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2w051 e6 study guide version M05 > 2w051 Module 1 > Flashcards

2w051 Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the management of the CFETP?

A
  1. AFCFM.
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2
Q

What topics are discussed during a utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

A

Career field trends, new munitions, new training requirements, and needed changes to the current CFETP.

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3
Q

What is the minimum length of time a trainee must spend in on-the-job training
before being upgraded to the 5-skill level?

A

12 months

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4
Q

What type of degree can munitions airmen obtain through the CCAF?

A

Associate in Applied Science Degree in Munitions Systems Technology.

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5
Q

Why would a journeyman who has previously completed his/her CDCs continue to
use them?

A

To prepare for WAPS testing.

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6
Q

What is the most used section of the CFETP?

A

The STS.

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7
Q

What web-based program is used by munitions units for tracking an individual’s
training records?

A

The myTraining

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8
Q

How are MAJCOMs located in the US organized differently than MAJCOMs
overseas?

A
  1. On a functional basis in the United States; on a geographical basis overseas.
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9
Q

A supported command develops support plans and annexes for contingency
operations specifically for whom?

A

Combatant commanders.

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10
Q

During contingency operations, who establishes lower echelon ammunition control
points?

A

MAJCOMS.

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11
Q

What ammunition entity supports smaller geographic areas within the theater?

A

RACP.

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12
Q

Which MAJCOM is responsible for munitions sustainment?

A

AFMC (Air Force Marterial Command)

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13
Q

What is the biggest center that the AFMC operates?

A

GACP( Global Ammunition Control point)

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14
Q

What is the primary mission of the Global Ammunition Control Point Munitions
Division?

A

To execute product support management and supply management for USAF munitions and
related assets.

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15
Q

Which organization/agency operates the TMCP?

A

The GACP Armament Division located at Robins AFB.

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16
Q

List the command structure of a typical wing in descending order.

A

Wing, group, squadron, flight, section, and element.

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17
Q

Which type of wing is capable of self-support in functional areas like maintenance,
supply, and munitions?

A

Operational wing.

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18
Q

Which organization is a level just below the wing with approximately 400 to 1,000
people?

A

Group.

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19
Q

How is a typical munitions unit broken down?

A

Into three sections—production, systems, and materiel; may also have a total of nine
elements.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of the logistics system?

A

To create and sustain force generation capabilities whenever and wherever needed to conduct
military operations. On the broadest level, logistics is a key aspect of program management to
acquire and sustain weapons systems

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21
Q

If a maintenance squadron exceeds 700 authorized positions, who may authorize it to be split up into an equipment maintenance squadron and a component maintenance squadron?

A

MAJCOM

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22
Q

What organizational section/element monitors and assesses the quality of maintenance activities?

A

QA (Quality Assurance)

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23
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the central TO file?

A

QA Personal

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24
Q

Who appoints personnel authorized to process, ship, and receive AA&E?

A

Squadron commander.

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25
Q

Who must select and appoint munitions inspectors?

A

Munitions supervision.

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26
Q

What is the title of the person who is responsible for the effective management of
the munitions stockpile?

A

MASO

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27
Q

Who must appoint the TICMS system administrators?Who must appoint the TICMS system administrators?

A

MASO

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28
Q

Who verifies that all the element master training plans cover peacetime and
contingency tasks?

A

Munitions section/flight chief.

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29
Q

Who has overall responsibility to enforce supply discipline in a typical munitions
element?

A

Element NCOIC.

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30
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section assembles, disassembles, delivers,
inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and
dispensers?

A

Production section.

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31
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section plans, schedules, controls, and directs munitions activities and in-processes accountable transactions in TICMS when relayed from other munitions activities?

A

Systems section

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32
Q

Munitions control personnel notify security forces of what non-emergency information?

A

Movements or facility content changes that affect security classification or risk category

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33
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section stores, handles, inspects, ships, receives, accomplishes local dispositions, coordinates transportation, and accounts for conventional munitions, containers, dispensers, and training items?

