INTEGUMENTARY AND SKELETOMUSCULAR SYSTEM Flashcards

1
Q

BURS/O

A

Fluid sac

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2
Q

HEMI-

A

HALF

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3
Q

HEM/O

A

BLOOD

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4
Q

NEUTR/O

A

NEUTRAL

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5
Q

CORTIC/O

A

CORTEX

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6
Q

CEREBELL/O

A

CEREBELLUM

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7
Q

SALPING/O

A

RELATING TO TUBES (FALLOPIAN TUBES; EUSTACHIAN TUBES)

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8
Q

PARA-

A

BESIDES
NEAR
AROUND

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9
Q

DERMAT/O

A

SKIN

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10
Q

-PENIA

A

DEFICIENCY

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11
Q

HEPAT/O

A

LIVER

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12
Q

ATHER/O

A

FATTY DEPOSIT
PLAQUE

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13
Q

-CYSTOSIS

A

MORE THAN THE NORMAL NUMBER OF CELLS

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14
Q

MYEL/O

A

MARROW
SPINAL CORD

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15
Q

HYPER-

A

EXCESSIVE
ABOVE

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16
Q

-PATHY

A

DISEASE

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17
Q

LABYRINTH/O

A

a group of complex interconnecting anatomical cavities; inner ear

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18
Q

INTRA-

A

WITHIN

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19
Q

-OMA

A

TUMOR
MASS

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20
Q

-STASIS

A

CONTROL
STOP

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21
Q

LIP/O

A

FAT

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22
Q

AORT/O

A

AORTA

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23
Q

ANTI-

A

AGAINST
OPPOSITE

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24
Q

VENTRICUL/O

A

ventricles; any hollow region inside an organ

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25
Q

mening/o

A

MENINGES

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26
Q

angi/o

A

VESSEL

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27
Q

eosin/o

A

ROSY
RED

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28
Q

-URIA

A

CONDITION OF THE URINE

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29
Q

MYRING/O

A

EARDRUM

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30
Q

OT/O

A

EAR

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31
Q

JEJUN/O

A

jejunum (part of small intestine)

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32
Q

lymph/o

A

LYMPHATIC TISSUE

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33
Q

pituitar/o

A

PITUITARY GLAND

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34
Q

chondr/o

A

CARTILAGE

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35
Q

-gen

A

THAT WHICH PRODUCES

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36
Q

necr/o

A

DEAD

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37
Q

-algia

A

PAIN

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38
Q

cerebr/o

A

BRAIN

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39
Q

sudoriferous glands

A

SWEAT GLANDS

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40
Q

hyponatremia

A

LOW SODIUM IN THE BLOOD

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41
Q

dorsiflexion

A

bend (something, typically the hand or foot) dorsally or towards its upper surface:

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42
Q

hepatosplenomegaly

A

ENLARGEMENT OF LIVER AND SPLEEN

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43
Q

agranulocyte

A

A NONGRANULAR LEUKOCYTE FOOUND IN PLASMA

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44
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

LOW BLOOD SUGAR

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45
Q

SARCOMA

A

MALIGNANCY OF SUPPORTING TISSUES

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46
Q

spondylarthritis

A

INFLAMMATION OF THE VERTEBRAL JOINTS

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47
Q

CERVIX

A

LOWER PORTION OF THE UTERUS

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48
Q

adduction

A

MOVEMENT TOWARDS THE MIDLINE OF THE BODY

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49
Q

pericardiectomy

A

SURGICAL REMOVAL OF THE PERICARIAL SAC

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50
Q

lacrimation

A

SECRECTION AND DISCHARGE OF TEARS

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51
Q

hematuria

A

BLOOD IN URINE

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52
Q

hemiparesis

A

WEAKNESS ON ONE SIDE

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53
Q

dermis

A

MIDDLE LAYER OF SKIN

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54
Q

lysis

A

DESTRUCTION OF CELLS

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55
Q

hemiplegia

A

PARALYSIS ON ONE SIDE

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56
Q

autoimmune

A

IMMUNESYSTEM ATTACKING ITS OWN CELLS

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57
Q

myelomeningocele

A

PROTRUSION OF THE MENINGES OF THE SPINAL CORD

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58
Q

paronychia

A

INFFECTION OF THE SKIN AROUND THE NAIL

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59
Q

keloid

A

ABRNORMALLY LARGE, THICKENED SCAR

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60
Q

anaphylaxis

A

SEVERE ALLERGIC REACTION THAT CAN BE FATAL

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61
Q

TENS

A

TRANSCUTANEOUS ELECTRICAL NERVE STIMULATION

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62
Q

glomerulonephritis

A

INFLAMMATION OF THE KIDNEY; PRIMARILY OF THE Glomerulus

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63
Q

Three main layers of the skin:

A

Epidermis
Dermis
Subcutaneous

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64
Q

epidermis layer

A

outermost layer of your skin, and contains five additional layers

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65
Q

The five epidermis layers are

A

stratum cornea
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale

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66
Q

Function stratum cornea

A

surface layer, which acts as a barrier against infections. Skin cells grow from the inside out; once cells reach the surface, they’re completely dead and keratinized.
These cells are packed closely together and serve as a water-resistant covering for the body. There’s an extensive amount of cell turnover in the skin, which is the process in which cells continuously die and are replaced by new ones. Your skin is constantly shedding these dead cells into the environment.

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67
Q

Function statum lucidum

A

Found just below the stratum corneum on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet only. This layer provides additional protection for these high-use areas. Cells in this layer appear clear.

