Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Med Surg 2 > Exam 2 Tutoring Notes > Flashcards

Exam 2 Tutoring Notes Flashcards

1
Q

alpha

A

vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

beta 1

A

increased heart rate, conduction and contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

beta 2

A

vasodilation of peripheral arteries and brohcnodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dopaminergic

A

dilation of renal and mesenteric arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

class 1

A

blocks sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

class 1A

A

may prolong QT and cause arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

class 2

A

blocks beta adrenergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

class 3

A

slows repolarization and increase duration of action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

class 4

A

blocks calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

preload

A

volume in ventricles at end of diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

preload
- decrease in

A

hemorrhagic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

preload
- increase

A

fluid bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

afterload

A

pressure in the ventricle has to generate to overcome resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

afterload
- decreased

A

septic shock
nipride
nitro
lasix
morphine
acei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

afterload
- increase

A

vasopressor (levophed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

will ACEI have reflex tachycardia

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what will ACEI delay/inhibit

A

ventricular remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

reflect tachycardia

A

due to a lowered BP, body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

contractility
- increased in

A

dobutamine (vasopressor, beta 1)
fluid bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

contractility
- decreased in

A

acidosis
beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

stroke volume

A

preload + contractility + afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

end diastolic volume

A

how much blood is in the ventricles before contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

LVEF

A

left ventricular ejection fraction
ratio of stroke volume to end diastolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

normal EF

A

over 55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

reduced/systolic
- EF

A

under 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

reduced/systolic
- treatment

A

hydralazine (lower BP)
nitrates (vasodilation)
- both reduce afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

persevered/diastolic EF

A

over 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

left sided

A

pulomonary symptoms such as cough, crackles, shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

right sided HF

A

peripheral symptoms such as edema, JVD, weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MAP formula

A

(DBP x2) + SBP
________________
3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

inotrope

A

contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

positive inotropic

A

dobutamine
epinephrine
dopamine
dig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

negative inotrope meds

A

verapamil
atenolol
clondaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

positive chronotropic medications

A

epinephrine
atropine
dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

negative chrono meds

A

metoprolol
dig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pulmonary edema

A

too much fluid in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

causes of pulmonary edema

A

heronin overdose
head injury
anterior wall MI
cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, central venous pressure pulmonary edema

A

25mgHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

treatment of pulmonary edema

A

lasix
morphine
CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What rhythms are epinephrine used in?

A

V-Fib, PEA and asystole
- pulsless Vtach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

adenosine used in what rhythm

A

PSVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

adenosine works

A

slows condition through AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

adenosine half life

A

very short

44
Q

monitor adenosine for

A

bradycardi

45
Q

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure and is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Before administering the furosemide to the patient, which laboratory result should the healthcare provider review?

A

potassium

46
Q

A patient who has a history of pulmonary valve stenosis tells the healthcare provider, “I don’t have a lot of energy anymore, and both of my feet get swollen in the late afternoon.” Which of these problems does the healthcare provider conclude is the likely cause of these clinical findings?

A

Right ventricular failure

47
Q

causes of tension pneumothorax

A

trauma
central line placement

48
Q

trachea will be deviated to what side
tension pneumo

A

opposite side of the injury

49
Q

breath sounds tension pneumothorax

A

absent on side of injury

50
Q

cheyne stokes respirations

A

CHF
advanced neuro issues
advanced pulmonary issues

51
Q

pulmonary embolism causes

A

hypoxia
tachycardia
chest pain

52
Q

HF in pulmonary embolism

A

right

53
Q

how to diagnose pulmonary embolism

A

CT

54
Q

saddle embolism

A

clot in bifurcation of the pulmonary artery

55
Q

what can be inserted for pulmonary embolism

A

IVC filter inserted through groin can catch future clots

56
Q

atelectasis

A

Alveolar collapse

57
Q

encourage what for atelectasis

A

encourage patients to sue incentive spirometer

58
Q

The patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would exhibit which of the following symptoms?