A

Materiel section.

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34
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what element performs quality control checks, validates, and files all accountable munitions documents?

A

Munitions operations element.

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35
Q

What is an OPLAN?

A

Any plan, except for the single integrated operational plan, for the conduct of military
operations.

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36
Q

Within which annex listed in the OPLAN would you find nonnuclear munitions
requirements?

A

Annex D, Logistics.

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37
Q

What does the BSP translate?

A

The BSP translates major command operation planning concepts into base-level capabilities to
support forces.

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38
Q

Why does munitions supervision develop the MEP?

A

Munitions flight supervision develops the MEP to provide detailed guidance for conducting
munitions operations.

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39
Q

What are the five phases of deliberate planning?

A

(1) Initiation.
(2) Concept development.
(3) Plan development.
(4) Plan review.
(5) Supporting plans.

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40
Q

When developing a munitions employment plan, what is the most efficient way to identify resources available at a deployed location?

A

Specific data can be retrieved from on-site personnel or via a site survey.

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41
Q

What is the formula used to compute the daily consumption rate of munitions for an OPLAN?

A

Primary aircraft authorization X sortie rate X standard configuration load X expenditure per
sortie factor.

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42
Q

What four orders are used to direct preparation, planning, deployment, and execution of plans in response to crises?

A

(1) Warning order.
(2) Planning order.
(3) Alert order.
(4) Execute order.

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43
Q

What order initiates the supporting and supported command to develop a course of action?

A

The WARNORD.

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44
Q

When is an ALERTORD issued?

A

When the situation requires continued execution planning after the warning or planning order
is issued.

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45
Q

Who is authorized to issue the EXORD?

A

The Secretary of Defense.

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46
Q

Who within your unit ensures personnel assigned to a deployment meet eligibility
and training criteria?

A

UDM Unit Deployment Manager

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47
Q

What information can be found on an attached MSL for a palletized load?

A

TCN, SRAN, DoDAAC, dimensions, weight, and point of contact.

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48
Q

What type of inspection is the foundation of the AFIS?

A

Internal inspection.

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49
Q

Who typically performs external inspections for a unit within a wing?

A

Outside agencies, like MAJCOM IG teams.

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50
Q

To whom can the MICT communicate discrepancies?

A

Throughout the chain of command from supervisors to the secretary of the Air Force.

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51
Q

From what media or location can MICT be accessed?

A

The AF Portal, or by going straight to the URL web address.

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52
Q

What do protection levels do for Air Force resources?

A

Identifies specific items you must secure and the level of security dedicated to those resources.

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53
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction,
misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of
the US?

A

PL2

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54
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction,
misuse, or compromise would damage the US war-fighting capability?

A

PL3

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55
Q

Name the two security areas where munitions airmen will likely perform his/her
duties.

A

Restricted areas and controlled areas.

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56
Q

What is required for an individual to gain access into a restricted area?

A

Specific written permission under the authority of the commander and positive identification
for entry control procedures (e.g., security badge/AF Form 1199, entry authority list).

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57
Q

What resources are generally stored within a controlled area?

A

PL4 resources (e.g., category I, II, or III sensitive conventional arms, ammunition, and
explosives).

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58
Q

Give an example of when a national defense area may be used.

A

Any one of the following:
(1) Unplanned emergency dispersal of aircraft to civilian airports.
(2) Emergency landings of aircraft carrying nuclear weapons.
(3) Temporarily stopped nuclear weapon ground convoys.
(4) Aircraft crashes or other unplanned emergency events.

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59
Q

Where do authorized individuals go to gain access to a secure area?

A

Through an ECP.

60
Q

What munitions items are assigned a controlled inventory item code (CIIC), and what
is the intended purpose of these codes?

A

All munitions items are assigned a CIIC; to identify the degree of security that must be applied
to an item while the item is in storage or in transit.

