answer 1

drone
/
an autonomous drone
/
drone

Question 2

means cause that would commonly
produce a degree of anger, rage, resentment, or terror in a person
of ordinary temper, sufficient to render

Answer 2

Adequate cause”

Question 3

means passion directly caused by
and arising out of provocation by the individual killed or another
acting with the person killed which passion arises at the time of
the offense and is not solely the result of former provocation.

Answer 3

Sudden passion

Question 4

(b) A person commits an offense if the person:

(1) intentionally or knowingly causes the death of an individual;

(2) intends to cause serious bodily injury and commits an act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of an individual;

(3) commits or attempts to commit a felony, other than manslaughter, and in the course of and in furtherance of the commission or attempt, or in immediate flight from the commission or attempt, the person commits or attempts to commit an act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of an individual; or

(4) knowingly manufactures or delivers a controlled substance included in Penalty Group 1-B under Section 481.1022, Health and Safety Code, in violation of Section 481.1123, Health
and Safety Code, and an individual dies as a result of injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or introducing into the individual’s body any
amount of the controlled substance manufactured or delivered by the actor, regardless of whether the controlled substance was used by itself or with another substance, including a drug, adulterant, or dilutant.

Answer 4

Sec. 19.02. MURDER.

Question 5

(a) A person commits an offense
if the person commits murder as defined under Section 19.02(b)(1) and:

(1) the person murders a peace officer or fireman who is acting in the lawful discharge of an official duty and who the person knows is a peace officer or fireman;

(2) the person intentionally commits the murder in the course of committing or attempting to commit kidnapping, burglary, robbery, aggravated sexual assault, arson, obstruction or
retaliation, or terroristic threat under Section 22.07(a)(1), (3),(4), (5), or (6);

(3) the person commits the murder for remuneration or the promise of remuneration or employs another to commit the murder
for remuneration or the promise of remuneration;

(4) the person commits the murder while escaping or
attempting to escape from a penal institution;

(5) the person, while incarcerated in a penal
institution, murders another:
(A) who is employed in the operation of the penal institution; or
(B) with the intent to establish, maintain, or
participate in a combination or in the profits of a combination;

(6) the person:
(A) while incarcerated for an offense under this
section or Section 19.02, murders another; or
(B) while serving a sentence of life imprisonment or a term of 99 years for an offense under Section 20.04, 22.021,
or 29.03, murders another;

(7) the person murders more than one person:
(A) during the same criminal transaction; or
(B) during different criminal transactions but the murders are committed pursuant to the same scheme or course of conduct;

(8) the person murders an individual under 10 years of age;

(9) the person murders an individual 10 years of age or older but younger than 15 years of age; or

(10) the person murders another person in retaliation for or on account of the service or status of the other person as a judge or justice of the supreme court, the court of criminal
appeals, a court of appeals, a district court, a criminal district court, a constitutional county court, a statutory county court, a
justice court, or a municipal court.

Answer 5

Sec. 19.03. CAPITAL MURDER.

Question 6

means to restrict a person’s movements
without consent, so as to interfere substantially with the person’s
liberty, by moving the person from one place to another or by
confining the person.

Answer 6

Restrain

Question 7

Restraint is “without consent” if it is
accomplished by:

(A) force, intimidation, or deception; or

(B) any means, including acquiescence of the
victim, if:

(i) the victim is a child who is less than ____
years of age or an ________ and the parent, guardian, or person or institution acting in loco parentis has not acquiesced in the movement or confinement; or

(ii) the victim is a child who is ____ years of
age or older and younger than ____ years of age, the victim is taken outside of ________ and outside a ________ from the victim’s residence, and the parent, guardian, or person or institution acting in loco parentis has not acquiesced in the movement.

Answer 7

14 / incompetent person
14 / 17
the state / 120-mile radius

Question 8

means to restrain a person with intent to
prevent his liberation by:

(A) secreting or holding him in a place where he is not likely to be found; or

(B) using or threatening to use deadly force.

Answer 8

Abduct

Question 9

Sec. 20.02. UNLAWFUL RESTRAINT.

(a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly restrains another person.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:

(1) the person restrained was a child younger than ____;

(2) the actor was a ____ of the child; and

(3) the actor’s sole intent was to assume lawful control of the child.

Answer 9

14 years of age / relative

Question 10

Sec. 20.03. KIDNAPPING.

(a) A person commits an offense if
he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:

(1) the abduction was not coupled with intent to ___________________________________;

(2) the actor was a relative of the person abducted; and

(3) the actor’s sole intent was to assume lawful control of the victim.

Answer 10

use or to threaten to use deadly force

Question 11

Sec. 20.04. AGGRAVATED KIDNAPPING.

(a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with the intent to:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person and ____________ during the commission of the offense.

Answer 11

(1) hold him for ransom or reward;

(2) use him as a shield or hostage;

(3) facilitate the commission of a felony or the flight after the attempt or commission of a felony;

(4) inflict bodily injury on him or violate or abuse him sexually;

(5) terrorize him or a third person; or

(6) interfere with the performance of any governmental or political function.
/
uses or exhibits a deadly
weapon

Question 12

Sec. 20.05. SMUGGLING OF PERSONS.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person knowingly:

(1) uses a motor vehicle, aircraft, watercraft, or other means of conveyance to transport an individual with the intent to:**

(A) ________________ from a peace officer or special investigator; or

(B) ____ from a person the actor knows is a peace officer or special investigator attempting to lawfully arrest or detain the actor;

(2) encourages or induces a person to enter or remain in this country in violation of federal law by concealing, harboring, or shielding that person from detection; or

(3) assists, guides, or directs two or more individuals to enter or remain on agricultural land without the effective consent of the owner.

(c) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution of an offense under this section, other than an offense punishable under Subsection (b)(1)(A) or (b)(2), = (SBI, death, sexual assault), that the actor is related to the smuggled individual within the ________________ or, at the time of the offense, within the ____________________.

Answer 12

conceal the individual
/
flee

second degree of consanguinity
/
second degree of affinity

Question 13

Sec. 20.06. CONTINUOUS SMUGGLING OF PERSONS.

(a) A person commits an offense if, during a period that is ________ in duration, the person engages ____ times in conduct that constitutes an offense under Section 20.05.

Answer 13

10 or more days
/
two or more

Question 14

Sec. 20.07. OPERATION OF STASH HOUSE.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person knowingly:

(1) uses or ____________ any real estate, building, room, tent, vehicle, boat, or other property owned by the person or under the person’s control to commit an offense or to
facilitate the commission of an offense under Section 20.05, 20.06, 20A.02, 20A.03, 43.04, or 43.05; (Smugl, cont smugl, traff, cont traff, agg promo prost, comp prost) or

(2) rents or leases any property to another, ____ that the property be used as described by Subdivision (1).

Answer 14

permits another to use
/
intending

Question 15

CHAPTER 20A. TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS
Sec. 20A.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:
(1) “Child” means a person younger than 18 years of age.

Question 16

CHAPTER 20A. TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS
Sec. 20A.01. DEFINITIONS.

In this chapter:

(1) “Child” means a person ________ years of age.

Answer 16

younger than 18

Question 17

Sec. 20A.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:

(1-a) “Coercion” as defined by Section 1.07 includes:

(A) destroying, concealing, confiscating, or
withholding from a trafficked person, or threatening to destroy, conceal, confiscate, or withhold from a trafficked person, the
person’s actual or purported:

(i) government records; or

(ii) identifying information or documents;

(B) causing a trafficked person, without the
person’s consent, to become intoxicated, as defined by Section 49.01, to a degree that impairs the person’s ability to appraise
the nature of or resist engaging in any conduct, including performing or providing labor or services; or

(C) withholding alcohol or a controlled substance to a degree that impairs the ability of a trafficked person with a chemical dependency, as defined by Section 462.001, Health and Safety Code, to appraise the nature of or resist engaging in any conduct, including performing or providing labor or services.

Question 18

means to transport, entice, recruit, harbor, provide, or otherwise obtain another person by any means.

Answer 18

Traffic

Question 19

Sec. 20A.02. TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person knowingly:

(1) traffics another person with the intent that the trafficked person engage in forced labor or services;

(2) receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity described by Subdivision (1), including by receiving labor or services the person knows are forced labor or
services;

(3) traffics another person and, through force, fraud, or coercion, causes the trafficked person to engage in conduct prohibited by:

(A) Section 43.02 (Prostitution);
(B) Section 43.03 (Promotion of Prostitution);
(B-1) Section 43.031 (Online Promotion of
Prostitution);
(C) Section 43.04 (Aggravated Promotion of
Prostitution);
(C-1) Section 43.041 (Aggravated Online Promotion of Prostitution); or
(D) Section 43.05 (Compelling Prostitution);

(4) receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity described by Subdivision (3) or engages in sexual conduct with a person trafficked in the manner described in Subdivision (3);

(5) traffics a child or disabled individual with the
intent that the trafficked child or disabled individual engage in forced labor or services;

(6) receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity described by Subdivision (5), including by receiving labor or services the person knows are forced labor or
services;

(7) traffics a child or disabled individual and by any means causes the trafficked child or disabled individual to engage in, or become the victim of, conduct prohibited by:

(A) Section 21.02 (Continuous Sexual Abuse of Young Child or Disabled Individual);
(B) Section 21.11 (Indecency with a Child);
(C) Section 22.011 (Sexual Assault);
(D) Section 22.021 (Aggravated Sexual Assault);
(E) Section 43.02 (Prostitution);
(E-1) Section 43.021 (Solicitation of
Prostitution);
(F) Section 43.03 (Promotion of Prostitution);
(F-1) Section 43.031 (Online Promotion of
Prostitution);
(G) Section 43.04 (Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution);
(G-1) Section 43.041 (Aggravated Online Promotion of Prostitution);
(H) Section 43.05 (Compelling Prostitution);
(I) Section 43.25 (Sexual Performance by a Child);
(J) Section 43.251 (Employment Harmful to
Children); or
(K) Section 43.26 (Possession or Promotion of ChildPornography); or

(8) receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity described by Subdivision (7) or engages in sexual conduct with a child or disabled individual trafficked in
the manner described in Subdivision (7).

Question 20

Sec. 20A.03. CONTINUOUS TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS.

(a) A person commits an offense if, during a period that is ________ in duration, the person engages ________ times in conduct
that constitutes an offense under Section 20A.02 against one or more victims.

Answer 20

30 or more days
/
two or more

Question 21

Sec. 20A.04. ACCOMPLICE WITNESS; TESTIMONY AND IMMUNITY.

(a) A party to an offense under this chapter may be required to provide evidence or testify about the offense.

(b) A party to an offense under this chapter may ________ for any offense about which the party is required to provide evidence or testify, and the evidence and testimony may not be used against the party in any ________ except a prosecution for ________. For purposes of this subsection, “adjudicatory proceeding” means a proceeding before a court or any other agency of government in which the legal rights,
powers, duties, or privileges of specified parties are determined.

Answer 21

not be prosecuted
/
adjudicatory proceeding
/
aggravated perjury

Question 22

Sec. 21.02. CONTINUOUS SEXUAL ABUSE OF YOUNG CHILD OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL.

(b) A person commits an offense if:

(1) during a period that is ________ in duration, the person commits ________ acts of sexual abuse, regardless of whether the acts of sexual abuse are committed against one or more victims; and

(2) at the time of the commission of each of the acts of sexual abuse, the actor is ________ or older and the victim is:

(A) a child younger than ________,
regardless of whether the actor ________ at the time of the offense; or

(B) a ____ individual.

(c) For purposes of this section, “act of sexual abuse” means any act that is a violation of one or more of the following penal laws:

(1) aggravated kidnapping under Section 20.04(a)(4), if the actor committed the offense with the intent to violate or abuse the victim sexually;

(2) indecency with a child under Section 21.11(a)(1), if the actor committed the offense in a manner other than by touching, including touching through clothing, the breast of a child;

(3) sexual assault under Section 22.011;

(4) aggravated sexual assault under Section 22.021;

(5) burglary under Section 30.02, if the offense is punishable under Subsection (d) of that section and the actor committed the offense with the intent to commit an offense listed
in Subdivisions (1)-(4);

(6) sexual performance by a child under Section 43.25;

(7) trafficking of persons under Section 20A.02(a)(3),

(4), (7), or (8); and

(8) compelling prostitution under Section 43.05.

(g) With respect to a prosecution under this section involving only one or more victims described by Subsection (b)(2)(A), it is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that the actor:

(1) was not more than five years older than:

(A) the victim of the offense, if the offense is
alleged to have been committed against only one victim; or

(B) the youngest victim of the offense, if the
offense is alleged to have been committed against more than one victim;

(2) did not use duress, force, or a threat against a victim at the time of the commission of any of the acts of sexual abuse alleged as an element of the offense; and

**(3) **at the time of the commission of any of the acts of sexual abuse alleged as an element of the offense:

(A) was not required under Chapter 62, Code of Criminal Procedure, to register for life as a sex offender; or

(B) was not a person who under Chapter 62 had a reportable conviction or adjudication for an offense under this section or an act of sexual abuse as described by Subsection (c).

Answer 22

30 or more days / two or more
17 years of age
/
(A) … younger than 14 years of age,
…… knows the age of the victim ….

(B) a disabled

Question 23

Sec. 21.07. PUBLIC LEWDNESS.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person knowingly engages in any of the following acts in a public place or, if not in a public place, the person is reckless about whether ____________________ by the person’s:

(1)
(2)
(3)

Answer 23

(1) act of sexual intercourse;
(2) act of deviate sexual intercourse; or
(3) act of sexual contact.
/
another is
present who will be offended or alarmed

Question 24

Sec. 21.08. INDECENT EXPOSURE.

(a) A person commits an offense if he exposes ________ or ____________ with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, and he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended or alarmed by his act.

Answer 24

his anus / any part of his genitals

Question 25

Sec. 21.11. INDECENCY WITH A CHILD.

(a) A person commits an offense if, with a child________ , whether the child is ________ and regardless of whether the person ____________ at the time of the offense, the person:

(1) engages in sexual contact with the child or causes the child to engage in sexual contact; or

(2) with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person:

(A) exposes the person’s anus or any part of the
person’s genitals, knowing the child is present; or

(B) causes the child to expose the child’s anus or any part of the child’s genitals.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that the actor:

(1) was not more than three years older than the victim and of the opposite sex;

(2) did not use duress, force, or a threat against the victim at the time of the offense; and

(3) at the time of the offense:

(A) was not required under Chapter 62, Code of
Criminal Procedure, to register for life as a sex offender; or

(B) was not a person who under Chapter 62 had a reportable conviction or adjudication for an offense under this section.

(b-1) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that the actor was the spouse of the child at the time of the offense.