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68
Q

Function stratum granulosum

A

Layer in which cells begin the protection process and are then distributed among the layers. These cells produce melanin, a type of protein that gives color to hair and skin.
Skin color has nothing to do with the numbers of melanocytes; instead, skin color is determined by the amount of melanin produced by the melanocytes
The stratum granulosum is the first layer not to be nourished by the dermis, so the cells start to die here, forming kreatin in the process.

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69
Q

KERATIN

A

Substance that constitutes your skin, hair and nails.

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70
Q

Stratum spinosum

A

Also known as the “prickle layer” for its spiny texture.

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71
Q

Stratum basale

A

Final and deepest layer of the epidermis which is composed of basal cells. This layer is responsible for renewing the epidermal cells.

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72
Q

dermis

A

Lies under the epidermal layer and is much thicker.
Located between the epidermis and the subcutaneous layer.
It contains blood and lymph vessels, as well as nerve fibers.
The dermis also contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands.
Several types of connective tissue cells and collagen fibers support the hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands.

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73
Q

Fibroblast cells

A

Produce fiber that helps to repair injuries.

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74
Q

Phagocytic cells

A

Protect the body by swallowing foreign materials such as bacteria.

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75
Q

histamine

A

Most cells contain histamine a substance that produces allergic reactions,

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76
Q

heparin

A

Most cells contain heparin, a substance that prevents blood clotting.

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77
Q

Collagen

A

gluey protein found in skin, connective tissue, bones, cartilage, tendons, and ligaments.
Collagen fibers provide the skin with its strength and elasticity. Because of collagen, skin can stretch- as it does during weight gains and pregnancy- and return to its normal shape again.
When the collagen fibers are overstretched, they break and form linea marks called stretch marks.

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78
Q

Whorls and loops

A

Found on the soles of the feet, the palms of the hands, and on the fingertips. These “prints” are actually formed from the ridges and furrows found in the dermis layer.
whorls and loops on the fingertips can help you grasp objects.

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79
Q

Location of Touch receptors in your fingertips

A

Closer to the epidermis so your fingers can detect very delicate surface changes.

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80
Q

Location of Pressure receptors

A

Deeper in the dermal layer, which explains why you can press on something firmly with your hands without discomfort.

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81
Q

Subcutaneous or hypodermal layer

A

Connective tissue layer that attaches the skin to the muscles and to other tissues lying beneath the skin.
Technically speaking, the subcutaneous layer isn’t actually part of the integumentary system because it’s made of connective tissue.
It’s sometimes called superficial fascia. Fascia is the tissue that provides support and protection for the organs.
The subcutaneous layer provides a link between the integumentary system and the other body system it covers. It serves to shape the body.
The subcutaneous layer also specializes in the production of fat.

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82
Q

Fascia

A

Tissue that provides support and protection for the organs.

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83
Q

Lipocytes
Adipocytes

A

Fat cells
stored in the subcutaneous layer in a special tissue called adipose tissue, which is made up of adipocytes.

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84
Q

Purpose of lipocytes

A

To manufacture and store large quantities of fat.
You need fat to maintain good health. It helps protect your underlying organs from mechanical shock as the body moves.
It also serves as insulation and, therefore, helps to keep the body warm.
When there’s no food to eat, fat becomes an energy source.
On the other hand, excessive fat stores are bad for your health.

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85
Q

The integumentary system is the body system that provides protective coverage for your _______?

A

Internal Organs

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86
Q

This integumentary system comprises the ____________

A

Skin
Hair
Nails
Sweat Glands
Sebaceous Glands

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87
Q

The skin’s functions are?

A

The skin provides protection from the outer environment.
The skin acts as a barrier against foreign pathogens.
The skin sends the pain, temperature, pressure, and touch stimuli to the brain.
When skin is exposed to the sun, it helps in synthesizing vitamin D, an essential vitamin needed to carry out various body functions.

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88
Q

How much space does the skin take up on average ?

A

20 square feet

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88
Q

How much does the skin weigh onaverage?

A

Between 7-9 punds

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89
Q

How many skin cells in the body?

A

300 million skin cells

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90
Q

Sweat glands are located….?

A

deep in the dermal layer, very close to the subcutaneous layer of the skin.

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91
Q

Two types of sweat glands

A

eccrine and apocrine

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92
Q

Eccrine sweat glands

A

numerous, important, and widespread throughout your body. These tiny coiled tubes reach the epidermis through crooked ducts called pores. Eccrine sweat glands produce a watery sweat.

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93
Q

Apocrine sweat glands

A

Found primarily in the axillae (armpits) and in the pigmented skin areas around the genitals. The apocrine sweat glands produce a thicker, milky secretion that can be odorous.

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94
Q

Mammary gland

A

Milk-producing, is actually a modified sweat gland, but it doesn’t work full time like the sweat gland. The mammary gland secretes milk only after the birth of a child.

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95
Q

Ceruminous glands

A

located in the skin that lines the external auditory canals. Instead of sweat, these glands secrete earwax, or cerumen.

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96
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Flask-shaped, located in the dermis.
Commonly attached to hair follicles, the sebaceous glands secrete an oily substance called sebum, which is released through ducts in the hair follicles.
Sebum oils the hair, lubricates the skin, and prevents water loss.

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97
Q

Sebum

A

Oils the hair, lubricates the skin, and prevents water loss.

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98
Q

How many sweat glands in the body?

A

2 million

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99
Q

A single hair is composed of four basic parts:

A

hair shaft
hair root
hair follicle
papilla

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100
Q

hair shaft

A

the visible part of the hair

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101
Q

hair root

A

is embedded in the dermis

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102
Q

hair follicle

A

A bulblike attachment at the end of the hair. The follicle consists of the root and its coverings.

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103
Q

Papilla

A

A loop of capillaries enclosed within connective tissue.