61
Q

What are the four categories of the CIICs?

A

Classified, sensitive, pilferable, and unclassified.

62
Q

Who has worldwide management responsibility for a specific munitions item and is
the only one who can change the CIIC for the applicable item?

A

The item manager.

63
Q

What type of items fall into the sensitive category, and what type of protection and
control is required?

A

Includes such items as narcotics/controlled substances, precious metals, high value assets,
and hazardous items (e.g., ammunition, explosives, demolition material). This type of material
requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations.

64
Q

When an item is assigned a pilferable code, what does that indicate about the item?

A

That the item has a ready resale value or civilian utility application and is especially subject to
theft.

65
Q

What risk category includes explosive hand or rifle grenades?

A

High risk category II.

66
Q

What are the two conditions required for an OPSEC vulnerability?

A

(1) There is a weakness that could reveal critical information.
(2) There is an adversary with both the intent and the capability to exploit that weakness (i.e., a
threat).

67
Q

What are three operations indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Any three of the following:
(1) Stereotyped activities such as test preparations and range closures.
(2) Abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules.
(3) Increased telephone calls, conferences, and longer working hours (including weekends).
(4) Rehearsals of operations/exercises.
(5) Unusual or increased trips and conferences by senior officials.

68
Q

What are three communications indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Any three of the following
(1) Use of specialized and unique communications equipment.
(2) Changes to power sources.
(3) Increases and decreases in communications traffic.
(4) Call signs.
(5) Transmitter locations.

69
Q

What are three administrative support indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Any three of the following:
Military orders.
Distinctive emblems, logos, and other markings on personnel, equipment.
Supplies.
Transportation arrangements.
Schedules.
Orders.
Flight plans.
Duty rosters.
Leave cancellations.

70
Q

What are three logistics and maintenance support indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Any three of the following:
Unique sized and shaped boxes, tanks, and other containers.
Prepositioned equipment.
Technical representatives.
Maintenance activity.
Unique or special commercial services.
Deviations of normal procedures.
Physical security arrangements.

71
Q

What are the major goals of the AF nuclear surety program?

A

To achieve maximum safety consistent with operational requirements; to maintain our record of
zero accidental or unauthorized nuclear yields and to reduce the potential for, and the possible
effects of, nuclear mishaps.

72
Q

What provides the necessary direction and procedures for implementing a personnel
reliability program?

A

DoDI 5210.42, Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Assurance

73
Q

What are the two PRP positions?

A

Critical and controlled.

74
Q

Who is responsible for the certification of personnel into the PRP?

A

The certifying official (commander).

75
Q

What are at least three mandatory selection requirements a person must meet prior
to being placed in a PRP position.

A

(1) Meet the minimum standard of “S-1” of the physical profile series. The S stands for
“psychiatric,” and the 1 indicates “no psychiatric disorder.”
(2) Have the technical competence needed to perform the duties assigned.
(3) Have the required security clearance or investigation.
(4) Have a positive attitude toward nuclear weapons duty and the objectives of the PRP.
(5) Must not be under consideration for separation for cause, under courts-martial charges,
or awaiting civilian trial for felony charges.
(6) Be a US citizen or legal US national.
(7) Must not have a history of drug abuse.

76
Q

What are the requirements for individuals who make up a two-person concept team?

A
  1. Individuals are certified under PRP, know the nuclear surety requirements of the task they
    perform, can promptly detect an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure, have successfully
    completed nuclear surety training, and are designated to perform the required task.
77
Q

What are the team member’s responsibilities in the two-person concept?

A

To enforce the two-person concept until relieved by authorized personnel or until the nuclear
weapon or critical component is secured, take immediate, positive steps to prevent or stop
incorrect procedures or unauthorized acts, and report deviations immediately to the appropriate
supervisor.

78
Q

When are you authorized to deviate from the two-person concept?