Answer 25

younger than 17 years of age
/
of the same or opposite sex
/
knows the age of the child

Question 26

Sec. 21.12. IMPROPER RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN EDUCATOR AND STUDENT.

(a) An employee of a public or private primary or secondary school commits an offense if the employee:

(1) engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviate sexual intercourse with a person who is enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school at which the employee works;

(2) holds a position described by Section 21.003(a) or (b), Education Code, regardless of whether the employee holds the appropriate certificate, permit, license, or credential for the position, and engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviate sexual intercourse with a person the employee knows is:

(A) enrolled in a public or private primary or
secondary school, other than a school described by Subdivision (1); or

(B) a student participant in an educational
activity that is sponsored by a school district or a public or private primary or secondary school, if students enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary participants in the activity; or Page -7 -

(3) engages in conduct described by Section 33.021, with a person described by Subdivision (1), or a person the employee knows is a person described by Subdivision (2)(A) or (B), regardless of ________________

(b-1) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:

(1) the actor was the spouse of the enrolled person at the time of the offense; or

(2) the actor was not more than three years older than the enrolled person and, at the time of the offense, the actor and the enrolled person were in a relationship that began before the actor’s employment at a public or private primary or secondary school.

(d) The name of a person who is enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school and involved in an improper relationship with an educator as provided by Subsection (a) may not be released to the public and is not public information under Chapter 552, Government Code.

(d-1) Except as otherwise provided by this subsection, a public or private primary or secondary school, or a person or entity that operates a public or private primary or secondary school, may not release externally to the general public the name of an employee of the school who is accused of committing an
offense under this section until the employee is indicted for the offense. The school, or the person or entity that operates the school, may release the name of the accused employee regardless of whether the employee has been indicted for the offense as necessary
for the school to:

(1) report the accusation:

(A) to the Texas Education Agency, another state agency, or local law enforcement or as otherwise required by law; or

(B) to the school’s members or community in
accordance with the school’s policies or procedures or with the religious law observed by the school; or

(2) conduct an investigation of the accusation.

Answer 26

the age of that person.

Question 27

Sec. 21.15. INVASIVE VISUAL RECORDING.

(a) In this section:

(1) “Female breast” means any portion of the female breast below the top of the areola.

(2) “Intimate area” means the naked or clothed genitals, pubic area, anus, buttocks, or female breast of a person.

(3) “Changing room” means a room or portioned area provided for or primarily used for the changing of clothing and includes dressing rooms, locker rooms, and swimwear changing areas.

(4) “Promote” has the meaning assigned by Section 43.21.

(b) A person commits an offense if, without the other person’s consent and with intent to invade the privacy of the other person, the person:

(1) photographs or by videotape or other electronic means records, broadcasts, or transmits a visual image of an intimate area of another person if the other person has a
reasonable expectation that the intimate area is not subject to public view;

(2) photographs or by videotape or other electronic means records, broadcasts, or transmits a visual image of another in a bathroom or changing room; or

(3) knowing the character and content of the photograph, recording, broadcast, or transmission, promotes a photograph,
recording, broadcast, or transmission described by Subdivision (1) or (2).

Question 28

Sec. 21.16. UNLAWFUL DISCLOSURE OR PROMOTION OF INTIMATE VISUAL MATERIAL.

(a) In this section:

(1) “Intimate parts” means the naked genitals, pubic area, anus, buttocks, or female nipple of a person.

(2) “Promote” means to procure, manufacture, issue, sell, give, provide, lend, mail, deliver, transfer, transmit, publish, distribute, circulate, disseminate, present, exhibit, or advertise or to offer or agree to do any of the above.

(3) “Sexual conduct” means sexual contact, actual or simulated sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse, sexual bestiality, masturbation, or sadomasochistic abuse.

(4) “Simulated” means the explicit depiction of sexual conduct that creates the appearance of actual sexual conduct and during which a person engaging in the conduct exhibits any
uncovered portion of the breasts, genitals, or buttocks.

(5) “Visual material” means:

(A) any film, photograph, videotape, negative, or
slide or any photographic reproduction that contains or incorporates in any manner any film, photograph, videotape, negative, or slide; or

(B) any disk, diskette, or other physical medium
that allows an image to be displayed on a computer or other video screen and any image transmitted to a computer or other video
screen by telephone line, cable, satellite transmission, or other method.

Question 29

Sec. 21.16. UNLAWFUL DISCLOSURE OR PROMOTION OF INTIMATE VISUAL MATERIAL.

(b) A person commits an offense if:

(1) without the effective consent of the depicted person and with the intent to harm that person, the person discloses visual material depicting another person with the person’s intimate
parts exposed or engaged in sexual conduct;

(2) at the time of the disclosure, the person knows or has reason to believe that the visual material was obtained by the person or created under circumstances in which the depicted person had a reasonable expectation that the visual material would remain private;

(3) the disclosure of the visual material causes harm to the depicted person; and

(4) the disclosure of the visual material reveals the identity of the depicted person in any manner, including through:

(A) any accompanying or subsequent information or material related to the visual material; or

(B) information or material provided by a third
party in response to the disclosure of the visual material.

(c) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally threatens to disclose, without the consent of the depicted person, visual material depicting another person with the person’s intimate parts exposed or engaged in sexual conduct and the actor makes the threat to obtain a benefit:

(1) in return for not making the disclosure; or

(2) in connection with the threatened disclosure.

(d) A person commits an offense if, knowing the character and content of the visual material, the person promotes visual material described by Subsection (b) on an Internet website or other forum for publication that is owned or operated by the person.

(e) It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the depicted person:

(1) created or consented to the creation of the visual material; or

(2) voluntarily transmitted the visual material to the actor.

(f) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under Subsection (b) or (d) that:

(1) the disclosure or promotion is made in the course of:

(A) lawful and common practices of law enforcement or medical treatment;

(B) reporting unlawful activity; or

(C) a legal proceeding, if the disclosure or
promotion is permitted or required by law;

(2) the disclosure or promotion consists of visual material depicting in a public or commercial setting only a person’s voluntary exposure of:

(A) the person’s intimate parts; or

(B) the person engaging in sexual conduct; or

(3) the actor is an interactive computer service, as defined by 47 U.S.C. Section 230, and the disclosure or promotion consists of visual material provided by another person.

Question 30

Sec. 21.165. UNLAWFUL PRODUCTION OR DISTRIBUTION OF CERTAIN SEXUALLY EXPLICIT VIDEOS.

(a) In this section:

(1) “Deep fake video” means a video, created with the intent to deceive, that appears to depict a real person performing an action that did not occur in reality.

(2) “Intimate parts” and “sexual conduct” have the meanings assigned by Section 21.16.

(b) A person commits an offense if, without the effective consent of the person appearing to be depicted, the person knowingly produces or distributes by electronic means a deep fake
video that appears to depict the person with the person’s intimate parts exposed or engaged in sexual conduct.

Question 31

Sec. 21.17. VOYEURISM.

(a) A person commits an offense if
the person, with the intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of the actor, observes, including ________________, another person without the other person’s consent while the other person is in a dwelling or structure in which the other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.

Answer 31

remotely through the use of electronic means

Question 32

Sec. 21.18. SEXUAL COERCION.

(a) In this section:

(1) “Intimate visual material” means the visual material described by Section 21.16(b)(1) or (c).

(2) “Sexual conduct” has the meaning assigned by Section 43.25.

(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally threatens, including by coercion or extortion, to commit an offense under Chapter 43 or Section 20A.02(a)(3), (4), (7), or (8), 21.02, 21.08, 21.11, 21.12, 21.15, 21.16, 21.17, 22.011, or 22.021 to obtain, in return for not committing the threatened offense or in connection with the threatened offense, any of the following benefits:

(1) intimate visual material;

(2) an act involving sexual conduct causing arousal or gratification; or

(3) a monetary benefit or other benefit of value.

(c) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally threatens, including by coercion or extortion, to commit an offense under Chapter 19 or 20 or Section 20A.02(a)(1), (2), (5), or (6) to obtain, in return for not committing the threatened offense or in connection with the threatened offense, either of the following benefits:

(1) intimate visual material; or

(2) an act involving sexual conduct causing arousal or gratification.

(d) This section applies to a threat regardless of how that threat is communicated, including a threat transmitted through email or an Internet website, social media account, or chat room and a threat made by other electronic or technological means.

Question 33

Sec. 21.19. UNLAWFUL ELECTRONIC TRANSMISSION OF SEXUALLY EXPLICIT VISUAL MATERIAL.

(b) A person commits an offense if the person knowingly transmits by electronic means visual material that:

(1) depicts:

(A) any person engaging in sexual conduct or with the person’s intimate parts exposed; or

(B) covered genitals of a male person that are in a discernibly turgid state; and

(2) is not sent at the request of or with the express consent of the recipient.

Question 34

Sec. 22.01. ASSAULT.

(a) A person commits an offense if the
person:

(1) intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes
bodily injury to another, including the person’s spouse;

(2) intentionally or knowingly threatens another with imminent bodily injury, including the person’s spouse; or

(3) intentionally or knowingly causes physical contact with another when the person knows or should reasonably believe that the other will regard the contact as offensive or provocative.

Question 35

Sec. 22.011. SEXUAL ASSAULT.

(a) A person commits an offense if:

(1) the person intentionally or knowingly:

(A) causes the penetration of the anus or sexual
organ of another person by any means, without that person’s consent;

(B) causes the penetration of the mouth of another person by the sexual organ of the actor, without that person’s consent; or

(C) causes the sexual organ of another person,
without that person’s consent, to contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; or

(2) regardless of whether the person knows the age of the child at the time of the offense, the person intentionally or knowingly:

(A) causes the penetration of the anus or sexual
organ of a child by any means;

(B) causes the penetration of the mouth of a child by the sexual organ of the actor;

(C) causes the sexual organ of a child to contact
or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor;

(D) causes the anus of a child to contact the
mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; or

(E) causes the mouth of a child to contact the anus or sexual organ of another person, including the actor.

Question 36

Sec. 22.011. SEXUAL ASSAULT.

(b) A sexual assault under
Subsection (a)(1)=(not child)
is without the consent of the other person if:

(1) the actor compels the other person to submit or participate by the use of physical force, violence, or coercion;

(2) the actor compels the other person to submit or participate by threatening to use force or violence against the other person or to cause harm to the other person, and the other
person believes that the actor has the present ability to execute the threat;

(3) the other person has not consented and the actor knows the other person is unconscious or physically unable to resist;

(4) the actor knows that as a result of mental disease or defect the other person is at the time of the sexual assault incapable either of appraising the nature of the act or of
resisting it;

(5) the other person has not consented and the actor knows the other person is unaware that the sexual assault is occurring;

(6) the actor has intentionally impaired the other person’s power to appraise or control the other person’s conduct by administering any substance without the other person’s knowledge;

(7) the actor compels the other person to submit or participate by threatening to use force or violence against any person, and the other person believes that the actor has the
ability to execute the threat;

(8) the actor is a public servant who coerces the other person to submit or participate;

(9) the actor is a mental health services provider or a health care services provider who causes the other person, who is a patient or former patient of the actor, to submit or participate by
exploiting the other person’s emotional dependency on the actor;

(10) the actor is a clergyman who causes the other person to submit or participate by exploiting the other person’s emotional dependency on the clergyman in the clergyman’s professional character as spiritual adviser;

(11) the actor is an employee of a facility where the other person is a resident, unless the employee and resident are formally or informally married to each other under Chapter 2, Family Code;

(12) the actor is a health care services provider who, in the course of performing an assisted reproduction procedure on the other person, uses human reproductive material from a donor knowing that the other person has not expressly consented to the use of material from that donor;

(13) the actor is a coach or tutor who causes the other person to submit or participate by using the actor’s power or influence to exploit the other person’s dependency on the actor; or

(14) the actor is a caregiver hired to assist the other person with activities of daily life and causes the other person to submit or participate by exploiting the other person’s dependency on the actor.

Question 37

Sec. 22.011. SEXUAL ASSAULT.

(d) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (a)(2) that the conduct consisted of medical care for the child and did not include any contact between the anus or sexual organ of the child and the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of the actor or a third party.

(e) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under Subsection (a)(2):

(1) that the actor was the spouse of the child at the time of the offense; or

(2) that:

(A) the actor was not more than three years older than the victim and at the time of the offense:

(i) was not required under Chapter 62, Code of
Criminal Procedure, to register for life as a sex offender; or

(ii) was not a person who under Chapter 62,
Code of Criminal Procedure, had a reportable conviction or adjudication for an offense under this section; and

(B) the victim:

(i) was a child of 14 years of age or older;
and

(ii) was not:

(a) a person whom the actor was
prohibited from marrying or purporting to marry or with whom the actor was prohibited from living under the appearance of being married under Section 25.01; or

(b) a person with whom the actor was
prohibited from engaging in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual intercourse under Section 25.02.

Question 38

Sec. 22.012. INDECENT ASSAULT.

(a) A person commits an offense if, without the other person’s consent and with the intent
to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, the person:

(1) touches the anus, breast, or any part of the
genitals of another person;

(2) touches another person with the anus, breast, or any part of the genitals of any person;

(3) exposes or attempts to expose another person’s genitals, pubic area, anus, buttocks, or female areola; or

(4) causes another person to contact the blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of any person.

Question 39

Sec. 22.02. AGGRAVATED ASSAULT.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person commits assault as defined in Sec. 22.01 and
the person:

(1) causes serious bodily injury to another, including the person’s spouse; or

(2) uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the
commission of the assault.

Question 40

Sec. 22.021. AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ASSAULT.

(a) A person commits an offense:

(1) if the person:

(A) intentionally or knowingly:

(i) causes the penetration of the anus or
sexual organ of another person by any means, without that person’s consent;

(ii) causes the penetration of the mouth of
another person by the sexual organ of the actor, without that person’s consent; or

(iii) causes the sexual organ of another
person, without that person’s consent, to contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; or

(B) regardless of whether the person knows the age of the child at the time of the offense, intentionally or knowingly:

(i) causes the penetration of the anus or
sexual organ of a child by any means;

(ii) causes the penetration of the mouth of a
child by the sexual organ of the actor;

(iii) causes the sexual organ of a child to
contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor;

(iv) causes the anus of a child to contact the
mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; or

(v) causes the mouth of a child to contact the
anus or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; and

(2) if:

(A) the person:

(i) causes serious bodily injury or attempts
to cause the death of the victim or another person in the course of the same criminal episode;

(ii) by acts or words places the victim in
fear that any person will become the victim of an offense under Section 20A.02(a)(3), (4), (7), or (8) or that death, serious bodily injury, or kidnapping will be imminently inflicted on any
person;

(iii) by acts or words occurring in the
presence of the victim threatens to cause any person to become the victim of an offense under Section 20A.02(a)(3), (4), (7), or (8)
or to cause the death, serious bodily injury, or kidnapping of any person;

(iv) uses or exhibits a deadly weapon in the
course of the same criminal episode;

(v) acts in concert with another who engages
in conduct described by Subdivision (1) directed toward the same victim and occurring during the course of the same criminal episode; or

(vi) with the intent of facilitating the
commission of the offense, administers or provides to the victim of the offense any substance capable of impairing the victim’s ability to appraise the nature of the act or to resist the act;

(B) the victim is younger than 14 years of age,
regardless of whether the person knows the age of the victim at the time of the offense; or

(C) the victim is an elderly individual or a
disabled individual.