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104
Q

lunula

A

The white crescent at the base of the nail. A nail grows from the lunula.

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105
Q

Fingernails grow indefinitely at the rate of about

A

1 milimeter per week.

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106
Q

Cuticle

A

The narrow band of the epidermis that extends from the nail wall onto the surface. The pinkish color seen beneath the nail is produced by underlying capillaries.

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107
Q

Common symptoms of various skin diseases:

A

pruritus or itching
erythema or redness
edema or swelling
scaling lesions
ulcers
hives

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108
Q

Pruritus (skin)

A

is due to histamine release from the skin cells in response to an allergic reaction.

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109
Q

Erythema (skin)

A

is caused by increased blood flow to the affected area of the skin.

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110
Q

Edema (skin)

A

is caused by fluid buildup in the affected skin area.

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111
Q

Scaling (skin)

A

is due to excess keratin buildup in the epidermis layer of the skin.

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112
Q

Lesion (skin)

A

the circumscribed area of the diseased skin tissue and is classified as primary and secondary.

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113
Q

ulcer, or an open lesion (skin)

A

results from tissue damage in the skin layers.

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114
Q

Hives (skin)

A

raised, irregularly shaped skin eruptions with red margins and pales centers. Hives usually result from an allergic reaction.

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115
Q

Common antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections:

A

Azithromycin (Zithromax)
Bacitracin (Bacitracin)
Bacitracin/ Neomycin/ Polymyxin B (Neosporin, Triple Antibiotic)
Cephalexin (Keflex)
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Vancomycin (Vancocin)

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116
Q

Common antifungal medications:

A

Nystatin (Nystop)
Fluconazole (Diflucan)
Miconazole (Lotrimin)
Terbinafine (Lamisil)
Amphotericin B (Ambisome)

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117
Q

Primary skin lesions:

A

Abrasions
Contusions
Cysts
Exoriations
Lacerations
Macules
Papules
Polyps
Pustules
Vesicles
Wheals

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118
Q

Abrasion

A

the scraping away of epidermal tissue

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119
Q

Contusion

A

injured skin that’s intact and not broken

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120
Q

Cyst

A

a hollow cavity filled with liquid secretions

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121
Q

Excoriation

A

the superficial loss of tissue due to trauma, chemicals or burns

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122
Q

Laceration

A

broken skin layers or torn flesh

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123
Q

Macules

A

non-palpable discolored spots or patches

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124
Q

Papules

A

small, solid, circumscribed (rounded), raised areas. Examples include warts, moles, and pimples.

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125
Q

Polyp

A

a small growth protruding from a mucous membrane

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126
Q

Pustules

A

small, elevated, circumscribed, pus-containing lesions

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127
Q

Vesicles

A

blister-like elevations containing serous fluid. Examples include lesions due to dermatitis, burns, chicken pox, and scabies.

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128
Q

Wheals

A

localized areas of edema on the body surface. Examples include urticaria, or hives from allergic reactions

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129
Q

Secondary skin lesions

A

result from the healing process. As a primary skin lesion heals, scabs or crusts form over the affected area. These secondary lesions are composed of dry pus, lymph, or blood and may vary in color and thickness.

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130
Q

Cicatrix

A

is a scar from a wound that has healed.

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131
Q

Hypertrophied

A

Is a firm, raised, and thickened condition of a scar.

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132
Q

Keloid

A

Is a progessively enlarging, irregularly shaped scar tissue due to excessive collagen formation in the corium during repair.

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133
Q

Skin lesions are usually treated with

A

topical corticosteroids, antibiotics, and antiseptics, depending on the type of skin lesion.

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134
Q

list of common corticosteroids that are available to treat various skin disorders:

A

Betamethasone (Diprolene, Valisone)
Clobetasol (Temovate)
Desonide (Desowen)
Desoximetason (Topicort)
Fluocinolone (Capex)
Hydrocortisone (Cortef)
Triamcinolone (Kenalog)

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135
Q

Ulcer

A

An open sore or lesion caused by trauma, intense heat or cold, pressure, or bacterial infection. An ulcer is a depression of the epidermis.
It can progress to the erosion of the skin layers.

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136
Q

Pressure ulcers (or decubitus ulcers)

A

Are specifically caused by direct pressure due to prolonged immobility. When someone is sitting or lying down for long periods, ulcers may occur at the points that bear the most pressure, such as the heels, tailbone (coccyx), elbows and the back of the head. Patients that are immobile due to stroke, coma, or other serious diseases are at the greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Once an ulcer has formed, it doesn’t heal unless aggressive measures are taken to relieve the pressure. The ulcers may require surgery to remove dead or infected tissue.

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137
Q

decubitus ulcers

A

pressure ulcers

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138
Q

Pressure ulcer treatment includes

A

Keeping the affected area clean and dry.
Antibiotics, steroids, and pain reliever medications are sometimes used to provide symptomatic relief, decrease the inflammation, and treat infection if present.

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139
Q

Stage I ulcers

A

Have reddened skin, but the skin isn’t broken

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140
Q

Stage II ulcers

A

Can have broken or unbroken blisters that are reddened and/or irritated.

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141
Q

Stage III ulcers

A

Ulcers have skin breakage through all layers.

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142
Q

Stage IV ulcers

A

Ulcers go through all layers of skin and can affect muscles, tendons, and even bone.