A

Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration

59
Q

mild oral yeast infection

A

rinse mouth with normal saline

60
Q

erythema following radiaiton

A

avoid using soap on area

61
Q

platelets under what should avoid invasive procedure

A

20,000

62
Q

filgrastim/neupogen how is it given

A

IV or SQ

63
Q

Filgrastim/Neupogen can be given at home?

A

yes SQ

64
Q

what does Filgrastim/Neupogen do

A

stimulates WBC production

65
Q

when to start Filgrastim/Neupogen

A

24 hour after chemo

66
Q

continue Filgrastim/Neupogen how long after starting

A

2 weeks after chemo induced nadir

67
Q

nadir

A

lowest neutrophil count

68
Q

ANC

A

absolute neutropenic count

69
Q

ANC under what are neutropenic precautions

A

500

70
Q

neutropenia

A

low neutrophils

71
Q

neutropenic precautions

A

no fresh fruit or flowers
private room

72
Q

paraneoplastic syndromes

A

different ways that immune system may react to the tumor

73
Q

SIADH

A

body is making too much ADHSI

74
Q

SIADH does what to soidum

A

low because body retains water

75
Q

SIADH symptoms

A

subtule mental changes, nausea, vomiting

76
Q

hypercalemai in what cander

A

lung

77
Q

venous thrombosis prevention

A

SCD and ambulation

78
Q

tumor lysis syndrome

A

cancerous cells are getting released into the bloodstream

79
Q

tumorlysis syndrome can cause

A

increase uric acid, potassium, phosphorus which can be hard on kidneys

80
Q

top priorities of tumor lysis syndrome

A

renal function and hydration status

81
Q

what is the pressure point for nausea

A

P6

82
Q

manitol does what

A

decreases ICP

83
Q

what do we need to do while giving mannitol

A

use filter

84
Q

factors that increase ICP

A

headaches
suctioning
coughing
sneezing

85
Q

ICP should not be what for extended peroid of time

A

20

86
Q

normal ICP

A

0-15

87
Q

earlier sign of increasing ICP is

A

change LOC

88
Q

later sign of Increase ICP

A

change in pupils

89
Q

what do we do for increase ICP

A

elevate HOB

90
Q

issue where half of the vision is reduced

A

homonymous hemianopsia

91
Q

What is the most probable cause of decreased level of consciousness related to a metabolic disorder?

A

HHS

92
Q

cushings triad

A

widened pulse pressure (systolic hypertension)
bradycardia
irregular respirations

93
Q

uncle herination

A

medical part of temporal lobe protrudes over the tensorial edge as a result of increased ICP

94
Q

uncal herianation leads to

A

cushings triad

95
Q

diffuse axonal injury

A

rotational injury resulting in severe brain injury
leads to coma

96
Q

testing for responsiveness

A

no sternal rub
* use trapezius squeeze

97
Q

tell tale signs of basilar skull fracture

A

raccoon eyes
battle sign
halo

98
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia

A

-Occurs in spinal cord injury patients
-Could be due to pain, distended bladder or rectum
-Causes sweating and high blood pressure

99
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia TX

A

Sit the patient up, evaluate possible causes (Do a bladder scan, ask about last BM, any tight clothing, maybe they just need to be repositioned)

keep assessing/evaluating BP

100
Q

A white female client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Her history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and iron deficiency anemia. Which history finding is a risk factor for CVA?

A

Obesity

101
Q

modifiable vs nonmodifable

A
102
Q

A male client is having a tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first?

A

take measure to prevent injury

103
Q

A female client with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). What should the nurse do when preparing the client for this test?

A

determine allergies

104
Q
A
105
Q

a fib

A

heparin or diltiazem

106
Q

cardioversion for afib

A

depends on time

107
Q

pneumonia

A

good side down

Med Surg 2 (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions