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RBT > 0 Star Difficulty p.1 > Flashcards

0 Star Difficulty p.1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is one of your responsibilities as an RBT?
a) Advocacy
b) Supervision
c) Direct instruction
d) Program development

A

c) Direct instruction
(1D)

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2
Q

What percecentage of your total hours of an RBT must be spent in supervision?
a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 25%
d) 50%

A

b) 5%
(1D)

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3
Q

How many face-to-face meetings must occur per month between the RBT and the supervisor?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

A

a) 2
(1D)

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4
Q

What is one problem with a sibling of an RBT being that RBTs supervisor?
a) Siblings have been documented to be ineffective supervisors
b) Potential for the development of a dual relationship
c) RBTs are not qualified to be supervisors
d) Training would result in an ineffective interventionist

A

b) Potential for the development of a dual relationship
(1D)

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5
Q

Which of the following is one of the requirements to obtain the RBT credential?
a) Working with adults diagnosed with ASD
b) Working with children diagnosed with ASD
c) Having a bachelor’s degree
d) Completing 40 hrs of training

A

d) Completing 40 hrs of training
(1D)

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6
Q

What are the other two levels created by the BACB?
a) BCBA & BCaBA
b) BCBA & BCAT
c) BCaBA & BCAT
d) BCBA & ABAI

A

a) BCBA & BCaBA
(1D)

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7
Q

What were one of the rights outlined by Van Houten et al. (1988)?
a) Learners welfare
b) Best outcomes
c) Certified supervisors
d) Registered Behaviour Technicians

A

a) Learners welfare
(1D)

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8
Q

Teaching children to label state capitals may be a violation of which of the rights outlined by Van Houten et al. (1988).
a) A therapeutic environment
b) A competent behaviour analyst
c) Learning functional skills
d) Behavioural assessment

A

c) Learning functional skills
(1D)

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9
Q

One potential problem with the addition of assistant trainers in the RBT certification process is the assistant trainer could be a(n):
a) BCaBA
b) BCBA
c) RBT
d) An expert in the field

A

c) RBT
(2B)

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10
Q

According to the Leaf and colleagues’ study, what was the correlation between mock exam scores & implementation of DTT?
a) No relationship
b) No relationship and moderate positive relationship
c) No relationship and strong positive relationship
d) No relationship and minimal positive relationship

A

b) No relationship and moderate positive relationship
(2B)

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11
Q

“Uncontrolled variables known or suspected to exert an influence on the dependent variable” is the definition of which of the following?
a) Dependent variables
b) External validity
c) Internal validity
d) Confounding variables

A

d) Confounding variables
(3D)

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12
Q

“The rate, duration, latency, etc of the behaviour of interest prior to manipulation of the environment” best describes which of the following?
a) Intervention
b) Baseline
c) Maintenance
d) Generalization

A

b) Baseline
(3D)

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13
Q

One main difference between bribery and reinforcement is the
a) items provided
b) timing of the item provided
c) effectiveness of both
d) results of both

A

b) timing of the item provided
(4E)

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14
Q

This is the term for when a learner is engaging in disruptive behaviours and is offered something preferred to stop.
a) Bribery
b) Reinforcement
c) Positive parenting
d) Overcorrection

A

a) Bribery
(4E)

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15
Q

When a consequence is provided contingent upon a learner engaging in appropriate behaviour and that appropriate is more likely to occur in the future is best described by which of the following?
a) Bribery
b) Reinforcement
c) Positive parenting
d) Overcorrection

A

b) Reinforcement
(4E)

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16
Q

What is one potential problem with bribery?
a) Not effective
b) Facilitates negotiation
c) Not efficient
d) Facilitates independence

A

b) Facilitates negotiation
(4E)

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17
Q

What is one of the 10 commandments of reinforcement within the APM?
a) Only use preferences
b) Include instructive feedback
c) Provide descriptive praise
d) Thin the schedule of reinforcement

A

d) Thin the schedule of reinforcement
(4E)

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18
Q

The first rule of punishment is:
a) use it only for self-injury
b) use it sparingly
c) do not use it
d) it happens

A

d) it happens
(5A)

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19
Q

A response followed immediately by a stimulus change that decreases the future probability of similar responses is best described by which of the following?
a) Punishment
b) Reinforcement
c) Shaping
d) Teaching Interaction Procedure

A

a) Punishment
(5A)