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143
Q

Dermatitis

A

is a general term referring to any inflammation of the skin

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144
Q

Eczema (atopic dermatitis)

A

is a common inflammatory disorder in which skin patches become rough and swollen with blisters.
Eczema is more prevalent in children but may persist into adulthood in some cases.
In most cases, the cause of eczema is unknown but can’t be triggered by humidity, infection, or stress.
Eczema may be prevented by avoiding or minimizing exposure to the allergens, keeping the skin clean and moisturized, and drinking plenty of fluids to stay hydrated.
Treatment of eczema includes

145
Q

Common symptoms of eczema

A

itching, dryness, redness, and swelling.

146
Q

Treatment of eczema

A

topical corticosteroids, antihistamines, and immunosuppressant agents

147
Q

TOPICAL CORTICOSTEROID (USED FOR ECZEMA TREATMENT)

A

Hydrocortisone (Cortef)
Triamcinolone (Kenalog)
Clobetasol (Temovate)
Desoximetasone (Topicort)

148
Q

ORAL ANTIHISTAMINES (USED FOR ECZEMA TREATMENT)

A

DIPHENHYDRAMINE (BENADRYL)
CETIRIZINE (ZYRTEC)
FEXOFENADINE (ALLEGRA)
LORATADINE (CLARITIN)

149
Q

TOPICAL ANTIBIOTICS (USED FOR ECZEMA TREATMENT)

A

Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Sulfacetamide (Klaron)
Bacitracin/Neomycin/Polymyxin B (Neosporin, Triple Antibiotic)

150
Q

TOPICAL IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS (USED FOR ECZEMA TREATMENT)

A

Tacrolimus (Protopic)
Pimecrolimus (Elidel)

151
Q

Drug Class Vitamin D Derivatives (for psoriasis treatment)

A

Calcipotriene (Dovonex)

152
Q

Drug Class Retinoid (for psoriasis treatment)

A

Tretinoin (Retin-A)

153
Q

Drug Class Systemic Immunosuppressant (for psoriasis treatment)

A

Methotrexate (Trexall)
Cyclosporine (Neural, Sandimmune)

154
Q

Drug Class Other Drugs (for psoriasis treatment)

A

Efalizumab (Raptiva)
Etanercept (Enbrel)
Adalimumab (Humira)

155
Q

Burns occur from ….?

A

overexposure to heat
chemicals
electricity
radiation

156
Q

A first-degree burn

A

Is a minor burn.
There may be some redness and discomfort, blistering usually doesn’t occur and little tissue is destroyed.
First-degree burns are labeled as superficial burns.
If blisters do form, the upper layers of the epidermis may peel within one to three days.
Healing usually takes about a week.

157
Q

Second-Degree Burn

A

Causes injury to the top layers of the dermis.
Second-degree burns are labeled as partial-thickness burns. Although these burns damage sweat glands, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands, the dermis isn’t completely destroyed.
A second-degree burn is characterized by blisters, severe pain, generalized swelling, and fluid loss and usually results in scarring. Healing takes about two weeks.

158
Q

Third-Degree Burn

A

The most severe and generally cause no pain at first because of the damage to the nerve endings.
In this type of burn, the epidermis and dermis have been completely destroyed, and the damage extends below the dermis to the subcutaneous layer.
Third-degree burns are labeled as full-thickness burns, wherein the damage goes into the fat, muscle and bone.
Someone with third-degree burns has a high risk of infection from loss of the protective skin layers and may experience a loss of body fluids.
Third-degree burns usually require skin grafting- a type of surgery in which the burned skin is removed and replaced with skin from another location. However, the larger the surface area affected by the burn, the greater the risk of complication or death.

159
Q

Treatment Options for Burns

A

A first-degree burn usually requires no treatment and heals on its own. A second-degree burn may require topical antibiotics such as silver sulfadiazine (Silverdene) or pain relievers. Severe burns require hospitalization, skin grafting, hydration, and intravenous antibiotics.

160
Q

Acne

A

A common skin disorder among adolescents and young adults. There are multiple factors that cause acne, such as abnormal epithelial cell growth in puberty, increased production of sebum (oil) by sebaceous glands, infections, and inflammations. There are also many options to prevent and treat acne, including antibacterial washes, creams, and gels.

161
Q

Topical Antibiotics for acne treatment

A

Benzoyl Peroxide (Benzac, Clearasil)
Clindamycin (Cleocin, Clindagel, ClindaMax)
Erythromycin (Erygel, Akne-Mycin)
Sulfacetamide (Klaron, Ovace)

162
Q

Retinoic Agents for acne treatment

A

Isotretinoin (Accutane)
Tretinoin (Retin-A)
Tazarotene (Tazorac)

163
Q

Keratolytic Agents for acne treatment

A

Salicylic acid (Multiple brand names)

164
Q

Three main structures of the musculoskeletal system

A

Skeleton
Joints
Muscles

165
Q

The skeleton is divided into two main parts, the…..

A

Axial skeleton
Appendicular skeleton

166
Q

How many bones in the normal human skeleton?

A

206

167
Q

scapula

A

shoulder blade

168
Q

Irregular bones work as …?

A

Connectors

169
Q

The two types of bone cells?

A

Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts

170
Q

Osteoblasts

A

produce bones

171
Q

Osteoclasts

A

are responsible for reabsorption or breakdown of bone tissue

172
Q

The process of bone formation is called

A

ossification

173
Q

______ and ______ are essential for strong bones to develop. In fact, these minerals remain vital for continued bone strength and formation.

A

Calcium
Phosphorus

174
Q

The axial skeleton consists of…….

A

Skull
Thorax
Vertebral column

175
Q

Skull bones include bones of…..?

A

Cranium
Face
Ears

176
Q

______bones form the cranium?

A

8

177
Q

_____ bones form the face?

A

14

178
Q

____ bones for the ear?

A

6

179
Q

TMJ

A

temporomandibular joint (connects the sides and base of the jaw to the lower jaw bone)

180
Q

What are the three components of the thorax?