(b) In this section:

(3) “Disabled individual” means a person older than 13 years of age who by reason of age or physical or mental disease, defect, or injury is substantially unable to protect the person’s
self from harm or to provide food, shelter, or medical care for the person’s self.

(c) An aggravated sexual assault under this section is without the consent of the other person if the aggravated sexual assault occurs under the same circumstances listed in Section
22.011(b).

Question 41

Sec. 22.04. INJURY TO A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR
DISABLED INDIVIDUAL. (a) A person commits an offense if he
intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence,
by act or intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly by omission,
causes to a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual:
(1) serious bodily injury;
(2) serious mental deficiency, impairment, or injury;
or
(3) bodily injury.
(a-1) A person commits an offense if the person is an owner,
operator, or employee of a group home, nursing facility, assisted
living facility, boarding home facility, intermediate care facility
for persons with an intellectual or developmental disability, or other institutional care facility and the person intentionally,
knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence by omission
causes to a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual who
is a resident of that group home or facility:
(1) serious bodily injury;
(2) serious mental deficiency, impairment, or injury; or
(3) bodily injury.

Question 42

Sec. 22.04. INJURY TO A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL.

(b) An omission that causes a condition described by
Subsection (a)(1), (2), or (3) or (a-1)(1), (2), or (3) is conduct constituting an offense under this section if:

(1) the actor has a legal or statutory duty to act; or

(2) the actor has assumed care, custody, or control of a
child, elderly individual, or disabled individual.

(c) In this section:

(1) “Child” means a person 14 years of age or younger.

(2) “Elderly individual” means a person 65 years of age
or older.

(3) “Disabled individual” means a person:

(A) with one or more of the following:

(i) autism spectrum disorder, as defined by Section 1355.001, Insurance Code;

(ii) developmental disability, as defined by Section 112.042, Human Resources Code;

(iii) intellectual disability, as defined by Section 591.003, Health and Safety Code;

(iv) severe emotional disturbance, as defined by Section 261.001, Family Code;

(v) traumatic brain injury, as defined by Section 92.001, Health and Safety Code; or

(vi) mental illness, as defined by Section 571.003, Health and Safety Code; or

(B) who otherwise by reason of age or physical or
mental disease, defect, or injury is substantially unable to protect the person’s self from harm or to provide food, shelter, or medical care for the person’s self.

(d) For purposes of an omission that causes a condition
described by Subsection (a)(1), (2), or (3), the actor has assumed care, custody, or control if the actor has by act, words, or course of conduct acted so as to cause a reasonable person to conclude that the actor has accepted responsibility for protection, food, shelter, or medical care for a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual. For purposes of an omission that causes a
condition described by Subsection (a-1)(1), (2), or (3), the actor acting during the actor’s capacity as owner, operator, or employee of a group home or facility described by Subsection (a-1) is considered to have accepted responsibility for protection, food, shelter, or medical care for the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual who is a resident of the group home or facility.

Question 43

Sec. 22.04. INJURY TO A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL.

(i) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under
Subsection (b)(2) that before the offense the actor:

(1) notified in person the child, elderly individual, or
disabled individual that the actor would no longer provide the applicable care described by Subsection (d), and notified in writing the parents or a person, other than the actor, acting in loco parentis to the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual that the actor would no longer provide the applicable care described by Subsection (d); or

(2) notified in writing the Department of Family and
Protective Services that the actor would no longer provide the applicable care described by Subsection (d).

(j) Written notification under Subsection (i)(2) or (i)(3) is
not effective unless it contains the name and address of the actor, the name and address of the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual, the type of care provided by the actor, and the date the care was discontinued.

(k) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that
the act or omission consisted of:

(1) reasonable medical care occurring under the
direction of or by a licensed physician; or

(2) emergency medical care administered in good faith
and with reasonable care by a person not licensed in the healing arts.

(l) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section:

(1) that the act or omission was based on treatment in
accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized religious method of healing with a generally accepted record of efficacy;

(2) for a person charged with an act of omission causing
to a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual a condition described by Subsection (a)(1), (2), or (3) that:

(A) there is no evidence that, on the date prior to
the offense charged, the defendant was aware of an incident of injury to the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual and failed to report the incident; and

(B) the person:

(i) was a victim of family violence, as that term is defined by Section 71.004, Family Code, committed by a person who is also charged with an offense against the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual under this section or any other section of this title; (ii) did not cause a condition described by Subsection (a)(1), (2), or (3); and

(iii) did not reasonably believe at the time
of the omission that an effort to prevent the person also charged with an offense against the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual from committing the offense would have an effect; or

(3) that:

(A) the actor was not more than three years older
than the victim at the time of the offense; and

(B) the victim was a nondisabled or disabled child
at the time of the offense.

(m) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under
Subsections (a)(1), (2), and (3) for injury to a disabled
individual that the person did not know and could not reasonably have known that the individual was a disabled individual, as defined by Subsection (c), at the time of the offense.

Question 44

22.041. ABANDONING OR ENDANGERING A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL

(b) A person commits an offense if the person, having
custody, care, or control of a child, elderly individual, or
disabled individual, intentionally abandons the child or individual in any place under circumstances that expose the child or individual to an unreasonable risk of harm.

(c) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence, by act or omission, engages in conduct that places a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual in imminent danger of death, bodily injury, or physical or mental impairment.

Question 45

22.041. ABANDONING OR ENDANGERING A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL

(c-1) For purposes of Subsection (c), it is presumed that a person engaged in conduct that places a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual in imminent danger of death, bodily injury, or physical or mental impairment if:

(1) the person manufactured, possessed, or in any way
introduced into the body of any person the controlled substance methamphetamine in the presence of the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual;

(2) the person’s conduct related to the proximity or
accessibility of the controlled substance methamphetamine to the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual and an analysis of a specimen of the child’s or individual’s blood, urine, or other bodily substance indicates the presence of methamphetamine in the body of the child or individual; or

(3) the person injected, ingested, inhaled, or otherwise
introduced a controlled substance listed in Penalty Group 1, Section 481.102, Health and Safety Code, or Penalty Group 1-B, Section 481.1022, Health and Safety Code, into the human body when the person was not in lawful possession of the substance as defined
by Section 481.002(24) of that code.

Question 46

Sec. 22.041. ABANDONING OR ENDANGERING A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL.

(g) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (c) that the act or omission enables the child, elderly individual, or disabled individual to practice for or participate in an organized athletic event and that appropriate safety equipment and procedures
are employed in the event.

(h) It is an exception to the application of this section for abandoning or endangering a child that the actor voluntarily delivered the child to a designated emergency infant care provider under Section 262.302, Family Code.

Question 47

Sec. 22.05. DEADLY CONDUCT.

(a) A person commits an offense if he recklessly engages in conduct that places another in imminent
danger of serious bodily injury.

(b) A person commits an offense if he knowingly discharges a firearm at or in the direction of:

(1) one or more individuals; or
(2) a habitation, building, or vehicle and is reckless
as to whether the habitation, building, or vehicle is occupied.

(c) Recklessness and danger are presumed if the actor
knowingly pointed a firearm at or in the direction of another whether or not the actor believed the firearm to be loaded.

Question 48

Sec. 22.06. CONSENT AS DEFENSE TO ASSAULTIVE CONDUCT.

(a) The victim’s effective consent or the actor’s reasonable belief that the victim consented to the actor’s conduct is a defense to prosecution under Section 22.01 (Assault), 22.02 (Aggravated Assault), or 22.05 (Deadly Conduct) if:

(1) the conduct did not threaten or inflict serious
bodily injury; or

(2) the victim knew the conduct was a risk of:
(A) his occupation;
(B) recognized medical treatment; or
(C) a scientific experiment conducted by recognized
methods.

(b) The defense to prosecution provided by Subsection (a) is not available to a defendant who commits an offense described by Subsection (a) as a condition of the defendant’s or the victim’s initiation or continued membership in a criminal street gang, as defined by Section 71.01.

Question 49

Sec. 22.07. TERRORISTIC THREAT. (a) A person commits an offense if he threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person or property with intent to:

(1) cause a reaction of any type to his threat by an
official or volunteer agency organized to deal with emergencies;

(2) place any person in fear of imminent serious bodily
injury;

(3) prevent or interrupt the occupation or use of a
building, room, place of assembly, place to which the public has access, place of employment or occupation, aircraft, automobile, or other form of conveyance, or other public place;

(4) cause impairment or interruption of public
communications, public transportation, public water, gas, or power supply or other public service;

(5) place the public or a substantial group of the
public in fear of serious bodily injury; or

(6) influence the conduct or activities of a branch or
agency of the federal government, the state, or a political subdivision of the state.

Question 50

Sec. 22.08. AIDING SUICIDE.

(a) A person commits an offense
if, with intent to promote or assist the commission of suicide by another, he aids or attempts to aid the other to commit or attempt to commit suicide.

Question 51

Sec. 22.09. TAMPERING WITH CONSUMER PRODUCT. (a) In this
section:
(1) “Consumer Product” means any product offered for
sale to or for consumption by the public and includes “food” and
“drugs” as those terms are defined in Section 431.002, Health and
Safety Code.
(2) “Tamper” means to alter or add a foreign substance
to a consumer product to make it probable that the consumer product
will cause serious bodily injury.

Question 52

Sec. 22.09. TAMPERING WITH CONSUMER PRODUCT.
(b) A person commits an offense if he knowingly or
intentionally tampers with a consumer product knowing that the
consumer product will be offered for sale to the public or as a
gift to another.
(c) A person commits an offense if he knowingly or
intentionally threatens to tamper with a consumer product with the
intent to cause fear, to affect the sale of the consumer product,
or to cause bodily injury to any person

Question 53

Sec. 22.10. LEAVING A CHILD IN A VEHICLE. (a) A person
commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly leaves a child
in a motor vehicle for longer than five minutes, knowing that the
child is:
(1) younger than seven years of age; and
(2) not attended by an individual in the vehicle who is
14 years of age or older.

Question 54

Sec. 22.11. HARASSMENT BY PERSONS IN CERTAIN FACILITIES; HARASSMENT OF PUBLIC SERVANT.

(a) A person commits an offense if, with the intent to assault, harass, or alarm, the person:

(1) while imprisoned or confined in a correctional or
detention facility, causes another person to contact the blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of the actor, any other person, or an animal;

(2) while committed to a civil commitment facility,
causes:

(A) an officer or employee of the Texas Civil
Commitment Office to contact the blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of the actor, any other person, or an animal:

(i) while the officer or employee is lawfully
discharging an official duty at a civil commitment facility; or

(ii) in retaliation for or on account of an
exercise of official power or performance of an official duty by the officer or employee; or

(B) a person who contracts with the state to
perform a service in the facility or an employee of that person to contact the blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of the actor, any other person, or an animal:

(i) while the person or employee is engaged in
performing a service within the scope of the contract, if the actor knows the person or employee is authorized by the state to provide the service; or

(ii) in retaliation for or on account of the
person’s or employee’s performance of a service within the scope of the contract; or

(3) causes another person the actor knows to be a public servant to contact the blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of the actor, any other person, or an animal while the public servant is lawfully discharging an official duty or in retaliation or on account of an exercise of the public servant’sofficial power or performance of an official duty.

Question 55

Sec. 25.01. BIGAMY.

(a) An individual commits an offense if:

(1) he is legally married and he:

(A) purports to marry or does marry a person other
than his spouse in this state, or any other state or foreign country, under circumstances that would, but for the actor’s prior marriage, constitute a marriage; or

(B) lives with a person other than his spouse in
this state under the appearance of being married; or

(2) he knows that a married person other than his spouse is married and he:

(A) purports to marry or does marry that person in
this state, or any other state or foreign country, under
circumstances that would, but for the person’s prior marriage, constitute a marriage; or

(B) lives with that person in this state under the
appearance of being married.

Question 56

Sec. 25.01. BIGAMY.

(b) For purposes of this section, “under the appearance of being married” means holding out that the parties are married with cohabitation and an intent to be married by either party.

(c) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (a)

(1) that the actor reasonably believed at the time of the commission of the offense that the actor and the person whom the actor married or purported to marry or with whom the actor lived under the appearance of being married were legally eligible to be married
because the actor’s prior marriage was void or had been dissolved by death, divorce, or annulment. For purposes of this subsection, an actor’s belief is reasonable if the belief is substantiated by a
certified copy of a death certificate or other signed document issued by a court.

Question 57

Sec. 25.02. PROHIBITED SEXUAL CONDUCT.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person engages in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual intercourse with another person the actor knows to be, without regard to legitimacy:

(1) the actor’s ancestor or descendant by blood or
adoption;

(2) the actor’s current or former stepchild or
stepparent;

(3) the actor’s parent’s brother or sister of the whole
or half blood;

(4) the actor’s brother or sister of the whole or half
blood or by adoption;

(5) the children of the actor’s brother or sister of the
whole or half blood or by adoption; or

(6) the son or daughter of the actor’s aunt or uncle of
the whole or half blood or by adoption.

Question 58

Sec. 25.03. INTERFERENCE WITH CHILD CUSTODY.

(a) A person commits an offense if the person takes or retains a child younger than 18 years of age:

(1) when the person knows that the person’s taking or
retention violates the express terms of a judgment or order, including a temporary order, of a court disposing of the child’s custody;

(2) when the person has not been awarded custody of the child by a court of competent jurisdiction, knows that a suit for divorce or a civil suit or application for habeas corpus to dispose of the child’s custody has been filed, and takes the child out of the geographic area of the counties composing the judicial district
if the court is a district court or the county if the court is a statutory county court, without the permission of the court and with the intent to deprive the court of authority over the child; or

(3) outside of the United States with the intent to
deprive a person entitled to possession of or access to the child of that possession or access and without the permission of that person.

(b) A noncustodial parent commits an offense if, with the intent to interfere with the lawful custody of a child younger than 18 years, the noncustodial parent knowingly entices or persuades the child to leave the custody of the custodial parent, guardian, or person standing in the stead of the custodial parent or guardian of the child.

Question 59

Sec. 25.03. INTERFERENCE WITH CHILD CUSTODY.