A

(1) When the nuclear weapon system safety rules specifically authorize a deviation.
(2) During an emergency that presents an immediate threat to the safety of personnel.

79
Q

What are three personnel restrictions to watch for while performing two-person
duties?

A

(1) Two interim-certified individuals may not form a two-person concept team.
(2) A person who does not qualify as a member of a two-person concept team may enter a nolone
zone to perform a task only if escorted by a two-person concept team.
(3) Entry controllers may not form a two-person concept team with people inside the no-lone
zone.

80
Q

What is a no-lone zone?

A

An area where no lone individual is authorized and where the two-person concept must be
enforced because it contains nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon systems, or critical components.

81
Q

What reporting flag word is used to identify nuclear weapon safety deficiencies that
do not fall into the accident or incident categories?

A

Dull Sword.

82
Q

What events or conditions involving nuclear weapons should be reported as a Dull
Sword?

A

(1) Minor damage to a nuclear component resulting from errors committed during assembly,
testing, loading, or transporting while in Air Force custody.
(2) Malfunction, failure, or anomaly that results in damage to nuclear weapons systems due
to sources of electrical energy (lightning, over voltage, power fluctuations).
(3) Exposure of nuclear weapons or nuclear components to any abnormal environment
(earthquakes, floods, tornados, etc.) that would question item’s serviceability.
(4) Damage, malfunction, failure, or irregularity to items listed in the Master Nuclear
Certification List.

83
Q

Which items are most often reported as a Dull Sword from the AMMO community?

A

Nuclear certified support equipment such as: vehicles, trailers, and forklifts.

84
Q

Where does the authority originate for the AF to develop its mishap prevention
program?

A

Federal law and DoD directives and instructions.

85
Q

Wing Safety is usually composed of what two offices at a typical AF installation?

A

Ground safety and weapons safety.

86
Q

Who monitors, controls, and evaluates the effectiveness of explosive and munitions
safety programs for the installation?

A

The weapons safety representative.

87
Q

Who is responsible for enforcing safety requirements and standards within their
specific area or activity?

A

Supervisors.

88
Q

Who is responsible for understanding and observing the safety standards that have
been established to prevent injury or damage to equipment and property?

A

Everyone.

89
Q

What are the two major categories of human factors contributing to hazards in the
work place?

A

Mental and physical.

90
Q

What is the best way to reduce back injuries caused from lifting?

A

Reduce exposure.

91
Q

Explain the main purpose of vegetation control.

A

Limit the probability of combustible vegetation causing an unacceptable fire hazard to munitions in storage.

92
Q

What is the fire extinguisher requirement for an explosive laden vehicle?

A

Provide each explosive laden vehicle used for transport at least two portable 2A:10BC rated
extinguishers.

93
Q

What should you avoid when working in a location that requires handling electrically initiated explosive devices/munitions?

A

materials that
have high static generating characteristics (e.g., polyester, microfiber).

94
Q

Preferably how many seconds away from a potential chemical hazard should an
emergency eyewash unit be?

A

No more than 10 seconds

95
Q

Ammunition and explosives fall under what class of the DoD hazard classification
system?

A

Class 1.

96
Q

What criteria is used to subdivide ammunition and explosives into hazard classes?

A

Based on the nature of hte hazard and its potential for injury or damage.

97
Q

What are the principle hazards of hazard class/division 1.1?

A

Blast and mass detonation.

98
Q

What type of items fall into hazard class 6 of the DoD hazard classification system?

A

“Chemical items” to include toxic, poisonous, and infectious substances.

99
Q

Name four basic principles to follow when using technical orders.

A
  1. (1) Know which technical orders are available to you.
    (2) Have the technical orders on hand and open when performing a task.
    (3) Know how to navigate through the TO for locating information.
    (4) Have a general understanding of all applicable cautions, warnings, and notes.
100
Q

Which TO will help you find another TO by using an alphabetical listing?