A

12 pairs of ribs
Sternum
Thoracic vertebrae

181
Q

Which important organs does the thorax protect?

A

Heart
Lungs

182
Q

How many pairs of ribs in the human body?

A

12

183
Q

vertebral column or spinal column are called vertebrae.. how many bone segments protect the spinal cord?

A

33

184
Q

five regions vertebral column ?

A
  • Cervical Vertebrae are the 7
    bones that are located in the
    neck region
  • Thoracic Vertebrae are the 12
    bones that are located in the
    chest region
  • Lumbar Vertebrae consist of 5
    bones that are located in the
    back region
  • The Sacrum Vertebrae are
    made up of 5 bones that fused
    together in adolescence and are
    located in the pelvic region.
  • The coccyx or tailbone is made
    up of 4 bones that fused
    together in adolescence and it
    is the last bone of the spine.
185
Q

How much on average does a human head weigh ?

A

9 pounds

186
Q

_____bones that build the whole skeleton

A

206

187
Q

_____bones are from the appendicular skeleton.

A

126

188
Q

The appendicular skeleton consists of ….?

A

shoulder bones
arm and hand bones
hip bones
leg and foot bones

189
Q

clavicle

A

collar bone

190
Q

The clavicle is attached to the _____ at a very small joint called the sternoclavicular joint.

A

Sternum

191
Q

shoulder girdle or pectoral girdle

A

shoulder bones

192
Q

Each arm and hand have a total of ____ bones.

A

30

193
Q

Humerus

A

the upper arm bone

194
Q

Ulna

A

the medial lower arm bone.

195
Q

Radius

A

Lateral lower arm bone that lines up with the thumb

196
Q

Carpals

A

the eight wrist bones that are arranged in two rows of four bones

197
Q

Metacarpals

A

the five bones that connect to the fingers.

198
Q

phalanges

A

organized as three phalanges for each finger and two phalanges for each thumb.

199
Q

The hand consists of_____ bones

A

27 bones, along with eight carpal bones at the wrist.

200
Q

The following three bones form the pelvis:

A

Illum
Ischium
Pubis

201
Q

Illium

A

the uppermost and largest portion of the pelvis

202
Q

Ischium

A

the back portion you sit on

203
Q

Pubis

A

either of the two bones that make up the front-most portion of the hip bone.

204
Q

Pelvis difference male vs femal

A

Female pelvis = borad and shallow
Male pelvis = funnel-shaped

205
Q

The leg and foot have a total of ____ bones

A

30

206
Q

Femur

A

Thigh bone
Longest bone in the body

207
Q

acetabulum

A

the socket of the hip bone, into which the head of the femur fits

208
Q

patella

A

kneecap

209
Q

tibia

A

shin bone

210
Q

fibula

A

calf bone
smaller one of the two lowr leg bones.

211
Q

tarsals

A

seven short bones that form the ankle

212
Q

largest tarsal is the…….

A

calcaneus

213
Q

calcaneus

A

heel bone

214
Q

two phalanges in the….

A

big toe

215
Q

three phalanges in

A

in each toe except big toe

216
Q

A joint, also called an

A

articulation

217
Q

Classifying joints is to divide them into three main structural types:

A

diarthrosis
amphiarthrosis
synarthrosis

218
Q

Diarthrosis joints

A

Allow a wide variety of movement, ranging from many directions to one or two directions. This range of movement is possible because a small space, or joint cavity, exists between the two joining bones and allows bones to move freely. Diarthrosis joints are also called synovial joints. Examples of diarthrosis joints are the shoulder, wrist, thumb, hip, knee, and ankle joints.

219
Q

Which joints are diarthrosis joints?

A

Shoulder
Wrist
Thumb
Hip
Knee
Ankle

220
Q

Amphiarthrosis joints

A

Able to perform a limited amount of movement.
Cartilage connects the joined bones.
Examples of amphiarthrosis joints are the joints between the vertebrae of the spinal column and the pubic bones.

221
Q

Synarthrosis joints

A

Totally immovable joints that don’t have a joint cavity. Instead, tissue grows between the adjoining bones. Examples of synarthrosis joints are found in the skull and in the sternum.

222
Q

What are the three types of muscle?

A

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac

223
Q

Skeletal muscle (striated muscle)

A
  • Generates movement by pulling
    against bone
  • skeletal muscle appears to have
    bands running across the cells
  • voluntary muscle because you
    can voluntarily control movements.
  • Skeletal muscle cells are
    unusual because they contain
    more than one nucleus.
  • Each cell, or muscle fiber, is an
    elongated structure with
    striations and multiple nuclei.
  • Compared to other types of
    muscle, skeletal muscle is
    capable of forceful and rapid
    contractions under voluntary
    control.
224
Q

Smooth muscle

A
  • Contract involuntarily, rhythmic and slow.
  • Lines the inside of many organs (stomach and intestines, bladder, blood vessels etc.)
  • No striations, only one nucleus per cell
225
Q

Cardiac muscle

A
  • Involuntary muscle actions
  • Striated
  • Interdependent contracting
    system such that the entire
    heart contracts in a coordinated
    manner to pump blood
    throughout the body.
226
Q

Example of a flat bone

A

Scapula

227
Q

Examples of short bones

A

Hand
Feet
Wrist
Ankles

228
Q

Osteoblasts produses …..?

A

Bones

229
Q

Long bones example

A

Legs

230
Q

Osteoclasts are responsible for …….

A

Resorption or breakdown of bone tissue

231
Q

Ossification

A

Bone formation

232
Q

Calcium and phosphorus are essential for

A

stroon bones to develop.