(c) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (a)

(2) that the actor returned the child to the geographic area of the counties composing the judicial district if the court is a district court or the county if the court is a statutory county court, within three days after the date of the commission of the offense.

(c-1) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under
Subsection (a)(3) that:

(1) the taking or retention of the child was pursuant to
a valid order providing for possession of or access to the child; or

(2) notwithstanding any violation of a valid order
providing for possession of or access to the child, the actor’s retention of the child was due only to circumstances beyond the actor’s control and the actor promptly provided notice or made reasonable attempts to provide notice of those circumstances to the other person entitled to possession of or access to the child.

(c-2) Subsection (a)(3) does not apply if, at the time of the offense, the person taking or retaining the child:

(1) was entitled to possession of or access to the
child; and

(2) was fleeing the commission or attempted commission of family violence, as defined by Section 71.004, Family Code, against the child or the person.

Question 60

Sec. 25.031. AGREEMENT TO ABDUCT FROM CUSTODY. (a) A person
commits an offense if the person agrees, for remuneration or the
promise of remuneration, to abduct a child younger than 18 years of
age by force, threat of force, misrepresentation, stealth, or
unlawful entry, knowing that the child is under the care and
control of a person having custody or physical possession of the
child under a court order, including a temporary order, or under
the care and control of another person who is exercising care and
control with the consent of a person having custody or physical
possession under a court order, including a temporary order.

Question 61

Sec. 25.04. ENTICING A CHILD. (a) A person commits an
offense if, with the intent to interfere with the lawful custody of
a child younger than 18 years, he knowingly entices, persuades, or
takes the child from the custody of the parent or guardian or
person standing in the stead of the parent or guardian of such
child.

Question 62

Sec. 25.05. CRIMINAL NONSUPPORT. (a) An individual commits
an offense if the individual intentionally or knowingly fails to
provide support for the individual’s child younger than 18 years of
age, or for the individual’s child who is the subject of a court
order requiring the individual to support the child.
(b) For purposes of this section, “child” includes a child
born out of wedlock whose paternity has either been acknowledged by
the actor or has been established in a civil suit under the Family
Page -5 -
Code or the law of another state.
(c) Under this section, a conviction may be had on the
uncorroborated testimony of a party to the offense.
(d) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that the actor could not provide support for the actor’s
child.
(e) The pendency of a prosecution under this section does not
affect the power of a court to enter an order for child support
under the Family Code.

Question 63

Sec. 25.06. HARBORING RUNAWAY CHILD. (a) A person commits
an offense if he knowingly harbors a child and he is criminally
negligent about whether the child:
(1) is younger than 18 years; and
(2) has escaped from the custody of a peace officer, a
probation officer, the Texas Youth Council, or a detention facility
for children, or is voluntarily absent from the child’s home
without the consent of the child’s parent or guardian for a
substantial length of time or without the intent to return.
(b) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that
the actor was related to the child within the second degree by
consanguinity or affinity, as determined under Chapter 573,
Government Code.
(c) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that
the actor notified:
(1) the person or agency from which the child escaped or
a law enforcement agency of the presence of the child within 24
hours after discovering that the child had escaped from custody;
or
(2) a law enforcement agency or a person at the child’s
home of the presence of the child within 24 hours after discovering
that the child was voluntarily absent from home without the consent
of the child’s parent or guardian.
(d) An offense under this section is a Class A misdemeanor.

Question 64

Sec. 25.07. VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS
OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE, CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT, SEXUAL
ASSAULT OR ABUSE, INDECENT ASSAULT, STALKING, OR TRAFFICKING CASE.
(a) A person commits an offense if, in violation of a condition
of bond set in a family violence, sexual assault or abuse, indecent
assault, stalking, or trafficking case and related to the safety of
a victim or the safety of the community, an order issued under
Subchapter A, Chapter 7B, Code of Criminal Procedure, an order
issued under Article 17.292, Code of Criminal Procedure, an order
issued under Section 6.504, Family Code, Chapter 83, Family Code,
if the temporary ex parte order has been served on the person,
Chapter 85, Family Code, or Subchapter F, Chapter 261, Family Code,
or an order issued by another jurisdiction as provided by Chapter
88, Family Code, the person knowingly or intentionally:
(1) commits family violence or an act in furtherance of
an offense under Section 20A.02, 22.011, 22.012, 22.021, or 42.072;
(2) communicates:
(A) directly with a protected individual or a
member of the family or household in a threatening or harassing
manner;
(B) a threat through any person to a protected
individual or a member of the family or household; or
(C) in any manner with the protected individual or
a member of the family or household except through the person’s
attorney or a person appointed by the court, if the violation is of
an order described by this subsection and the order prohibits any
communication with a protected individual or a member of the family
or household;
(3) goes to or near any of the following places as
specifically described in the order or condition of bond:
(A) the residence or place of employment or
business of a protected individual or a member of the family or
household; or
(B) any child care facility, residence, or school
where a child protected by the order or condition of bond normally
resides or attends;
(4) possesses a firearm;
(5) harms, threatens, or interferes with the care,
custody, or control of a pet, companion animal, or assistance
animal that is possessed by a person protected by the order or
condition of bond;
(6) removes, attempts to remove, or otherwise tampers
with the normal functioning of a global positioning monitoring
system; or
(7) tracks or monitors personal property or a motor vehicle in the possession of a protected individual or of a member
of the family or household of a protected individual, without the
individual’s effective consent, including by:
(A) using a tracking application on a personal
electronic device in the possession of the protected individual or
the family or household member or using a tracking device; or
(B) physically following the protected individual
or family or household member or causing another to physically
follow the individual or member.
(a-1) For purposes of Subsection (a)(5), possession of a pet,
companion animal, or assistance animal by a person means:
(1) actual care, custody, control, or management of a
pet, companion animal, or assistance animal by the person; or
(2) constructive possession of a pet, companion animal,
or assistance animal owned by the person or for which the person
has been the primary caregiver.

Question 65

Sec. 25.071. VIOLATION OF PROTECTIVE ORDER PREVENTING OFFENSE
CAUSED BY BIAS OR PREJUDICE. (a) A person commits an offense if,
in violation of an order issued under Subchapter C, Chapter 7B,
Code of Criminal Procedure, the person knowingly or intentionally:
(1) commits an offense under Title 5 or Section 28.02,
28.03, or 28.08 and commits the offense because of bias or
prejudice as described by Article 42.014, Code of Criminal
Procedure;
(2) communicates:
(A) directly with a protected individual in a
threatening or harassing manner;
(B) a threat through any person to a protected
individual; or
(C) in any manner with the protected individual, if
the order prohibits any communication with a protected individual;
or
(3) goes to or near the residence or place of employmentor business of a protected individual.
(b) If conduct constituting an offense under this section
also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the
actor may be prosecuted under either section or under both
sections.
(c) A peace officer investigating conduct that may constitute
an offense under this section for a violation of an order may not
arrest a person protected by that order for a violation of that
order.

Question 66

Sec. 25.072. REPEATED VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR
CONDITIONS OF BOND IN FAMILY VIOLENCE, CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT,
SEXUAL ASSAULT OR ABUSE, INDECENT ASSAULT, STALKING, OR TRAFFICKING
CASE. (a) A person commits an offense if, during a period that is
12 months or less in duration, the person two or more times engages
in conduct that constitutes an offense under Section 25.07.
(b) If the jury is the trier of fact, members of the jury
must agree unanimously that the defendant, during a period that is
12 months or less in duration, two or more times engaged in conduct
that constituted an offense under Section 25.07.
(c) A defendant may not be convicted in the same criminal
action of another offense an element of which is any conduct that
is alleged as an element of the offense under Subsection (a) unless
the other offense:
(1) is charged in the alternative;
(2) occurred outside the period in which the offense
alleged under Subsection (a) was committed; or
(3) is considered by the trier of fact to be a lesser
included offense of the offense alleged under Subsection (a).
(d) A defendant may not be charged with more than one count
under Subsection (a) if all of the specific conduct that is alleged
to have been engaged in is alleged to have been committed in
violation of a single court order or single setting of bond.

Question 67

Sec. 25.08. SALE OR PURCHASE OF CHILD. (a) A person commits
an offense if he:
(1) possesses a child younger than 18 years of age or
has the custody, conservatorship, or guardianship of a child
younger than 18 years of age, whether or not he has actual
possession of the child, and he offers to accept, agrees to accept,
or accepts a thing of value for the delivery of the child to
another or for the possession of the child by another for purposes
of adoption; or
(2) offers to give, agrees to give, or gives a thing of
value to another for acquiring or maintaining the possession of a
child for the purpose of adoption.
(b) It is an exception to the application of this section
that the thing of value is:
(1) a fee or reimbursement paid to a child-placing
agency as authorized by law;
(2) a fee paid to an attorney, social worker, mental
health professional, or physician for services rendered in the
usual course of legal or medical practice or in providing adoption
counseling;
(3) a reimbursement of legal or medical expenses
incurred by a person for the benefit of the child; or
(4) a necessary pregnancy-related expense paid by a
child-placing agency for the benefit of the child’s parent during
the pregnancy or after the birth of the child as permitted by the
minimum standards for child-placing agencies and Department of
Protective and Regulatory Services rules.

Question 68

Sec. 25.081. UNREGULATED CUSTODY TRANSFER OF ADOPTED CHILD.
(a) In this section:
(1) “Adopted child” means a person younger than 18 years
of age who was legally adopted through a governmental entity or
through private means, including a person who is in foster care or
from a foreign country at the time of the adoption.
(2) “Unregulated custody transfer” means the transfer of
the permanent physical custody of an adopted child by the parent,
managing conservator, or guardian of the child without receiving
approval of the transfer by a court as required by Section 162.026,
Family Code.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by this section, a person
commits an offense if the person knowingly:
(1) conducts an unregulated custody transfer of an
adopted child; or
(2) facilitates or participates in the unregulated
custody transfer of an adopted child, including by transferring,
recruiting, harboring, transporting, providing, soliciting, or
obtaining an adopted child for that purpose.

Question 69

Sec. 25.09. ADVERTISING FOR PLACEMENT OF CHILD. (a) A
person commits an offense if the person advertises in the public
media that the person will place, provide, or obtain a child for
adoption or any other form of permanent physical custody of the
child.
(b) This section does not apply to a licensed child-placing
agency that is identified

Question 70

Sec. 25.10. INTERFERENCE WITH RIGHTS OF GUARDIAN OF THE
PERSON. (a) In this section:
(1) “Possessory right” means the right of a guardian of
the person to have physical possession of a ward and to establish
the ward’s legal domicile, as provided by Section 1151.051(c)(1),
Estates Code.
(2) “Ward” has the meaning assigned by Chapter 1002,
Estates Code.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person takes, retains,
or conceals a ward when the person knows that the person’s taking,
retention, or concealment interferes with a possessory right with
respect to the ward.
(c) An offense

Question 71

Sec. 25.11. CONTINUOUS VIOLENCE AGAINST THE FAMILY. (a) A
person commits an offense if, during a period that is 12 months or
less in duration, the person two or more times engages in conduct that constitutes an offense under Section 22.01(a)(1) against
another person or persons whose relationship to or association with
the defendant is described by Section 71.0021(b), 71.003, or
71.005, Family Code.
(b) If the jury is the trier of fact, members of the jury are
not required to agree unanimously on the specific conduct in which
the defendant engaged that constituted an offense under Section
22.01(a)(1) against the person or persons described by Subsection
(a), the exact date when that conduct occurred, or the county in
which each instance of the conduct occurred. The jury must agree
unanimously that the defendant, during a period that is 12 months
or less in duration, two or more times engaged in conduct that
constituted an offense under Section 22.01(a)(1) against the person
or persons described by Subsection (a).
(c) A defendant may not be convicted in the same criminal
action of another offense the victim of which is an alleged victim
of the offense under Subsection (a) and an element of which is any
conduct that is alleged as an element of the offense under
Subsection (a) unless the other offense:
(1) is charged in the alternative;
(2) occurred outside the period in which the offense
alleged under Subsection (a) was committed; or
(3) is considered by the trier of fact to be a lesser
included offense of the offense alleged under Subsection (a).
(d) A defendant may not be charged with more than one count
under Subsection (a) if all of the specific conduct that is alleged
to have been engaged in is alleged to have been committed against a
single victim or members of

Question 72

Sec. 28.02. ARSON. (a) A person commits an offense if the
person starts a fire, regardless of whether the fire continues
after ignition, or causes an explosion with intent to destroy or
damage:
(1) any vegetation, fence, or structure on open-space
land; or
(2) any building, habitation, or vehicle:
(A) knowing that it is within the limits of an
incorporated city or town;
(B) knowing that it is insured against damage or
destruction;
(C) knowing that it is subject to a mortgage or
other security interest;
(D) knowing that it is located on property
belonging to another; (E) knowing that it has located within it property
belonging to another; or
(F) when the person is reckless about whether the
burning or explosion will endanger the life of some individual or
the safety of the property of another.
(a-1) A person commits an offense if the person recklessly
starts a fire or causes an explosion while manufacturing or
attempting to manufacture a controlled substance and the fire or
explosion damages any building, habitation, or vehicle.
(a-2) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally
starts a fire or causes an explosion and in so doing:
(1) recklessly damages or destroys a building belonging
to another; or
(2) recklessly causes another person to suffer bodily
injury or death.
(b) It is an exception to the application of Subsection
(a)(1) that the fire or explosion was a part of the controlled
burning of open-space land.
(c) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (a)(2)(A)
that prior to starting the fire or causing the explosion, the actor
obtained a permit or other written authorization granted in
accordance with a city ordinance, if any, regulating fires and
explosions.

Question 73

Sec. 28.03. CRIMINAL MISCHIEF. (a) A person commits an
offense if, without the effective consent of the owner:
(1) he intentionally or knowingly damages or destroys
the tangible property of the owner;
(2) he intentionally or knowingly tampers with the
tangible property of the owner and causes pecuniary loss or
substantial inconvenience to the owner or a third person; or
(3) he intentionally or knowingly makes markings,
including inscriptions, slogans

Question 74

Sec. 28.04. RECKLESS DAMAGE OR DESTRUCTION. (a) A person
commits an offense if, without the effective consent of the owner,
he recklessly damages or destroys property of the owner.

Question 75

Sec. 28.07. INTERFERENCE WITH RAILROAD PROPERTY.
railroad property.

(b) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) throws an object or discharges a firearm or weapon
at a train or rail-mounted work equipment; or
(2) without the effective consent of the owner:
(A) enters or remains on railroad property, knowing
that it is railroad property;
(B) tampers with railroad property;
(C) places an obstruction on a railroad track or
right-of-way; or
(D) causes in any manner the derailment of a train,
railroad car, or other railroad property that moves on tracks.

(f) The conduct described in Subsection (b)(2)(A) is not an
offense under this section if it is undertaken by an employee of
the railroad or by a representative of a labor organization which
represents or is seeking to represent the employees of the railroad
as long as the employee or representative has a right to engage in
such conduct under the Railway Labor Act

Question 76

Sec. 28.08. GRAFFITI. (a) A person commits an offense if,
without the effective consent of the owner, the person
intentionally or knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions,
slogans, drawings, or paintings, on the tangible property of the
owner with:
(1) paint;
(2) an indelible marker; or
(3) an etching or engraving device.

Question 77

Sec. 28.09. DAMAGING CRITICAL INFRASTRUCTURE FACILITY. (a)
In this section:
(1) “Critical infrastructure facility” means an
electrical power generating facility, substation, switching
station, electrical control center, or electrical transmission or
distribution facility. (2) “Cyber attack” means an attempt to damage, disrupt,
or gain unauthorized access to a computer, computer network, or
computer system.
(3) “Drone” has the meaning assigned by Article 2.33,
Code of Criminal Procedure, as added by Chapter 1011 (H.B. 1758),
Acts of the 87th Legislature, Regular Session, 2021.
(4) “Explosive weapon” has the meaning assigned by
Section 28.03.
(5) “Extended power outage” means a power outage:
(A) lasting for two hours or more; or
(B) affecting 1,000 or more meters used to measure
electric energy consumption by retail customers.
(6) “Firearm” has the meaning assigned by Section 46.01.
(b) A person commits an offense if, without the effective
consent of the owner or operator of a critical infrastructure
facility, the person:
(1) intentionally or knowingly damages, destroys,
vandalizes, or impairs the function of any critical infrastructure
facility; and
(2) as a result of the conduct described by Subdivision
(1), causes an extended power outage.

Question 78

Sec. 29.02. ROBBERY. (a) A person commits an offense if, in
the course of committing theft as defined in Chapter 31 and with
intent to obtain or maintain control of the property, he:
(1) intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes
bodily injury to another; or
(2) intentionally or knowingly threatens or places
another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death.

Question 79

Sec. 29.03. AGGRAVATED ROBBERY. (a) A person commits an
offense if he commits robbery as defined in Section 29.02, and he:
(1) causes serious bodily injury to another;
(2) uses or exhibits a deadly weapon; or
(3) causes bodily injury to another person or threatens
or places another person in fear of imminent bodily injury or
death, if the other person is:
(A) 65 years of age or older; or
(B) a disabled person.

Question 80

Sec. 30.02. BURGLARY. (a) A person commits an offense if,
without the effective consent of the owner, the person:
(1) enters a habitation, or a building (or any portion
of a building) not then open to the public, with intent to commit a
felony, theft, or an assault; or
(2) remains concealed, with intent to commit a felony,
theft, or an assault, in a building or habitation; or
(3) enters a building or habitation and commits or
attempts to commit a felony, theft, or an assault.
(b) For purposes of this section, “enter” means to intrude:
(1) any part of the body; or
(2) any physical object connected with the body.

Question 81

Sec. 30.03. BURGLARY OF COIN-OPERATED OR COIN COLLECTION
MACHINES. (a) A person commits an offense if, without the
effective consent of the owner, he breaks or enters into any coinoperated
machine, coin collection machine, or other coin-operated
or coin collection receptacle, contrivance, apparatus, or equipment
used for the purpose of providing lawful amusement, sales of goods,
services, or other valuable things, or telecommunications with
intent to obtain property or services.
(b) For purposes of this section, “entry” includes every kind
of entry except one made with the effective consent of the owner.

Question 82

Sec. 30.04. BURGLARY OF VEHICLES. (a) A person commits an
offense if, without the effective consent of the owner, he breaks
into or enters a vehicle or any part of a vehicle with intent to
commit any felony or theft.
(b) For purposes of this section, “enter” means to intrude:
(1) any part of the body; or
(2) any physical object connected with the body.
(c) For purposes of this section, a container or trailer
carried on a rail car is a part of the rail car.

Question 83

Sec. 30.05. CRIMINAL TRESPASS. (a) A person commits an
offense if the person enters or remains on or in property of
another, including residential land, agricultural land, a
recreational vehicle park, a building, a general residential
operation operating as a residential treatment center, or an
aircraft or other vehicle, without effective consent and the
person:
(1) had notice that the entry was forbidden; or
(2) received notice to depart but failed to do so.
(b) For purposes of this section:
(1) “Entry” means the intrusion of the entire body.
(2) “Notice” means:
(A) oral or written communication by the owner or
someone with apparent authority to act for the owner;
(B) fencing or other enclosure obviously designed
to exclude intruders or to contain livestock;
(C) a sign or signs posted on the property or at
the entrance to the building, reasonably likely to come to the attention of intruders, indicating that entry is forbidden;
(D) the placement of identifying purple paint marks
on trees or posts on the property, provided that the marks are:
(i) vertical lines of not less than eight
inches in length and not less than one inch in width;
(ii) placed so that the bottom of the mark is
not less than three feet from the ground or more than five feet
from the ground; and
(iii) placed at locations that are readily
visible to any person approaching the property and no more than:
(a) 100 feet apart on forest land; or
(b) 1,000 feet apart on land other than
forest land; or
(E) the visible presence on the property of a crop
grown for human consumption that is under cultivation, in the
process of being harvested, or marketable if harvested at the time
of entry.

Question 84

Sec. 30.05. CRIMINAL TRESPASS.

(7) “Critical infrastructure facility” means one of the
following, if completely enclosed by a fence or other physical
barrier that is obviously designed to exclude intruders:
(A) a chemical manufacturing facility;
(B) a refinery;
(C) an electrical power generating facility,
substation, switching station, electrical control center, or
electrical transmission or distribution facility;
(D) a water intake structure, water treatment
facility, wastewater treatment plant, or pump station;
(E) a natural gas transmission compressor station;
(F) a liquid natural gas terminal or storage
facility;
(G) a telecommunications central switching office;
(H) a port, railroad switching yard, trucking
terminal, or other freight transportation facility;
(I) a gas processing plant, including a plant used
in the processing, treatment, or fractionation of natural gas; or
(J) a transmission facility used by a federally licensed radio or television station.

Question 85

Sec. 30.05. CRIMINAL TRESPASS.

the property by posting a sign at each entrance to the property
that:
(1) includes language that is identical to or
substantially similar to the following: “Pursuant to Section 30.05,
Penal Code (criminal trespass), a person may not enter this
property with a firearm”;
(2) includes the language described by Subdivision (1)
in both English and Spanish;
(3) appears in contrasting colors with block letters at
least one inch in height; and
(4) is displayed in a conspicuous manner clearly visible
to the public.

Question 86

Sec. 30.06. TRESPASS BY LICENSE HOLDER WITH A CONCEALED
HANDGUN. (a) A license holder commits an offense if the license
holder:
(1) carries a concealed handgun under the authority of
Subchapter H, Chapter 411, Government Code, on property of another
without effective consent; and
(2) received notice that entry on the property by a
license holder with a concealed handgun was forbidden.
(b) For purposes of this section, a person receives notice if
the owner of the property or someone with apparent authority to act
for the owner provides notice to the person by oral or written
communication.

(g) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that
the license holder was personally given notice by oral
communication described by Subsection (b) and promptly departed
from the property.

Question 87

Sec. 30.07. TRESPASS BY LICENSE HOLDER WITH AN OPENLY CARRIED
HANDGUN. (a) A license holder commits an offense if the license
holder:
(1) openly carries a handgun under the authority of Subchapter H, Chapter 411, Government Code, on property of another
without effective consent; and
(2) received notice that entry on the property by a
license holder openly carrying a handgun was forbidden.
(b) For purposes of this section, a person receives notice if
the owner of the property or someone with apparent authority to act
for the owner provides notice to the person by oral or written
communication.

Question 88

TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY
CHAPTER 31. THEFT
Sec. 31.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:
(1) “Deception” means:
(A) creating or confirming by words or conduct a
false impression of law or fact that is likely to affect the
judgment of another in the transaction, and that the actor does not
believe to be true;
(B) failing to correct a false impression of law or
fact that is likely to affect the judgment of another in the
transaction, that the actor previously created or confirmed by
words or conduct, and that the actor does not now believe to be
true;
(C) preventing another from acquiring information
likely to affect his judgment in the transaction;
(D) selling or otherwise transferring or
encumbering property without disclosing a lien, security interest,
adverse claim, or other legal impediment to the enjoyment of the
property, whether the lien, security interest, claim, or impediment
is or is not valid, or is or is not a matter of official record;
or
(E) promising performance that is likely to affect
the judgment of another in the transaction and that the actor does
not intend to perform or knows will not be performed, except that
failure to perform the promise in issue without other evidence of
intent or knowledge is not sufficient proof that the actor did not
intend to perform or knew the promise would not be performed.

Question 89

TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY
CHAPTER 31. THEFT
(2) “Deprive” means:
(A) to withhold property from the owner permanently
or for so extended a period of time that a major portion of the
value or enjoyment of the property is lost to the owner;
(B) to restore property only upon payment of reward
or other compensation; or
(C) to dispose of property in a manner that makes
recovery of the property by the owner unlikely.

Question 90

TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY
CHAPTER 31. THEFT
(3) “Effective consent” includes consent by a person
legally authorized to act for the owner. Consent is not effective
if:
(A) induced by deception or coercion;
(B) given by a person the actor knows is not
legally authorized to act for the owner;
(C) given by a person who by reason of youth,
mental disease or defect, or intoxication is known by the actor to
be unable to make reasonable property dispositions;
(D) given solely to detect the commission of an
offense; or
(E) given by a person who by reason of advanced age
is known by the actor to have a diminished capacity to make
informed and rational decisions about the reasonable disposition of Page -2 -
property.

Question 91

TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY
CHAPTER 31. THEFT

(4) “Appropriate” means:
(A) to bring about a transfer or purported transfer
of title to or other nonpossessory interest in property, whether to
the actor or another; or
(B) to acquire or otherwise exercise control over
property other than real property.

Question 92

Sec. 31.04. THEFT OF SERVICE. (a) A person commits theft of
service if, with intent to avoid payment for service that the actor
knows is provided only for compensation:
(1) the actor intentionally or knowingly secures performance of the service by deception, threat, or false token;
(2) having control over the disposition of services of
another to which the actor is not entitled, the actor intentionally
or knowingly diverts the other’s services to the actor’s own
benefit or to the benefit of another not entitled to the services;
(3) having control of personal property under a written
rental agreement, the actor holds the property beyond the
expiration of the rental period without the effective consent of
the owner of the property, thereby depriving the owner of the
property of its use in further rentals; or
(4) the actor intentionally or knowingly secures the
performance of the service by agreeing to provide compensation and,
after the service is rendered, fails to make full payment after
receiving notice demanding payment.

Question 93

Sec. 31.04. THEFT OF SERVICE.
(b) For purposes of this section, intent to avoid payment is
presumed if any of the following occurs:
(1) the actor absconded without paying for the service
or expressly refused to pay for the service in circumstances where
payment is ordinarily made immediately upon rendering of the
service, as in hotels, campgrounds, recreational vehicle parks,
restaurants, and comparable establishments;
(2) the actor failed to make payment under a service
agreement within 10 days after receiving notice demanding payment;
(3) the actor returns property held under a rental
agreement after the expiration of the rental agreement and fails to
pay the applicable rental charge for the property within 10 days
after the date on which the actor received notice demanding
payment;
(4) the actor failed to return the property held under a
rental agreement:
(A) within five days after receiving notice
demanding return, if the property is valued at less than $2,500;
(B) within three days after receiving notice
demanding return, if the property is valued at $2,500 or more but
less than $10,000; or
(C) within two days after receiving notice
demanding return, if the property is valued at $10,000 or more; or
(5) the actor:
(A) failed to return the property held under an
agreement described by Subsections (d-2)(1)-(3) within five
business days after receiving notice demanding return; and
(B) has made fewer than three complete payments
under the agreement.

Question 94

Sec. 31.04. THEFT OF SERVICE.
(c) For purposes of Subsections (a)(4), (b)(2), (b)(4), and
(b)(5), notice must be:
(1) in writing;
(2) sent by:
(A) registered or certified mail with return
receipt requested; or (B) commercial delivery service; and
(3) sent to the actor using the actor’s mailing address
shown on:
(A) the rental agreement or service agreement;
(B) records of the person whose service was
secured; or
(C) if the actor secured performance of service by
issuing or passing a check or similar sight order for the payment
of money, using the actor’s address shown on:
(i) the check or order; or
(ii) the records of the bank or other drawee
on which the check or order is drawn.

Question 95

Sec. 31.04. THEFT OF SERVICE.
(d) Except as otherwise provided by this subsection, if
written notice is given in accordance with Subsection (c), it is
presumed that the notice was received not later than two days after
the notice was sent. For purposes of Subsections (b)(4)(A) and (B)
and (b)(5), if written notice is given in accordance with
Subsection (c), it is presumed that the notice was received not
later than five days after the notice was sent.

Question 96

Sec. 31.04. THEFT OF SERVICE.
(d-1) For purposes of Subsection (a)(2), the diversion of
services to the benefit of a person who is not entitled to those
services includes the disposition of personal property by an actor
having control of the property under an agreement described by
Subsections (d-2)(1)-(3), if the actor disposes of the property in
violation of the terms of the agreement and to the benefit of any
person who is not entitled to the property.
(d-2) For purposes of Subsection (a)(3), the term “written
rental agreement” does not include an agreement that:
(1) permits an individual to use personal property for
personal, family, or household purposes for an initial rental
period;
(2) is automatically renewable with each payment after
the initial rental period; and
(3) permits the individual to become the owner of the
property.
(d-3) For purposes of Subsection (a)(4):
(1) if the compensation is or was to be paid on a
periodic basis, the intent to avoid payment for a service may be
formed at any time during or before a pay period;
(2) the partial payment of wages alone is not sufficient
evidence to negate the actor’s intent to avoid payment for a
service; and
(3) the term “service” does not include leasing personal
property under an agreement described by Subsections (d-2)(1)-(3).
(d-4) A presumption established under Subsection (b)
involving a defendant’s failure to return property held under an
agreement described by Subsections (d-2)(1)-(3) may be refuted if
the defendant shows that the defendant:
(1) intended to return the property; and (2) was unable to return the property.
(d-5) For purposes of Subsection (b)(5), “business day” means
a day other than Sunday or a state or federal holiday.

Question 97

Sec. 31.04. THEFT OF SERVICE.
(g) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that:
(1) the defendant secured the performance of the service
by giving a post-dated check or similar sight order to the person
performing the service; and
(2) the person performing the service or any other
person presented the check or sight order for payment before the
date on the check or sight order.

Question 98

Sec. 31.05. THEFT OF TRADE SECRETS. (a) For purposes of
this section:
(1) “Article” means any object, material, device, or
substance or any copy thereof, including a writing, recording,
drawing, sample, specimen, prototype, model, photograph,
microorganism, blueprint, or map.
(2) “Copy” means a facsimile, replica, photograph, or
other reproduction of an article or a note, drawing, or sketch made
of or from an article.
(3) “Representing” means describing, depicting,
containing, constituting, reflecting, or recording.
(4) “Trade secret” means the whole or any part of any
scientific or technical information, design, process, procedure,
formula, or improvement that has value and that the owner has taken
measures to prevent from becoming available to persons other than
those selected by the owner to have access for limited purposes.

Question 99

Sec. 31.05. THEFT OF TRADE SECRETS.
(b) A person commits an offense if, without the owner’s
effective consent, he knowingly:
(1) steals a trade secret;
(2) makes a copy of an article representing a trade
secret; or
(3) communicates or transmits a trade secret.

Question 100

Sec. 31.06. PRESUMPTION FOR THEFT BY CHECK OR SIMILAR SIGHT
ORDER. (a) If the actor obtained property or secured performance
of service by issuing or passing a check or similar sight order for
the payment of money, when the issuer did not have sufficient funds
in or on deposit with the bank or other drawee for the payment in
full of the check or order as well as all other checks or orders
then outstanding, it is prima facie evidence of the issuer’s intent
to deprive the owner of property under Section 31.03 (Theft)
including a drawee or third-party holder in due course who
negotiated the check or order or to avoid payment for service under
Section 31.04 (Theft of Service) (except in the case of a postdated
check or order) if:
(1) the issuer had no account with the bank or other
drawee at the time the issuer issued the check or sight order; or
(2) payment was refused by the bank or other drawee for
lack of funds or insufficient funds, on presentation within 30 days
after issue, and the issuer failed to pay the holder in full within
10 days after receiving notice of that refusal.
(b) For purposes of Subsection (a)(2) or (f)(3), notice may
be actual notice or notice in writing that:
(1) is sent by:
(A) first class mail, evidenced by an affidavit of
service; or
(B) registered or certified mail with return
receipt requested;
(2) is addressed to the issuer at the issuer’s address
shown on:
(A) the check or order;
(B) the records of the bank or other drawee; or
(C) the records of the person to whom the check or
order has been issued or passed; and
(3) contains the following statement:
“This is a demand for payment in full for a check or order not
paid because of a lack of funds or insufficient funds. If you fail
to make payment in full within 10 days after the date of receipt of
this notice, the failure to pay creates a presumption for
committing an offense, and this matter may be referred for criminal prosecution.”
(c) If written notice is given in accordance with Subsection
(b), it is presumed that the notice was received no later than five
days after it was sent.
(d) Nothing in this section prevents the prosecution from
establishing the requisite intent by direct evidence.
(e) Partial restitution does not preclude the presumption of
the requisite intent under this section.
(f) If the actor obtained property by issuing or passing a
check or similar sight order for the payment of money, the actor’s
intent to deprive the owner of the property under Section 31.03
(Theft) is presumed, except in the case of a postdated check or
order, if:
(1) the actor ordered the bank or other drawee to stop
payment on the check or order;
(2) the bank or drawee refused payment to the holder on
presentation of the check or order within 30 days after issue;
(3) the owner gave the actor notice of the refusal of
payment and made a demand to the actor for payment or return of the
property; and
(4) the actor failed to:
(A) pay the holder within 10 days after receiving
the demand for payment; or
(B) return the property to the owner within 10 days
after receiving the demand for return of the property.

Question 101

Sec. 31.07. UNAUTHORIZED USE OF A VEHICLE. (a) A person
commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly operates
another’s boat, airplane, or motor-propelled vehicle without the
effective consent of the owner.

Question 102

Sec. 31.08. VALUE. (a) Subject to the additional criteria
of Subsections (b) and (c), value under this chapter is:
(1) the fair market value of the property or service at
the time and place of the offense; or
(2) if the fair market value of the property cannot be
ascertained, the cost of replacing the property within a reasonable
time after the theft.
(b) The value of documents, other than those having a readily
ascertainable market value, is:
(1) the amount due and collectible at maturity less that
part which has been satisfied, if the document constitutes evidence
of a debt; or
(2) the greatest amount of economic loss that the owner
might reasonably suffer by virtue of loss of the document, if the
document is other than evidence of a debt.
(c) If property or service has value that cannot be
reasonably ascertained by the criteria set forth in Subsections (a) and (b), the property or service is deemed to have a value of $750
or more but less than $2,500.
(d) If the actor proves by a preponderance of the evidence
that he gave consideration for or had a legal interest in the
property or service stolen, the amount of the consideration or the
value of the interest so proven shall be deducted from the value of
the property or service ascertained under Subsection (a), (b), or
(c) to determine value for purposes of this chapter.

Question 103

Sec. 31.09. AGGREGATION OF AMOUNTS INVOLVED IN THEFT. When
amounts are obtained in violation of this chapter pursuant to one
scheme or continuing course of conduct, whether from the same or
several sources, the conduct may be considered as one offense and
the amounts aggregated in determining the grade of the offense.

Question 104

Sec. 31.10. ACTOR’S INTEREST IN PROPERTY. It is no defense
to prosecution under this chapter that the actor has an interest in
the property or service stolen if another person has the right of
exclusive possession of the property.

Question 105

Sec. 31.11. TAMPERING WITH IDENTIFICATION NUMBERS. (a) A
person commits an offense if the person:
(1) knowingly or intentionally removes, alters, or
obliterates the serial number or other permanent identification
marking on tangible personal property; or
(2) possesses, sells, or offers for sale tangible
personal property and:
(A) the actor knows that the serial number or other
permanent identification marking has been removed, altered, or
obliterated; or
(B) a reasonable person in the position of the
actor would have known that the serial number or other permanent
identification marking has been removed, altered, or obliterated.
(b) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that the person was:
(1) the owner or acting with the effective consent of
the owner of the property involved;
(2) a peace officer acting in the actual discharge of
official duties; or
(3) acting with respect to a number assigned to a
vehicle by the Texas Department of Transportation or the Texas
Department of Motor Vehicles, as applicable, and the person was:
(A) in the actual discharge of official duties as
an employee or agent of the department; or
(B) in full compliance with the rules of the
department as an applicant for an assigned number approved by the
department.
(c) Property involved in a violation of this section may betreated as stolen for purposes of custody and disposition of the
property.

Question 106

Sec. 31.12. THEFT OF OR TAMPERING WITH MULTICHANNEL VIDEO OR
INFORMATION SERVICES. (a) A person commits an offense if, without
the authorization of the multichannel video or information services
provider, the person intentionally or knowingly:
(1) makes or maintains a connection, whether physically,
electrically, electronically, or inductively, to:
(A) a cable, wire, or other component of or media
attached to a multichannel video or information services system;
or
(B) a television set, videotape recorder, or other
receiver attached to a multichannel video or information system;
(2) attaches, causes to be attached, or maintains the
attachment of a device to:
(A) a cable, wire, or other component of or media
attached to a multichannel video or information services system;
or
(B) a television set, videotape recorder, or other
receiver attached to a multichannel video or information services
system;
(3) tampers with, modifies, or maintains a modification
to a device installed by a multichannel video or information
services provider; or
(4) tampers with, modifies, or maintains a modification
to an access device or uses that access device or any unauthorized
access device to obtain services from a multichannel video or
information services provider.

Question 107

Sec. 31.12. THEFT OF OR TAMPERING WITH MULTICHANNEL VIDEO OR
INFORMATION SERVICES.
(b) In this section:
(1) “Access device,” “connection,” and “device” mean an
access device, connection, or device wholly or partly designed to
make intelligible an encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other
nonstandard signal carried by a multichannel video or information
services provider.
(2) “Encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other nonstandard
signal” means any type of signal or transmission not intended to
produce an intelligible program or service without the use of a
device, signal, or information provided by a multichannel video or
information services provider.
(3) “Multichannel video or information services
provider” means a licensed cable television system, video dialtone
system, multichannel multipoint distribution services system,
direct broadcast satellite system, or other system providing video
or information services that are distributed by cable, wire, radio
frequency, or other media.

Question 108

Sec. 31.13. MANUFACTURE, DISTRIBUTION, OR ADVERTISEMENT OF
MULTICHANNEL VIDEO OR INFORMATION SERVICES DEVICE. (a) A person
commits an offense if the person for remuneration intentionally or
knowingly manufactures, assembles, modifies, imports into the
state, exports out of the state, distributes, advertises, or offers
for sale, with an intent to aid in the commission of an offense
under Section 31.12, a device, a kit or part for a device, or a
plan for a system of components wholly or partly designed to make
intelligible an encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other nonstandard
signal carried or caused by a multichannel video or information
services provider.

Question 109

Sec. 31.14. SALE OR LEASE OF MULTICHANNEL VIDEO OR
INFORMATION SERVICES DEVICE. (a) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly sells or leases, with an
intent to aid in the commission of an offense under Section 31.12,
a device, a kit or part for a device, or a plan for a system of
components wholly or partly designed to make intelligible an
encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other nonstandard signal carried
or caused by a multichannel video or information services provider.

Question 110

Sec. 31.15. POSSESSION, MANUFACTURE, OR DISTRIBUTION OF
CERTAIN INSTRUMENTS USED TO COMMIT RETAIL THEFT.
(a) Repealed by Acts 2011, 82nd Leg., R.S., Ch. 323, Sec. 4,
eff. September 1, 2011.
(b) A person commits an offense if, with the intent to use
the instrument to commit theft, the person:
(1) possesses a shielding or deactivation instrument;
or
(2) knowingly manufactures, sells, offers for sale, or
otherwise distributes a shielding or deactivation instrument.

Question 111

Sec. 31.16. ORGANIZED RETAIL THEFT. (a) Repealed by Acts
2011, 82nd Leg., R.S., Ch. 323, Sec. 4, eff. September 1, 2011.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally
conducts, promotes, or facilitates an activity in which the person
receives, possesses, conceals, stores, barters, sells, or disposes
of:
(1) stolen retail merchandise; or
(2) merchandise explicitly represented to the person as
being stolen retail merchandise.

Question 112

Sec. 31.17. UNAUTHORIZED ACQUISITION OR TRANSFER OF CERTAIN
FINANCIAL INFORMATION.
(a) In this section:
(3) “Financial sight order or payment card information”
means financial information that is:
(A) contained on either side of a check or similar
sight order, check card, debit card, or credit card; or
(B) encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a
check card, debit card, or credit card.

Question 113

Sec. 31.17. UNAUTHORIZED ACQUISITION OR TRANSFER OF CERTAIN
FINANCIAL INFORMATION.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person, knowing that
the person is not entitled to obtain or possess that financial
information:
(1) obtains the financial sight order or payment card
information of another by use of an electronic, photographic,
visual imaging, recording, or other device capable of accessing, reading, recording, capturing, copying, imaging, scanning,
reproducing, or storing in any manner the financial sight order or
payment card information; or
(2) transfers to a third party information obtained as
described by Subdivision (1).

Question 114

Sec. 31.18. CARGO THEFT. (a) In this section:
(1) “Cargo” means goods, as defined by Section 7.102,
Business & Commerce Code, that constitute, wholly or partly, a
commercial shipment of freight moving in commerce. A shipment is
considered to be moving in commerce if the shipment is located at
any point between the point of origin and the final point of
destination regardless of any temporary stop that is made for the
purpose of transshipment or otherwise.

Question 115

Sec. 31.18. CARGO THEFT.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) knowingly or intentionally conducts, promotes, or
facilitates an activity in which the person receives, possesses,
conceals, stores, barters, sells, abandons, or disposes of:
(A) stolen cargo; or
(B) cargo explicitly represented to the person as
being stolen cargo; or
(2) is employed as a driver lawfully contracted to
transport a specific cargo by vehicle from a known point of origin
to a known point of destination and, with the intent to conduct,
promote, or facilitate an activity described by Subdivision (1),
knowingly or intentionally:
(A) fails to deliver the entire cargo to the known
point of destination as contracted; or
(B) causes the seal to be broken on the vehicle or
on an intermodal container containing any part of the cargo.

Question 116

Sec. 31.19. THEFT OF PETROLEUM PRODUCT. (a) In this
section, “petroleum product” means crude oil, natural gas, or
condensate.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person unlawfully
appropriates a petroleum product with intent to deprive the owner
of the petroleum product by:
(1) possessing, removing, delivering, receiving,
purchasing, selling, moving, concealing, or transporting the
petroleum product; or
(2) making or causing a connection to be made with, or
drilling or tapping or causing a hole to be drilled or tapped in, a
pipe, pipeline, or tank used to store or transport a petroleum
product.
(c) Appropriation of a petroleum product is unlawful if it is
without the owner’s effective consent.

Question 117

Sec. 31.20. MAIL THEFT. (a) In this section:
(1) “Disabled individual” and “elderly individual” have
the meanings assigned by Section 22.04.
(2) “Identifying information” has the meaning assigned
by Section 32.51.
(3) “Mail” means a letter, postal card, package, bag, or
other sealed article that:
(A) is delivered by a common carrier or delivery
service and not yet received by the addressee; or
(B) has been left to be collected for delivery by a
common carrier or delivery service.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally
appropriates mail from another person’s mailbox or premises without
the effective consent of the addressee and with the intent to
deprive that addressee of the mail.

Question 118

Sec. 38.02. FAILURE TO IDENTIFY. (a) A person commits an
offense if he intentionally refuses to give his name, residence
address, or date of birth to a peace officer who has lawfully
arrested the person and requested the information.
(b) A person commits an offense if he intentionally gives a
false or fictitious name, residence address, or date of birth to
a peace officer who has:
(1) lawfully arrested the person;
(2) lawfully detained the person; or
(3) requested the information from a person that the
peace officer has good cause to believe is a witness to a criminal
offense.
(b-1) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) is an operator of a motor vehicle, as defined by
Section 32.34, who is lawfully detained by a peace officer for an
alleged violation of a law;
(2) fails to provide or display the person’s driver’s
license on the officer’s request for the license; and
(3) intentionally refuses to give the person’s name, driver’s license number, residence address, or date of birth to
the peace officer on the officer’s request for that information.
(b-2) For purposes of Subsection (b-1)(3), giving a peace
officer a residence address that is different from the address
associated with the person’s driver’s license does not constitute
a refusal to give the person’s residence address in violation of
that provision if the address given to the officer is the person’s
actual residence address.

Question 119

Sec. 38.03. RESISTING ARREST, SEARCH, OR TRANSPORTATION.
(a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally prevents or
obstructs a person he knows is a peace officer or a person acting
in a peace officer’s presence and at his direction from effecting
an arrest, search, or transportation of the actor or another by
using force against the peace officer or another.
(b) It is no defense to prosecution under this section that
the arrest or search was unlawful.