A

TO 00-5-18.

101
Q

What are the three types of deficiency reports for a TO?

A

(1) Emergency.
(2) Urgent.
(3) Routine.

102
Q

Which TO will you find detailed instructions for preparing an AFTO Form 22?

A

TO 00-5-1

103
Q

What are the four qualifications a supervisor must have with regards to explosives
safety?

A

(1) Be knowledgeable of all the hazards involved in the operation.
(2) Ability to convey emergency procedures to the workers and visitors.
(3) Know what steps to take when abnormal conditions arise.
(4) Qualified to perform and/or train associated tasks.

104
Q

What is the basic concept of explosives safety?

A

Preventing the premature, unintentional, or unauthorized initiation of explosives and devices
containing explosives and minimizing the effects of explosions, combustion, toxicity, and any
other harmful effects.

105
Q

What is the purpose behind the development of local written explosive operations
procedures?

A

To give detailed guidance when explosives operations are not covered in sufficient detail by
other standard publications, such as technical orders or MAJCOM OIs.

106
Q

What is the minimum withdrawal distance of HC/D 1.2 items involved in a fire?

A

2,500 feet.

107
Q

To what distance should non-essential personnel evacuate to during an explosive
operation mishap that does not involve a fire?

A

At least 300 feet.

108
Q

Besides the aerospace vehicle (missile) itself, what other sources of mishaps are
involved with missile operations?

A

Ground support, operational equipment, personnel, and the operational environment.

109
Q

Why are forward firing ordnances so hazardous?

A

Because of their directional response and potential long-range if inadvertently activated on the
ground.

110
Q

What does INRAD refer to?

A

Refers to the ionizing radiation emitted from the radioactive materials in the components of a
nuclear weapon. It is the radiation inherent to the design of nuclear weapons.

111
Q

Who must comply with the ALARA concept?

A

Units with a nuclear contingency or limited nuclear mission.

112
Q

When engineering design cannot reduce radiation exposure to acceptable levels,
what other methods are used?

A

Personal protective procedures and administrative controls (such as time restrictions).

113
Q

What are four ways to reduce the time spent near weapons?

A

(1) Plan the work to be performed before the start of the operation.
(2) Gather necessary tools, tech data, and materials needed for the work.
(3) Avoid any unnecessary work near the weapons.
(4) Consolidate work requirements to minimize the total time required in the nuclear weapons
maintenance areas.

114
Q

When should the crew chief ensure that a pre-task safety briefing is given to
assigned workers?

A

Before the start of any munitions’ operation.

115
Q

Name at least two positions held in a typical explosives operation.

A
  1. Crew chief.
  2. Operator.
  3. Spotter.
  4. Inspector.
  5. Assembler/crew member.
116
Q

Primarily who should the crew chief notify during an explosives operation
emergency?

A

Munitions control.

117
Q

Which publication identifies specific item hazards for munitions and must be readily
available?

A

The item TO.

118
Q

What is the cardinal principle of explosives safety?

A

Expose the minimum number of people—to the minimum amount of explosives—for the
minimum amount of time consistent with safe and efficient operations.

119
Q

What information should be collected from the TICMS before starting an explosives
operation to help fill out the pre-task safety briefing, and used to inform munitions
control?

A

Item’s net explosive weight (NEW); the current NEW at the location; the maximum NEW
allowed at the location; the fire symbol at the location and the compatibility codes at the location.

120
Q

Who has the responsibility to keep government property operational and in the best
possible condition?

A

All Air Force members.

121
Q

What should be done with excess serviceable items from your work center?

A

Turn in to base supply; if no one within DoD needs item, turn it into DLA and/or demil per
authorized disposition instructions.

122
Q

What are two requirements a reusable container must meet before it is considered
usable?