233
Q

The skeleton is divided into two parts:

A

Axial skeleton
Appendicular skeleton

234
Q

How many bones in the normal skeleton?

A

206 bones

235
Q

In your fingers and toes zou have _____phalanges?

A

56

236
Q

Cervical vertebrae

A

(7 bones) are located in the neck region

237
Q

Thoracic vertebrae

A

( 12 bones) are located in the chest region.

238
Q

Lumbar vertebrae

A

(5 bones) are located in the back region

239
Q

Sacrum vertebrae

A

(5 bones fused together in adolescence) are located in the pelvic region.

240
Q

The coccyx or tailbone

A

(4 bones fused together in adolescence) is the last bone of the spine.

241
Q

sternoclavicular joint (very small joint)

A

Joint that attaches the clavicle to the sternum.

242
Q

Each arm and hand has _____ bones

A

30 bones

243
Q

Examples of diarthrosis joints

A

Shoulder
Wrist
Thumb
Hip
Knee
Ankle

244
Q

Examples of amphiarthrosis joints

A

Joints between the vertebrae of the spinal column
Pubic Bones

245
Q

Examples of synarthrosis joints

A

Joint of the skull bones

246
Q

adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

Energy
The chemical bonds in this molecule are broken, producing energy as well as heat. As you exercise, your muscles are contracting, producing heat. Your body gets rid of this heat by sweating.

247
Q

Retinopathy

A

retina disease

248
Q

Otitis

A

inflammation of the ear

249
Q

audiometer

A

instrument to measure hearing

250
Q

arthroplasty

A

Surgical repair of a joint

251
Q

Menorrhagia

A

Rapid flow of blood at menstruation

252
Q

Nephroma

A

Kidney tumor

253
Q

Glycosuria

A

Presence of sugar in the urine

254
Q

Nephromegaly

A

Enlarged kidney

255
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Destruction of fibers

256
Q

Chondrectomy

A

Surgical removal of cartilage

257
Q

Leukopenia

A

Too few white blood cells

258
Q

Urethral

A

pertaining to the urethra

259
Q

Eosinophil

A

granulocyte white blood cells that destroy parasites

260
Q

Bursitis

A

Inflammation of the bursa

261
Q

Nephrorrhapy

A

Suture of the kidney

262
Q

Prostatitis

A

Inflammation of the prostate gland

263
Q

Fibrinogen

A

Blood protein essential for clotting

264
Q

Pericardiectomy

A

Surgical removal of the pericardial sac

265
Q

Audiologist

A

Hearing specialist

266
Q

Oophoritis

A

Inflammation of the ovary

267
Q

Simple or closed fracture

A

The bone is broken, but it hasn’t broken through the skin. The neighboring muscles and tissues aren’t damaged.

268
Q

Compound or open fracture

A

the bone breaks through the skin, and there’s considerable damage to the surrounding tissues.

269
Q

Complete fracture

A

The bone is completely broken, and the two broken ends are separated from each other.

270
Q

Incomplete fracture

A

The break in the bone is more like a crack that doesn’t extend completely across.

271
Q

Strain

A

A strain is a tear in a tendon or muscle fiber as a result of overstretching a muscle. Strains usually result from an injury or vigorous exercise without appropriate stretching.

272
Q

Sprain

A

A tear in a ligament as a result of trauma or due to the joint being twisted beyond its normal range of motion.
Based on the severity of the injury or trauma to the affected joint, one or more ligaments can be damaged or torn.
Ankle and wrist joints are at the highest risk of sprains.
A sprained joint, if severe, may require surgical repair and may result in prolonged immobility.

273
Q

Spasm

A

A spasm or cramp is a condition characterized by the undesired, prolonged contraction of a muscle. Spasms can range from painless to extremely painful and can occur after vigorous exercise.
Muscle spasms can accompany a joint or bone problem because the surrounding muscles are forced to contract constantly to compensate for any joint dysfunction.

274
Q

Common pain and anti-inflammatory medications include:

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Hydromorphone (Dilaudin)
Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Morphine (MS Contin)
Naproxen (Naprosyn, Aleve)
Oxycodone (Oxycontin)
Prednisone (Prelone)

275
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Is the infection inside a bone. It’s a common complication for diabetes patients with foot infections. Inflammation can reduce the blood supply to the bone, resulting in bone necrosis.
The symptoms of osteomyelitis are pain or tenderness in the affected area, inflammation redness, and high fever. Osteomyelitis requires an intense treatment of intravenous antibiotics in high doses and for a long duration. Severe cases may require surgery to clean out the dead bone tissue in addition to antibiotics. Patients are also prescribed medications to reduce pain and swelling.

276
Q

Necrosis

A

The process of tissue death that may require amputation of the affected bone.

277
Q

Common antibiotics used to treat osteomyelitis are:

A

Cefazolin (Kefxol, Ancef)
Daptomycin (Cubicin)
Linezolid (Zyvox)
Vancomycin (Vancocin)

278
Q

Osteoporosis

A

a condition characterized by a decrease in total bone mass

279
Q

medications used in the treatment of osteoporosis

A

Alendronate (Fosamax)
Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
Calcium with vitamin D (OsCal D)
Conjugated estrogen (Premarin)
Ibandronate (Boniva)
Medroxyprogesterone (Provera)
Raloxifene (Evista)
Risedronate (Actonel)

280
Q

Bone marrow depression

A

decreases the number of red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBC), and platelets.

281
Q

Bone marrow depression causes

A

a serious adverse reaction linked to many drugs, especially antihistamines, tranquilizers, chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin), phenylbutazone (Butazolidin), sulfonamides, antineoplastics, thyroid medications, antidepressants, and diuretics.