Question 120

Sec. 38.04. EVADING ARREST OR DETENTION. (a) A person
commits an offense if he intentionally flees from a person he knows
is a peace officer or federal special investigator attempting
lawfully to arrest or detain him.

Question 121

Sec. 38.05. HINDERING APPREHENSION OR PROSECUTION. (a) A
person commits an offense if, with intent to hinder the arrest,
prosecution, conviction, or punishment of another for an offense
or, with intent to hinder the arrest, detention, adjudication, or
disposition of a child for engaging in delinquent conduct that
violates a penal law of the state, or with intent to hinder the
arrest of another under the authority of a warrant or capias, he:
(1) harbors or conceals the other;
(2) provides or aids in providing the other with any
means of avoiding arrest or effecting escape; or
(3) warns the other of impending discovery or
apprehension.
(b) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (a)(3)
that the warning was given in connection with an effort to bring
another into compliance with the law.

Question 122

Sec. 38.06. ESCAPE. (a) A person commits an offense if the
person escapes from custody when the person is:
(1) under arrest for, lawfully detained for, charged
with, or convicted of an offense;
(2) in custody pursuant to a lawful order of a court;
(3) detained in a secure detention facility, as that
term is defined by Section 51.02, Family Code; or
(4) in the custody of a juvenile probation officer for
violating an order imposed by the juvenile court under Section
52.01, Family Code.

Question 123

Sec. 38.07. PERMITTING OR FACILITATING ESCAPE. (a) An
official or employee of a correctional facility commits an offense
if he knowingly permits or facilitates the escape of a person in
custody.
(b) A person commits an offense if he knowingly causes or
facilitates the escape of one who is in custody pursuant to:
(1) an allegation or adjudication of delinquency; or
(2) involuntary commitment for mental illness under
Subtitle C, Title 7, Health and Safety Code, or for

Question 124

Sec. 38.09. IMPLEMENTS FOR ESCAPE. (a) A person commits an
offense if, with intent to facilitate escape, he introduces into
a correctional facility, or provides a person in custody or an
inmate with, a deadly weapon or anything that may be useful for
escape.

Question 125

Sec. 38.10. BAIL JUMPING AND FAILURE TO APPEAR. (a) A
person lawfully released from custody, with or without bail, on
condition that he subsequently appear commits an offense if he
intentionally or knowingly fails to appear in accordance with the
terms of his release.
(b) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the appearance was incident to community supervision, parole, or
an intermittent sentence.
(c) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that
the actor had a reasonable excuse for his failure to appear in
accordance with the terms of his release.
(d) Except as provided in Subsections

Question 126

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY. (a) A person commits an offense if
the person provides, or possesses with the intent to provide:
(1) an alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or
dangerous drug to a person in the custody of a correctional
facility or residing in a civil commitment facility, except on the
prescription of a practitioner;
(2) a deadly weapon to a person in the custody of a
correctional facility or residing in a civil commitment facility;
(3) a cellular telephone or other wireless
communications device or a component of one of those devices to a
person in the custody of a correctional facility;
(4) money to a person confined in a correctional
facility; or
(5) a cigarette or tobacco product to a person confined
in a correctional facility, except that if the facility is a local
jail regulated by the Commission on Jail Standards, the person
commits an offense only if providing the cigarette or tobacco
product violates a rule or regulation adopted by the sheriff or
jail administrator that:
(A) prohibits the possession of a cigarette or
tobacco product by a person confined in the jail; or
(B) places restrictions on:
(i) the possession of a cigarette or tobacco
product by a person confined in the jail; or
(ii) the manner in which a cigarette or
tobacco product may be provided to a person confined in the jail.

Question 127

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

(b) A person commits an offense if the person takes an
alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or dangerous drug into
a correctional facility or civil commitment facility.

Question 128

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

(c) A person commits an offense if the person takes a
controlled substance or dangerous drug on property owned, used, or controlled by a correctional facility or civil commitment
facility.

Question 129

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

(d) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) possesses an alcoholic beverage, controlled
substance, or dangerous drug while in a correctional facility or
civil commitment facility or on property owned, used, or controlled
by a correctional facility or civil commitment facility; or
(2) possesses a deadly weapon while in a correctional
facility or civil commitment facility.

Question 130

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

(e) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under
Subsection (b), (c), or (d)(1) that the person possessed the
alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or dangerous drug
pursuant to a prescription issued by a practitioner or while
delivering the beverage, substance, or drug to a warehouse,
pharmacy, or practitioner on property owned, used, or controlled
by the correctional facility or civil commitment facility. It is
an affirmative defense to prosecution under Subsection (d)(2) that
the person possessing the deadly weapon is a peace officer or is
an officer or employee of the correctional facility or civil
commitment facility who is authorized to possess the deadly weapon
while on duty or traveling to or from the person’s place of
assignment.

Question 131

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

(i) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under
Subsection (b) that the actor:
(1) is a duly authorized member of the clergy with
rights and privileges granted by an ordaining authority that
includes administration of a religious ritual or ceremony
requiring the presence or consumption of an alcoholic beverage;
and
(2) takes four ounces or less of an alcoholic beverage
into a correctional facility and personally consumes all of the
alcoholic beverage or departs from the facility with any portion
of the beverage not consumed.

Question 132

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

(j) A person commits an offense if the person, while confined
in a correctional facility, possesses a cellular telephone or other
wireless communications device or a component of one of those
devices.
(j-1) A person commits an offense if the person, while
residing in a civil commitment facility, possesses a cellular
telephone or other wireless communications device or a component
of one of those devices unless the device or component is
authorized by the Texas Civil Commitment Office.

Question 133

Sec. 38.11. PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL
OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

(k) A person commits an offense if, with the intent to
provide to or make a cellular telephone or other wireless
communications device or a component of one of those devices
available for use by a person in the custody of a correctional
facility or residing in a civil commitment facility, the person:
(1) acquires a cellular telephone or other wireless
communications device or a component of one of those devices to be
delivered to the person in custody or residing in the facility;
(2) provides a cellular telephone or other wireless
communications device or a component of one of those devices to
another person for delivery to the person in custody or residing
in the facility; or
(3) makes a payment to a communication common carrier,
as defined by Article 18A.001, Code of Criminal Procedure, or to
any communication service that provides to its users the ability
to send or receive wire or electronic communications.

Question 134

Sec. 38.111. IMPROPER CONTACT WITH VICTIM. (a) A person
commits an offense if the person, while confined in a correctional
facility after being charged with or convicted of an offense listed
in Article 62.001(5), Code of Criminal Procedure, contacts by
letter, telephone, or any other means, either directly or through
a third party, a victim of the offense or a member of the victim’s
family, if the director of the correctional facility has not,
before the person makes contact with the victim:
(1) received written and dated consent to the contact
from:
(A) the victim, if the victim was 17 years of age
or older at the time of the commission of the offense for which
the person is confined; or
(B) if the victim was younger than 17 years of age
at the time of the commission of the offense for which the person
is confined:
(i) a parent of the victim;
(ii) a legal guardian of the victim;
(iii) the victim, if the victim is 17 years
of age or older at the time of giving the consent; or
(iv) a member of the victim’s family who is
17 years of age or older; and
(2) provided the person with a copy of the consent.
(b) The person confined in a correctional facility may not
give the written consent required under Subsection (a)(2)(A).
(c) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that the contact was:
(1) indirect contact made through an attorney
representing the person in custody; and
(2) solely for the purpose of representing the person
in a criminal proceeding.
(d) An offense under

Question 135

Sec. 38.112. TAMPERING WITH ELECTRONIC MONITORING DEVICE.
(a) A person who is required to submit to electronic monitoring
of the person’s location as part of an electronic monitoring
program under Article 42.035, Code of Criminal Procedure, or as a
condition of community supervision, parole, mandatory supervision,
or release on bail commits an offense if the person knowingly
removes or disables, or causes or conspires or cooperates with
another person to remove or disable, a tracking device that the
person is required to wear to enable the electronic monitoring of
the person’s location.

Question 136

Sec. 38.113. UNAUTHORIZED ABSENCE FROM COMMUNITY
CORRECTIONS FACILITY, COUNTY CORRECTIONAL CENTER, OR ASSIGNMENT
SITE. (a) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) is sentenced to or is required as a condition of
community supervision or correctional programming to submit to a
period of detention or treatment in a community corrections
facility or county correctional center;
(2) fails to report to or leaves the facility, the
center, or a community service assignment site as directed by the
court, community supervision and corrections department
supervising the person, or director of the facility or center in
which the person is detained or treated, as appropriate; and
(3) in failing to report or leaving acts without the
approval of the court, the community supervision and corrections department supervising the person, or the director of the facility
or center in which the person is detained or treated.

Question 137

Sec. 38.114. CONTRABAND IN CORRECTIONAL FACILITY. (a) A
person commits an offense if the person:
(1) provides contraband to an inmate of a correctional
facility;
(2) otherwise introduces contraband into a correctional
facility; or
(3) possesses contraband while confined in a
correctional facility.
(b) In this section, “contraband”:
(1) means:
(A) any item not provided by or authorized by the
operator of the correctional facility; or
(B) any item provided by or authorized by the
operator of the correctional facility that has been altered to
accommodate a use other than the originally intended use; and
(2) does not include any item specifically prohibited
under Section 38.11.

Question 138

Sec. 38.115. OPERATION OF UNMANNED AIRCRAFT OVER
CORRECTIONAL FACILITY OR DETENTION FACILITY. (a) In this
section:
(1) “Contraband” means any item not provided by or
authorized by the operator of a correctional facility or detention
facility.
(2) “Correctional facility” means:
(A) a confinement facility operated by or under
contract with any division of the Texas Department of Criminal
Justice; (B) a municipal or county jail;
(C) a confinement facility operated by or under
contract with the Federal Bureau of Prisons; or
(D) a secure correctional facility or secure
detention facility, as defined by Section 51.02, Family Code.
(3) “Detention facility” means a facility operated by
or under contract with United States Immigration and Customs
Enforcement for the purpose of detaining aliens and placing them
in removal proceedings.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally
or knowingly:
(1) operates an unmanned aircraft over a correctional
facility or detention facility and the unmanned aircraft is not
higher than 400 feet above ground level;
(2) allows an unmanned aircraft to make contact with a
correctional facility or detention facility, including any person
or object on the premises of or within the facility; or
(3) allows an unmanned aircraft to come within a
distance of a correctional facility or detention facility that is
close enough to interfere with the operations of or cause a
disturbance to the facility.
(c) This section does not apply to conduct described by
Subsection (b) that is committed by:
(1) the federal government, this state, or a
governmental entity;
(2) a person under contract with or otherwise acting
under the direction or on behalf of the federal government, this
state, or a governmental entity;
(3) a person who has the prior written consent of the
owner or operator of the correctional facility or detention
facility;
(4) a law enforcement agency; or
(5) a person under contract with or otherwise acting
under the direction or on behalf of a law enforcement agency.

Question 139

Sec. 38.12. BARRATRY AND SOLICITATION OF PROFESSIONAL
EMPLOYMENT. (a) A person commits an offense if, with intent to obtain an economic benefit the person:
(1) knowingly institutes a suit or claim that the
person has not been authorized to pursue;
(2) solicits employment, either in person or by
telephone, for himself or for another;
(3) pays, gives, or advances or offers to pay, give, or
advance to a prospective client money or anything of value to
obtain employment as a professional from the prospective client;
(4) pays or gives or offers to pay or give a person
money or anything of value to solicit employment;
(5) pays or gives or offers to pay or give a family
member of a prospective client money or anything of value to
solicit employment; or
(6) accepts or agrees to accept money or anything of
value to solicit employment.

Question 140

Sec. 38.12. BARRATRY AND SOLICITATION OF PROFESSIONAL
EMPLOYMENT.

(b) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) knowingly finances the commission of an offense
under Subsection (a);
(2) invests funds the person knows or believes are
intended to further the commission of an offense under Subsection
(a); or
(3) is a professional who knowingly accepts employment
within the scope of the person’s license, registration, or
certification that results from the solicitation of employment in
violation of Subsection (a).

(c) It is an exception to prosecution under Subsection (a)
or (b) that the person’s conduct is authorized by the Texas
Disciplinary Rules of Professional Conduct or any rule of court.

Question 141

Sec. 38.12. BARRATRY AND SOLICITATION OF PROFESSIONAL
EMPLOYMENT.

(d) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) is an attorney, chiropractor, physician, surgeon,
or private investigator licensed to practice in this state or any
person licensed, certified, or registered by a health care
regulatory agency of this state; and
(2) with the intent to obtain professional employment
for the person or for another, provides or knowingly permits to be
provided to an individual who has not sought the person’s
employment, legal representation, advice, or care a written
communication or a solicitation, including a solicitation in
person or by telephone, that:
(A) concerns an action for personal injury or
wrongful death or otherwise relates to an accident or disaster
involving the person to whom the communication or solicitation is
provided or a relative of that person and that was provided before
the 31st day after the date on which the accident or disaster
occurred;
(B) concerns a specific matter and relates to
legal representation and the person knows or reasonably should
know that the person to whom the communication or solicitation is
directed is represented by a lawyer in the matter;

Question 142

Sec. 38.12. BARRATRY AND SOLICITATION OF PROFESSIONAL
EMPLOYMENT.

(C) concerns a lawsuit of any kind, including an
action for divorce, in which the person to whom the communication
or solicitation is provided is a defendant or a relative of that
person, unless the lawsuit in which the person is named as a
defendant has been on file for more than 31 days before the date
on which the communication or solicitation was provided;
(D) is provided or permitted to be provided by a
person who knows or reasonably should know that the injured person
or relative of the injured person has indicated a desire not to be
contacted by or receive communications or solicitations concerning
employment;
(E) involves coercion, duress, fraud,
overreaching, harassment, intimidation, or undue influence; or
(F) contains a false, fraudulent, misleading,
deceptive, or unfair statement or claim.

(e) For purposes of Subsection (d)(2)(D), a desire not to be
contacted is presumed if an accident report reflects that such an
indication has been made by an injured person or that person’s
relative.

Question 143

Sec. 38.122. FALSELY HOLDING ONESELF OUT AS A LAWYER. (a)
A person commits an offense if, with intent to obtain an economic
benefit for himself or herself, the person holds himself or herself
out as a lawyer, unless he or she is currently licensed to practice
law in this state, another state, or a foreign country and is in
good standing with the State Bar of Texas and the state bar or
licensing authority of any and all other states and foreign
countries where licensed.