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20
Q

Saying “no” contingent upon a learner’s response that results in a decrease in the probability of that response in the future is an example of which of the following?
a) Positive punishment
b) Negative punishment
c) Positive reinforcement
d) Negative reinforcement

A

a) Positive punishment
(5A)

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21
Q

Removing a token contingent upon a response that results in a decrease in the probability of that response in the future is an example of which of the following?
a) Positive punishment
b) Negative punishment
c) Positive reinforcement
d) Negative reinforcement

A

b) Negative punishment
(5A)

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22
Q

A bad odour is likely an example of which of the following?
a) Conditioned punisher
b) Unconditioned punisher
c) Conjugate reinforcer
d) Premack principle

A

b) Unconditioned punisher
(5A)

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23
Q

Which of the following two variables affect the effectiveness of punishners?
a) Immediacy and age
b) Immediacy and schedule
c) Schedule and cognitive level
d) Schedule and age

A

b) Immediacy and schedule
(5A)

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24
Q

A potential negative side effect of punishment is:
a) behavioural extinction
b) lack of effectiveness
c) lack of maintenance
d) behavioural contrast

A

d) behavioural contrast
(5A)

25
Q

Behaviour a client engages in that could cause harm to themselves or others is sometimes referred to as:
a) pro-social behaviour
b) functionless behaviour
c) motivating behaviour
d) aberrant behaviour

A

d) aberrant behaviour
(6A)

26
Q

One problem associated with stereotypic behaviour is it:
a) does not feel good to the learner
b) could interfere with learning
c) is hard to decrease
d) should not be targeted in intervention

A

b) could interfere with learning
(6A)

27
Q

Minshawi and colleagues (2014) reported that up to ___ individuals with ASD display self-injurious behaviour:
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 25%
d) 100%

A

b) 50%
(6A)

28
Q

Which four functions are commonly included in historical literature on functional analysis?
a) Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape & control
b) Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape & emotional regulation
c) Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape & respondent
d) Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape & automatic

A

d) Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape & automatic
(6C)

29
Q

According to the APM/Model, what is another potential function of behaviour?
a) Lunar cycle
b) Control
c) Age
d) Mood

A

b) Control
(6C)

30
Q

Indirect measures of aberrant behaviour are also known as which of the following?
a) Second hand observation
b) First hand observation
c) Functional analysis
d) Functional behaviour assessment

A

a) Second hand observation
(6D)

31
Q

Collecting A-B-C data is also known as which?
a) Second hand observation
b) First hand observation
c) Latency observation
d) Functional analysis

A

b) First hand observation
(6D)

32
Q

Which of the following is the best reason for conducting a functional behaviour assessment?
a) It is a hallmark of progressive approach to ABA
b) In an effort to increase social behaviour
c) Because of a district policy
d) To identify the function of behaviour

A

d) To identify the function of behaviour
(6D)

33
Q

What are the three components of active listening?
a) What we do, what we observe, what we analyze
b) What we do, what we observe, what we write
c) What we do, what we say, what we write
d) What we do, what we say, what we observe

A

d) What we do, what we say, what we observe
(6D)

34
Q

“Was he screaming, hitting or throwing objects?” is an indirect method known as which of the following?
a) Pipe lighting
b) Reflecting
c) Laundry list
d) Open-ended questions

A

c) Laundry list
(6D)

35
Q

What is the second step of direct observation?
a) Actual observation
b) Functional analysis
c) Describing the behaviour
d) Analogue analysis

A

c) Describing the behaviour
(6D)

36
Q

Functional analysis has been described as the most ___ way to determine function.
a) Effective
b) Efficient
c) Accurate
d) Precise

A

d) Precise
(6E)

37
Q

The majority of studies on functional analysis have shown it
a) is unclear if it leads to successful treatment
b) cannot lead to successful treatment
c) is a highly efficient procedure
d) can lead to successful treatment

A

d) can lead to successful treatment
(6E)

38
Q

A learner receiving high fives contingent upon displaying aberrant behaviour would occur in which condition of a functional analysis?
a) Attention
b) Escape
c) Tangible
d) Control

A

a) Attention
(6E)

39
Q

A learner receiving a toy contingent upon displaying aberrant behaviour would most likely occur in which condition of a functional analysis?a) Attention
b) Escape
c) Tangible
d) Control

A

c) Tangible
(6E)

40
Q

A learner being provided with a break from demands contingent upon displaying aberrant behaviour would most likely occur in which condition of a functional analysis?
a) Attention
b) Escape
c) Tangible
d) Control

A

b) Escape
(6E)