282
Q

Bone marrow depression symptoms

A

weakness
pale skin
dyspnea
soreness of mucous membranes fever
chills
extreme fatigue
urinary and vaginal infections
bleeding

283
Q

Treatment of bone marrow depression

A

May require blood transfusions.
If a medication is identified to be the cause of the bone marrow depression, symptoms usually resolve once the offending medication is discontinued. Patients are often given intravenous antibiotics until a normal blood level of WBCs is attained.

284
Q

Arthritis

A

Inflammation of a jointA

285
Q

Arthritis symptoms

A

Persistent Pain
Inflammation
Stiffness (especially in the AM)

286
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Serious and crippling form of arthritis, is a systemic autoimmune disease that gradually affects more and more joints as time passes. Your body’s own immune system starts attacking the joint tissue. Anti-inflammatory medications are somewhat effective when taken in higher prescription doses

287
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis symptoms

A

loss of appetite
a general feeling of being ill
weight loss
muscular pain.
As the joints become more affected, they become red, swollen, tender to the touch, and painful to move.

288
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A

An inflammation of the joints that link the vertebrae to the spine.
As the inflammation recedes, it leaves joints hardened and damaged.

289
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis symptoms

A

Lower backache that may spread to the buttocks;
stiff, painful hips
vague chest pains;
tenderness over the heels;
red painful eyes

290
Q

Some common medications for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis are:

A

Adalimumab (Humira)
Azathioprine (imuran)
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
Cyclosporine (Neoral, Sandimmune)
Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
Etanercept (Enbrel)
Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)
Infliximab (Remicade)
Methotrexate (Trexall)
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Rituximab (Rituxan)

291
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Normally occurs due to the wear and tear of the joints.
It mostly affects the elderly.
It commonly affects weight-bearing joints such as the spine, hips, and knees.
The disease causes the smooth lining of a joint- the articular cartilage- to crack and flake.
As the cartilage deteriorates, the underlying bone becomes thickened and distorted. Movement becomes painful, so the muscles begin to decline from lack of use.

292
Q

Osteoarthritis symptoms

A

episodes of pain, swelling, and stiffness in the joint area, which sometimes results in knobby-looking joints.

293
Q

Common medications used for treatment of osteoarthritis include:

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
Naproxen (Naprosyn, Aleve)
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Prednisone (Prelone, Deltasone)
Morphine (MS Contin)
Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
Oxycodone (Oxycontin)

294
Q

Gouty arthritis

A

Is an inflammation of the joints caused by a metabolism defect. This defect results in an excessive amount of uric acid in the blood, which begins collecting in the joints and soft tissues surrounding the joints.
The excess uric acid can then crystalize in the joints, tendons and surrounding tissue, which causes extreme pain and inflammation.
Gout mostly affects big toes and the adjoining areas.

295
Q

Common medications used to treat gout include:

A

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Colchicine (Colcrys)
Ibuprofen (Motrin)
Indometacin (Indocin)
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Sulfinpyrazone (Anturane)

296
Q

Joint Dislocation

A

When a bone is displaced from its normal position in the joint, it’s called a dislocation.

297
Q

Joint Dislocation treatment

A

Reduction ( bone to be returned to its normal position by gentle force)
Dislocation causes the ligaments to stretch. After reduction, rest is required so that they can heal.

298
Q

Myalgia

A

Muscle pain (treated with muscle relaxants)

299
Q

Commonly used muscle relaxants include:

A

Baclofen (Lioresal)
Carisoprodol (Soma)
Chlorzoxazone (Parafon Forte)
Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Diazepam (Valium)

300
Q

Bursae

A

Small sacs filled with synovial fluid, located between bones and ligaments and between bones and muscles.
These fluid-filled sacs help in the smooth gliding of the tendons and muscles across bones

301
Q

Bursitis

A

The inflammation of one or more bursae.
Inflammation or infection of the bursae may cause pain, redness, swelling, and decreased muscle movement.

302
Q

Common medications to treat bursitis:

A

Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)
Indomethacin (Indocin)
Naproxen (Naprosyn)

303
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Caused by tissues that swell and compress the median nerve as it runs between the ligament and the bones and tendons of the wrist (the carpal tunnel).
The pinching of the nerve causes pain.

The symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome are tingling and intermittent numbness of part of the hand, pains that shoot up the wrist, and numbness or weakness of the thumb and one or more fingers.

304
Q

Treatment carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Anti-inflammatory and pain medications are commonly used to treat pain and discomfort; severe cases may require surgical manipulation of the joint.

305
Q

Peripheral

A

Organs or body part that are situated away from the center of the body

306
Q

Keratin

A

A non-soluble hard protein found in the outermost layer of the skin, nails and hair

307
Q

Melanocytes

A

Melanin producing cells found in the skin, hair and eyes

308
Q

Melanin

A

Dark brown or black pigment that gives color to your skin, hair, and eyes

309
Q

Contagious

A

Infections and viruses that can be transmitted or spread from one person to another

310
Q

Scab

A

The hardening of the skin surface after wound healing

311
Q

Erosion

A

The pressure of wearing away or wasting away of the skin surface, usually due to pressure and friction

312
Q

Retinoid

A

The class of medications that are derivatives of Vitamin A and are used to treat certain skin diseases due to their ability to regulate skin cell growth.