Question 144

Sec. 38.123. UNAUTHORIZED PRACTICE OF LAW. (a) A person
commits an offense if, with intent to obtain an economic benefit
for himself or herself, the person:
(1) contracts with any person to represent that person
with regard to personal causes of action for property damages or
personal injury;
(2) advises any person as to the person’s rights and
the advisability of making claims for personal injuries or property
damages;
(3) advises any person as to whether or not to accept
an offered sum of money in settlement of claims for personal
injuries or property damages;
(4) enters into any contract with another person to
represent that person in personal injury or property damage matters
on a contingent fee basis with an attempted assignment of a portion
of the person’s cause of action; or
(5) enters into any contract with a third person which
purports to grant the exclusive right to select and retain legal
counsel to represent the individual in any legal proceeding.
(b) This section does not apply to a person currently
licensed to practice law in this state, another state, or a foreign
country and in good standing with the State Bar of Texas and the
state bar or licensing authority of any and all other states and
foreign countries where licensed.

Question 145

Sec. 38.13. HINDERING PROCEEDINGS BY DISORDERLY CONDUCT.
(a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally hinders an
official proceeding by noise or violent or tumultuous behavior or
disturbance.
(b) A person commits an offense if he recklessly hinders an
official proceeding by noise or violent or tumultuous behavior or
disturbance and continues after explicit official request to
desist.

Question 146

Sec. 38.14. TAKING OR ATTEMPTING TO TAKE WEAPON FROM PEACE
OFFICER, FEDERAL SPECIAL INVESTIGATOR, EMPLOYEE OR OFFICIAL OF
CORRECTIONAL FACILITY, PAROLE OFFICER, COMMUNITY SUPERVISION AND
CORRECTIONS DEPARTMENT OFFICER, OR COMMISSIONED SECURITY OFFICER.

(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally
or knowingly and with force takes or attempts to take from a peace
officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a
correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and
corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer
the officer’s, investigator’s, employee’s, or official’s firearm,
nightstick, stun gun, or personal protection chemical dispensing
device.
(c) The actor is presumed to have known that the peace
officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a
correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and
corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer
was a peace officer, federal special investigator, employee or
official of a correctional facility, parole officer, community
supervision and corrections department officer, or commissioned
security officer if:
(1) the officer, investigator, employee, or official
was wearing a distinctive uniform or badge indicating his
employment; or
(2) the officer, investigator, employee, or official
identified himself as a peace officer, federal special
investigator, employee or official of a correctional facility,
parole officer, community supervision and corrections department
officer, or commissioned security officer.
(d) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that
the defendant took or attempted to take the weapon from a peace
officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a
correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and
corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer
who was using force against the defendant or another in excess of
the amount of force permitted by law.

Question 147

Sec. 38.15. INTERFERENCE WITH PUBLIC DUTIES. (a) A person
commits an offense if the person with criminal negligence
interrupts, disrupts, impedes, or otherwise interferes with:
(1) a peace officer while the peace officer is
performing a duty or exercising authority imposed or granted by
law;
(2) a person who is employed to provide emergency
medical services including the transportation of ill or injured
persons while the person is performing that duty;
(3) a fire fighter, while the fire fighter is fighting
a fire or investigating the cause of a fire;
(4) an animal under the supervision of a peace officer,
corrections officer, or jailer, if the person knows the animal is
being used for law enforcement, corrections, prison or jail
security, or investigative purposes;
(5) the transmission of a communication over a
citizen’s band radio channel, the purpose of which communication
is to inform or inquire about an emergency;
(6) an officer with responsibility for animal control
in a county or municipality, while the officer is performing a
duty or exercising authority imposed or granted under Chapter 821
or 822, Health and Safety Code; or
(7) a person who:
(A) has responsibility for assessing, enacting, or
enforcing public health, environmental, radiation, or safety
measures for the state or a county or municipality;
(B) is investigating a particular site as part of
the person’s responsibilities under Paragraph (A);
(C) is acting in accordance with policies and
procedures related to the safety and security of the site described
by Paragraph (B); and
(D) is performing a duty or exercising authority
imposed or granted under the Agriculture Code, Health and Safety
Code, Occupations Code, or Water Code.

Question 148

Sec. 38.15. INTERFERENCE WITH PUBLIC DUTIES.

(c) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (a)(1)
that the conduct engaged in by the defendant was intended to warn
a person operating a motor vehicle of the presence of a peace
officer who was enforcing Subtitle C, Title 7, Transportation Code.
(d) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that
the interruption, disruption, impediment, or interference alleged
consisted of speech only.
(d-1) Except as provided by Subsection (d-2), in a
prosecution for an offense under Subsection (a)(1), there is a
rebuttable presumption that the actor interferes with a peace
officer if it is shown on the trial of the offense that the actor
intentionally disseminated the home address, home telephone number, emergency contact information, or social security number
of the officer or a family member of the officer or any other
information that is specifically described by Section 552.117(a),
Government Code.
(d-2) The presumption in Subsection (d-1) does not apply to
information disseminated by:
(1) a radio or television station that holds a license
issued by the Federal Communications Commission; or
(2) a newspaper that is:
(A) a free newspaper of general circulation or
qualified to publish legal notices;
(B) published at least once a week; and
(C) available and of interest to the general
public.
(e) In this section, “emergency” means a condition or
circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed
by the person transmitting the communication to be in imminent
danger of serious bodily injury or in which property is or is
reasonably believed by the person transmitting the communication
to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.

Question 149

Sec. 38.151. INTERFERENCE WITH POLICE SERVICE ANIMALS. (a)
In this section:
(1) “Area of control” includes a vehicle, trailer,
kennel, pen, or yard.
(2) “Handler or rider” means a peace officer,
corrections officer, or jailer who is specially trained to use a
police service animal for law enforcement, corrections, prison or
jail security, or investigative purposes.
(3) “Police service animal” means a dog, horse, or
other domesticated animal that is specially trained for use by a
handler or rider.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person recklessly:
(1) taunts, torments, or strikes a police service
animal;
(2) throws an object or substance at a police service
animal;
(3) interferes with or obstructs a police service
animal or interferes with or obstructs the handler or rider of a
police service animal in a manner that:
(A) inhibits or restricts the handler’s or rider’s
control of the animal; or
(B) deprives the handler or rider of control of
the animal;
(4) releases a police service animal from its area of
control;
(5) enters the area of control of a police service
animal without the effective consent of the handler or rider,
including placing food or any other object or substance into that area;
(6) injures or kills a police service animal; or
(7) engages in conduct likely to injure or kill a police
service animal, including administ

Question 150

Sec. 38.152. INTERFERENCE WITH RADIO FREQUENCY LICENSED TO
GOVERNMENT ENTITY. (a) A person commits an offense if, without
the effective consent of the law enforcement agency, fire
department, or emergency medical services provider, the person
intentionally interrupts, disrupts, impedes, jams, or otherwise
interferes with a radio frequency that is licensed by the Federal
Communications Commission to a government entity and is used by
the law enforcement agency, fire department, or emergency medical
services provider.

Question 151

Sec. 38.16. PREVENTING EXECUTION OF CIVIL PROCESS. (a) A
person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly by words
or physical action prevents the execution of any process in a civil
cause.
(b) It is an exception to the application of this section
that the actor evaded service of process by avoiding detection.

Question 152

Sec. 38.17. FAILURE TO STOP OR REPORT AGGRAVATED SEXUAL
ASSAULT OF CHILD. (a) A person, other than a person who has a
relationship with a child described by Section 22.04(b), commits
an offense if:
(1) the actor observes the commission or attempted
commission of an offense prohibited by Section 21.02 or
22.021(a)(2)(B) under circumstances in which a reasonable person
would believe that an offense of a sexual or assaultive nature was
being committed or was about to be committed against the child;
(2) the actor fails to assist the child or immediately
report the commission of the offense to a peace officer or law
enforcement agency; and
(3) the actor could assist the child or immediately
report the commission of the offense without placing the actor in
danger of suffering serious bodily injury or death.

Question 153

Sec. 38.171. FAILURE TO REPORT FELONY. (a) A person commits
an offense if the person:
(1) observes the commission of a felony under
circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that an
offense had been committed in which serious bodily injury or death
may have resulted; and
(2) fails to immediately report the commission of the
offense to a peace officer or law enforcement agency under circumstances in which:
(A) a reasonable person would believe that the
commission of the offense had not been reported; and
(B) the person could immediately report the
commission of the offense without placing himself or herself in
danger of suffering serious bodily injury or death.

Question 154

Sec. 38.172. FAILURE TO REPORT ASSAULT, NEGLECT, OR OMISSION
OF CARE IN CERTAIN GROUP HOMES. (a) In this section, “group home”
means an establishment that:
(1) provides, in one or more buildings, lodging to
three or more residents who are unrelated by blood or marriage to
the owner of the establishment; and
(2) provides those residents with community meals,
light housework, meal preparation, transportation, grocery
shopping, money management, laundry services, or assistance with
self-administration of medication but does not provide personal
care services as defined by Section 247.002, Health and Safety
Code.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person:
(1) has actual knowledge that a resident of a group
home has suffered bodily injury due to assault, neglect, or an
omission in care; and
(2) fails to report that fact to law enforcement or the
Department of Family and Protective Services.
(c) It is an exception to the application of this section
that:
(1) the actor is a person who holds a license issued
under Chapter 142, 242, 246, 247, or 252, Health and Safety Code,
or who is exempt from licensing under Section 142.003(a)(19),
242.003(3), or 247.004(4), Health and Safety Code; or
(2) the injury occurs in:
(A) an establishment or facility exempt from
licensing under Section 142.003(a)(19), 242.003(3), or 247.004(4),
Health and Safety Code;
(B) a hotel as defined by Section 156.001, Tax
Code;
(C) a retirement community;
(D) a monastery or convent;
(E) a child-care facility as defined by Section
42.002, Human Resources Code;
(F) a family violence shelter center as defined by
Section 51.002, Human Resources Code; or
(G) a sorority or fraternity house or other
dormitory associated with an institution of higher education.

Question 155

Sec. 38.18. USE OF COLLISION REPORT INFORMATION AND OTHER
INFORMATION FOR PECUNIARY GAIN.

(b) A person commits an offense if:
(1) the person obtains information described by
Subsection (a) from the Department of Public Safety of the State
of Texas or other governmental entity; and
(2) the information is subsequently used for the direct
solicitation of business or employment for pecuniary gain by:
(A) the person;
(B) an agent or employee of the person; or
(C) the person on whose behalf the information was
requested.
(c) A person who employs or engages another to obtain
information described by Subsection (a) from the Department of
Public Safety or other governmental entity commits an offense if
the person subsequently uses the information for direct
solicitation of business or employment for pecuniary gain.

Question 156

Sec. 38.19. FAILURE TO PROVIDE NOTICE AND REPORT OF DEATH OF
RESIDENT OF INSTITUTION. (a) A superintendent or general manager
of an institution commits an offense if, as required by Article
49.24 or 49.25, Code of Criminal Procedure, the person fails to:
(1) provide notice of the death of an individual under
the care, custody, or control of or residing in the institution;
(2) submit a report on the death of the individual; or
(3) include in the report material facts known or
discovered by the person at the time the report was filed.

Question 157

TITLE 8. OFFENSES AGAINST PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
CHAPTER 39. ABUSE OF OFFICE
Sec. 39.01. DEFINITIONS. In this chapter:
(1) “Law relating to a public servant’s office or
employment” means a law that specifically applies to a person
acting in the capacity of a public servant and that directly or
indirectly:
(A) imposes a duty on the public servant; or
(B) governs the conduct of the public servant.
(2) “Misuse” means to deal with property contrary to:
(A) an agreement under which the public servant
holds the property;
(B) a contract of employment or oath of office of a
public servant;
(C) a law, including provisions of the General
Appropriations Act specifically relating to government property,
that prescribes the manner of custody or disposition of the
property; or
(D) a limited purpose for which the property is
delivered or received.

Sec. 39.015. CONCURRENT JURISDICTION TO PROSECUTE OFFENSES
UNDER THIS CHAPTER. With the consent of the appropriate local
county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent
jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an
offense under this chapter.

Question 158

Sec. 39.02. ABUSE OF OFFICIAL CAPACITY. (a) A public
servant commits an offense if, with intent to obtain a benefit or
with intent to harm or defraud another, he intentionally or
knowingly:
(1) violates a law relating to the public servant’s
office or employment; or
(2) misuses government property, services, personnel, or
any other thing of value belonging to the government that has come
into the public servant’s custody or possession by virtue of the
public servant’s office or employment.

Question 159

Sec. 39.03. OFFICIAL OPPRESSION. (a) A public servant
acting under color of his office or employment commits an offense
if he:
(1) intentionally subjects another to mistreatment or to
arrest, detention, search, seizure, dispossession, assessment, or
lien that he knows is unlawful;
(2) intentionally denies or impedes another in the
exercise or enjoyment of any right, privilege, power, or immunity,
knowing his conduct is unlawful; or
(3) intentionally subjects another to sexual harassment.
(b) For purposes of this section, a public servant acts under
color of his office or employment if he acts or purports to act in
an official capacity or takes advantage of such actual or purported
capacity.
(c) In this section, “sexual harassment” means unwelcome
sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or other verbal or
physical conduct of a sexual nature, submission to which is made a
term or condition of a person’s exercise or enjoyment of any right,
privilege, power, or immunity, either explicitly or implicitly.

Question 160

Sec. 39.04. VIOLATIONS OF THE CIVIL RIGHTS OF PERSON IN
CUSTODY; IMPROPER SEXUAL ACTIVITY WITH PERSON IN CUSTODY OR UNDER
SUPERVISION. (a) An official of a correctional facility or
juvenile facility, an employee of a correctional facility or
juvenile facility, a person other than an employee who works for
compensation at a correctional facility or juvenile facility, a
volunteer at a correctional facility or juvenile facility, or a
peace officer commits an offense if the person intentionally:
(1) denies or impedes a person in custody in the
exercise or enjoyment of any right, privilege, or immunity knowing
his conduct is unlawful; or
(2) engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or
deviate sexual intercourse with an individual in custody or, in the
case of an individual in the custody of the Texas Juvenile Justice
Department or placed in a juvenile facility, employs, authorizes,
or induces the individual to engage in sexual conduct or a sexual
performance.

Question 161

Sec. 39.041. IMPROPER SEXUAL ACTIVITY WITH COMMITTED PERSON.
(a) In this section, “deviate sexual intercourse,” “sexual
contact,” and “sexual intercourse” have the meanings assigned by
Section 21.01.
(b) An officer or employee of the Texas Civil Commitment
Office, a person who contracts with this state to perform a service
in a civil commitment facility or an employee of that person, or a
volunteer at a civil commitment facility commits an offense if the
person intentionally engages in deviate sexual intercourse, sexual
contact, or sexual intercourse with a person committed to a civil
commitment facility.

(d) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that, at the time of the offense, the actor was the spouse
of the person committed to the civil commitment facility.