41
Q

One concern with standard functional analyses is that they are not:
a) accurate in recording aberrant behaviour
b) effective in creating behavioural intervention plans
c) accurate in determining function
d) occurring in natural settings

A

d) occurring in natural settings
(6E)

42
Q

In a progressive apprach to problem behaviour (e.g. the Big 4), which of the following is recommended:
a) To proactively teach the skills required to navigate the four conditions of a standard functional analysis
b) To reactively teach the skills required to navigate the four conditions of a standard functional analysis
c) To proactively teach the skills required to navigate difficult social situations
c) To reactively teach the skills required to navigate difficult social situations

A

a) To proactively teach the skills required to navigate the four conditions of a standard functional analysis
(6E)

43
Q

What is one component of proactive procedures?
a) Using equivalence based instructions
b) Teaching to fluency
c) Using most-to-least prompting
d) Making learning fun

A

d) Making learning fun
(7A)

44
Q

What is one way to make learning fun?
a) Implementing discrete trial teaching
b) Interspersing tasks
c) Adhering to the protocol
d) Structuring teaching

A

b) Interspersing tasks
(7A)

45
Q

What is one component of reactive procedures?
a) Seeking immediate help
b) Creating behavioural momentum
c) Implementing restraint
d) Providing moderate amount of attention

A

b) Creating behavioural momentum
(7A)

46
Q

One component of a good behaviour plan is:
a) the use of sensory rooms
b) inter-observer reliability
c) a measurement system
d) the use of social stories

A

c) a measurement system
(7A)

47
Q

Discontinuing the reinforcement of a previously reinforced behaviour primarily results in a decrease in the frequency of the behaviour, which is known as what?
a) Extinction
b) Overcorrection
c) Time-out
d) Punishment

A

a) Extinction
(7B)

48
Q

We extinguish the ___.
a) antecedent
b) behaviour not the student
c) consequence
d) behaviour and student

A

b) behaviour not the student
(7B)

49
Q

Extinction should always be combined with which of the following?
a) Praise
b) Reinforcement
c) Time-out
d) Punishment

A

b) Reinforcement
(7B)

50
Q

When implementing a procedure based upon extinction, one might observe an intitial, but temporary increase in the targeted behaviour. This is known as which of the following?
a) Invariable increase
b) Ratio strain
c) Reinforcement burst
d) Extinction burst

A

d) Extinction burst
(7B)

51
Q

Which of the following best describes a situation when a behaviour that is no longer reinforced starts to appear again?
a) Reinforcement burst
b) Ratio-strain
c) Resurgence
d) Immaculate behaviour

A

c) Resurgence
(7B)

52
Q

Which best describes an overcorrection procedure in which aberrant behaviour sets the occasion for the learner to restore the environment to its previous state?
a) Positive
b) Restitutional
c) Punitive
d) Stimulus

A

b) Restitutional
(7F)

53
Q

Which best describes an overcorrection procedure in which aberrant behaviour sets the occasion for the learner to repeatedly engage in a task?
a) Positive practice
b) Punitive
c) Stimulus
d) Restitutional

A

a) Positive practice
(7F)

54
Q

Which best describes a procedure that involves blocking an individual from engaging in a behaviour?
a) Operant blocking
b) Stimulus blocking
c) Response blocking
d) Respondent blocking

A

c) Response blocking
(7F)

55
Q

Which is one strategy within the APM used to decrease aberrant behaviour?
a) Social skill groups
b) Script fading
c) Video modeling
d) Equivalence based instruction

A

a) Social skill groups
(7I)

56
Q

Developing up a hierarchy of frustrating events and teaching a client to engage in relaxing behaviours when exposed to steps within that hierarchy is known as which of the following?
a) Acceptance and Commitment Therapy
b) Respondent Blocking
c) Frustration Tolerance
d) Graduated Support

A

c) Frustration Tolerance
(7I)

57
Q

If required to implement restraint, you must do which of the following?
a) Nothing in addition to this training
b) Seek out additional training
c) Use for each learner with whom you work
d) Use in every crisis plan

A

b) Seek out additional training
(7J)

58
Q

Crisis plans should be:
a) individualized
b) person-centered
c) punishment based
d) reinforcement based

A

a) individualized
(7J)

59
Q

Which of the following is a core component of a behaviour reduction plan?
a) Prompting
b) Treatment fidelity
c) Punishment procedures
d) Data collection

A

d) Data collection
(7K)

RBT (6 decks)

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