313
Q

Imminosuppressants

A

Medications that suppress or decrease the effectivness of your body’s immune response; useful to treat skin disorders that are caused by your body’s hyperactive immune response to allergen

314
Q

Cartilage

A

A firm, flexible, and elastice connective tissue that conneccts many tissues and organs in your body; not as hard as bones but stiffer and firmer than muscles

315
Q

Ligaments

A

Dense bands of connective tissue that connect bones to bones at joints

316
Q

Tendon

A

A dense band of connective tissue that connects bones to muscle

317
Q

Necrosis

A

Premature death of the living cells or tissues resulting from an irreversible damage

318
Q

Amputation

A

The surgical process of removing a deceased or necrotic limb or part of a limb;
a preventative measure to stop the spread of the disease to healthy tissue

319
Q

Asymptomatic

A

A disease that has no apparent symptoms

320
Q

Antineoplastic Medications

A

Medications used to treat cancer; also referred to as chemotherapy medications

321
Q

excoriation

A

loss of skin tissue due to chemicals, trauma, or burns to the affected area of the skin.

322
Q

avulsion

A

The forcible tearing away of a body part by trauma or surgery

323
Q

Which of the following medications is used to treat fungal infections?
Diflucan
Valtrex
Bactroban
Elimite

A

Diflucan

324
Q

Which term describes the outermost layer of the skin?

A

Epidermis

325
Q

Which of the following diseases is a systemic autoimmune disorder?
Osteomyelitis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Muscle spasms
Gout

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

326
Q

Which of the following terms describes a musculoskeletal disorder that’s characterized by decrease in total bone mass?
Joint dislocation
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Osteoporosis

327
Q

What is the brand name of Cephalexin?
Cipro
Vancocin
Zithromax
Keflex

A

Keflex

328
Q

What is the generic name for Imuran?
Allopurinol
Adalimumab
Azithromycin
Azathioprine

A

Azathioprine

329
Q

Which of the following terms describe the condition of bone infection?
Arthritis
Bursitis
Osteomyelitis
Dermatitis

A

Osteomyelitis

330
Q

Which of the following types of injuries results from tearing of one or more ligaments?
Spasms
Sprain
Strain
Bursitis

A

Sprain

331
Q

Which term describes a hard protein present in the cells of the epidermis, nails, and hair that’s both waterproof and a barrier to pathogens and chemicals?
Melanin
Sebum
Collagen
Keratin

A

Keratin

332
Q

Which term describes a protective response of your body to a foreign pathogen resulting in hives, rash, and itching?
Infection
Inflammation
Erythema
Allergy

A

Allergy

333
Q

The humerus bone is located in which part of your body?
Upper arm
Lower leg
Lower arm
Thigh

A

Upper arm

334
Q

The superficial loss of the skin tissue due to trauma, chemicals, or burns is called?
Abrasion
Avulsion
Excoriation
Laceration

A

Excoriation

335
Q

Hydrocortisone, triamcinolone, and clobetasol belong to which of the following drug classes?
Immunosuppressants
Antibiotics
Corticosteroids
Retinoid

A

Corticosteroids

336
Q

Which of the following infections is caused by a parasite?
Eczema
Impetigo
Scabies
Psoriasis

A

Scabies

337
Q

Allopurinol is used to treat which of the following conditions?
Gout
Osteoporosis
Osteoarthritis
Muscle Pain

A

Gout

338
Q

Which term is another name for edema?

A

Swelling

339
Q

Which of the following medications is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
Alendronate
Cyclosporine
Premarin
Calcitonin

A

Cyclosporine

340
Q

Which is the generic name for Zyvox?
Linezolid
Ciprofloxacin
Indomethacin
Daptomycin

A

Linezolid

341
Q

____ is the generic name for Imuran.

A

Azathioprine

342
Q

____ are the type of cells in the skin that allow you to sense touch.

A

Nerve cells

343
Q

Cyclosporine is a/an _____ used to treat auto-immune diseases.

A

Immunosuppressive agent

344
Q

______ muscles work together with bones to allow body movement.

A

Skeletal

345
Q

_____ cells protect the body by swallowing foreign material such as bacteria.

A

Phagocytic

346
Q

_____ fibers provide elasticity to your skin.
Keratin
Collagen
Endometric
Sebaceous

A

Collagen

347
Q

_____ is a term describing a response to your body to a foreign pathogen.

A

Infection

348
Q

A strain is a tear in one or more

A

tendons

349
Q

Synarthroses is a category of ____
Joints
Ligaments
Tendons
Muscles

A

joints

350
Q

When the skin is exposed to the sun, it helps in synthesizing vitamin ___?

A

D

351
Q

Allergic reactions are commonly treated with?
Antihistamines
Statins
Blood thinners
Aspirin

A

Antihistamines

352
Q

A diagnosis of ____ means you have a decrease in total bone mass.
Joint dislocation
All arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis

A

Osteoporosis

353
Q

Combinations of steroids, antibiotics, antihistamines, and immunosuppressant drugs are available to treat?
Sprains
Eczema
Acne
Skin cancer

A

Eczema

354
Q

Skeleton systems can be divided into the two main categories of axial and ____ ?
Ventricular
Sagittal
Appendicular
Osteopathic

A

Appendicular

355
Q

A _____ is defined as a tear in a ligament when a joint twists beyond its normal range.
Spasm
Bursa
Strain
Sprain

A

Sprain

356
Q

The thorax is part of the ___ skeleton.
Sagittal
Osteopathic
Axial
Ventricular

A

Axial

357
Q

Eczema is more common in _____

A

Children

358
Q

Sebaceous glands secrete an oily substance called?
Chelation

A

Sebum

359
Q

Linezolid is an antibiotic used to treat serious infections, including an infection of the bones called _____?
Osteoarthritis
Endometriosis
Osteomyelitis
Osteopenia

A

Osteomyelitis

360
Q

_____ is the loss of skin due to burns.
Abrasion
Laceration
Trauma
Excoriation

A

Excoriation

361
Q
A