A
  1. Protect serviceable items against natural and induced environments and physical damage.
    Protect unserviceable items against further deterioration when returned to the depot or
    manufacturer.
  2. Be capable of being opened and closed without impairing the container’s ability to provide
    its original level of protection.
  3. Endure the shipping, handling, and storage environment for the number of trips required to
    yield the lowest total packaging, maintenance, storage, and transportation costs for the
    expected lifetime of the item it protects.
  4. Have all its components and be in good repair
123
Q

Long-life containers should withstand at least how many trips?

A

100

124
Q

When does a reusable munitions container lose its identity?

A

When it contains munitions or missile items and becomes an integral part of the asset stored
within.

125
Q

How many spare munitions containers should a unit retain?

A

Enough to break down all built-up complete rounds.

126
Q

What is the purpose of maintenance data documentation (MDD) collection

A

To provide managers at all levels with information about jobs performed by each unit or work
center.

127
Q

Where would you look to find rules and procedures concerning data management?

A

TO 00-20-2, AFI 21 series, system user manuals, and MAJCOM implementing directives.

128
Q

Name the MDD system used at most bases to document daily maintenance actions.

A

Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

129
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring all maintenance documentation is complete and
accurate?

A

The performing work center supervisor.

130
Q

What are the three main types of maintenance performed on munitions equipment?

A

(1) Preventive.
(2) Periodic.
(3) Unscheduled maintenance.

131
Q

What type of maintenance is performed after a specified period of miles or hours of
operation are compiled against a vehicle or piece of equipment?

A

Preventive.

132
Q

What type of maintenance is performed after a specified period of time (e.g., 30,
180, 360 days)?

A

Periodic.

133
Q

What type of maintenance is performed when it is not predicted, planned, or
programmed?

A

Unscheduled

134
Q

What three locations on the AFTO Form 244 are name entries required?

A

In the “DISCOVERED BY,” “CORRECTED BY”, and “INSPECTED BY” blocks.

135
Q

What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 95?

A

To provide a method of maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions for
support and training equipment and other components designated by higher authority (e.g.,
MAJCOM and the LG).

136
Q

What information is recorded on the AFTO Form 244?

A

Maintenance, inspection, and historical data for support and training equipment. It documents
discrepancies, corrective actions, serviceability, and inspection status.

137
Q

What is the purpose of red symbols on the AFTO Form 244?

A

To alert users and maintenance technicians as to the status of an item of equipment.

138
Q

Who is authorized to sign-off/clear a red symbol on an AFTO Form 244 for a specific
task?

A

Any individual qualified/certified for the task and knowledgeable of the TOs required to
complete the task.

139
Q

What’s the definition of reliability as referred to in a maintenance organization?

A

The ability of a system and its parts to perform its mission without failure, degradation, or
demand on the support system.

140
Q

What is the primary purpose of the AIM and AGM RAMS?

A

To provide an accurate means of assessing present performance levels, as well as predicting
future reliability standards for Air Force AIM and AGM assets.

141
Q

What are the three levels of maintenance concepts under which the USAF operates?

A

(1) Organizational.
(2) Intermediate.
(3) Depot.

142
Q

Whose mission is to maintain an operational AIM and& AGM inventory?

A

Warner Robins Air Logistics Center (WR-ALC).

143
Q

What is the TMRS used for?

A

To track and report important information about tactical missiles and missile components. Also,
to give the missile maintenance or storage manager visibility of missile and component
identification, inspection, TCTOs, time change, serviceability, and location data.

144
Q

Which specific munitions are tracked in TMRS?

A

AIM-9, AIM-120, AGM-65, AGM-88, and GBUs.

145
Q

What does the “Missile view” program/menu within TMRS allow you to do?

A

To view complete missile records, component data, PE data, IPI data, TCTO data, or locations
of missiles.

146
Q

What can you refer to anytime you need more information or specific guidance on
procedures while using TMRS?

A

The TMRS user’s manual by pressing the F5 key while in the system.

147
Q
A

2w051 e6 study guide version M05 (6 decks)

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