Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following illustrates a purpose for allocating costs to cost​ objects?

A. to defer income and reduce taxes payable

B. to provide information for economic decisions

C. to determine employee benefit costs

D. to evaluate managers and employees

E. to reduce competition

A

B. to provide information for economic decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Deciding whether to make a component part or to purchase​ it, would be an example of which cost allocation​ purpose?

A. to determine​ employee’s wages

B. to measure income and assets for reporting to external parties

C. to provide information for economic decisions

D. to motivate managers

E. to motivate employees

A

C. to provide information for economic decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The belief that a corporate division with higher sales ought to be allocated more of the​ company’s advertising costs because it must have derived more benefit from the expenditures than a division with lower​ sales, is an example of which criteria for cost allocation​ decisions?

A. fairness and equity

B. benefit received

C. benefits expended

D. ability to bear

E. causality

A

B. benefit received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Resource consumption accounting​ (RCA) employs an allocation procedure akin to a dual​-rate system. For each​ cost/resource pool, cost assignment rates for​ _______.

A. fixed and variable costs are based on budgeted quantities

B. fixed costs are based on actual quantity, while rates for variable costs are based on budgeted quantities

C. fixed costs are based on practical capacity supplied, while rates for variable costs are based on actual quantities

D. fixed costs are based on practical capacity supplied, while rates for variable costs are based on budgeted quantities

E. fixed and variable costs are based on actual output quantities

A

D. fixed costs are based on practical capacity supplied, while rates for variable costs are based on budgeted quantities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Benefits of the single​-rate method include​ _______.

A. fixed costs that are transformed into variable costs for user decision making

B. there is a stronger cause and effect relationship

C. the low cost of implementation

D. information that leads to outsourcing decisions that benefit the organization as a whole

E. signals regarding how variable and fixed costs behave differently

A

C. the low cost of implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The method that allocates costs in each cost pool using the same rate per unit is known as the​ _______.

A. dual-rate cost allocation method

B. single-rate cost allocation method

C. reciprocal cost allocation method

D. incremental cost allocation method

E. homogeneous cost allocation method

A

B. single-rate cost allocation method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The method that allocates each​ department’s budgeted costs to operating departments only is called the​ _______.

A. sequential method

B. reciprocal method

C. step-down method

D. direct method

A

D. direct method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a​ firm’s value​ chain, upstream costs are categorized as​ ________.

A. design costs

B. customer service costs

C. marketing costs

D. distribution costs

E. advertising costs

A

A. design costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which cost allocation method differentiates between variable and fixed​ costs?

A. heterogeneous method

B. single-rate method

C. fixed rate method

D. variable method

E. dual-rate method

A

E. dual-rate method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following does NOT apply to support​ departments?

A. A support department is an operating department.

B. To obtain accurate product costs requires the inclusion of support department costs.

C. Direct support costs are always traced, indirect support department costs are allocated.

D. Support departments create special accounting problems when they provide reciprocal support to each other.

E. An example of a support department would be a personnel department.

A

C. Direct support costs are always traced, indirect support department costs are allocated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A disadvantage of allocating fixed costs using a budgeted rate and actual usage is that​ _______.

A. changes in one department’s usage should not affect another department’s allocation

B. the allocation would capture the cause-and-effect relationship

C. variation in usage will result in variances that need to be managed

D. some organizations offer rewards to managers who make accurate forecasts

E. supplying division managers may be tempted underestimate usage when budgeting unit costs

A

E. supplying division managers may be tempted underestimate usage when budgeting unit costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The costs of unused capacity are highlighted when​ _______.

A. budgeted usage allocations are used

B. the dual-rate cost allocation method allocates fixed costs based on actual usage

C. practical capacity based allocations are used

D. actual usage based allocations are used

E. variable cost variances are evaluated

A

C. practical capacity based allocations are used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Benefits of the dual​-rate method include​ _______.

A. increased costs of implementation

B. information that leads to outsourcing decisions that benefit the organization as a whole

C. variable costs that are transformed into fixed costs for user decision making

D. avoidance of expensive analysis for categorizing costs as either fixed or variable

E. the low cost of implementation

A

B. information that leads to outsourcing decisions that benefit the organization as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which purpose of cost allocation is used to encourage sales representatives to push high​-margin products or​ services?

A. to motivate managers and other employees

B. to measure income and assets for reporting to external parties

C. to justify costs

D. to provide information for economic decisions

E. to compute reimbursement

A

A. to motivate managers and other employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning cost allocation in a multi​-product ​company?

A. When the indirect costs are fixed and each product is assembled sequentially, the causality criterion can guide the choice of a cost allocation base.

B. When the indirect costs are variable and each product is assembled sequentially, the causality criterion can guide the choice of a cost allocation base.

C. When the indirect costs are fixed and each product is not assembled sequentially, the causality criterion can guide the choice of a cost allocation base.

D. When the indirect costs are fixed and the products are produced jointly, it is possible to identify specific cause-and-effect relationships between work on an individual product and total costs incurred.

E. When the indirect costs are variable and each product is not assembled sequentially, the causality criterion can guide the choice of a cost allocation base.

A

E. When the indirect costs are variable and each product is not assembled sequentially, the causality criterion can guide the choice of a cost allocation base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

To discourage unnecessary use of a support​ department, management might

A. allocate a fixed amount of support department costs to each department regardless of use.

B. issue memos on useful services provided by the support department.

C. allocate support department costs based upon user department usage.

D. allocate only variable costs based on budgeted usage.

E. not allocate any support department costs to user departments.

A

C. allocate support department costs based upon user department usage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Under which of the following methods of cost allocation is there no distinction between fixed and variable​ costs?

A. fixed method

B. homogeneous method

C. dual-rate method

D. standard cost method

E. single-rate method

A

E. single-rate method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For the economic decision purpose:

A. period costs are not allocated.

B. costing is only related to product pricing.

C. the costs in all six business functions should be included.

D. costs for only one function is included.

E. only inventoriable costs under ASPE/IFRS should be included

A

C. the costs in all six business functions should be included.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fixed cost allocation rates should be determined using​ _______.

A. short-term expected usage

B. past production capacity

C. long-term expected usage

D. actual usage

E. short-term average usage

A

C. long-term expected usage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In a​ firm’s value​ chain, downstream costs are categorized as​ ________.

A. manufacturing quality control costs

B. research and development costs

C. customer service costs

D. design costs

E. production costs

A

C. customer service costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following methods of allocating support department costs is both simple and​ intuitive?

A. hybrid method

B. linear equation method

C. direct allocation method

D. reciprocal method

E. step-down method

A

C. direct allocation method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An advantage to using budgeted​ usage, rather than actual​ usage, for the allocation base is that​ _______.

A. ASPE/IFRS requires it for comparability to previous years

B. it is consistent with a short-run time horizon

C. management does not have to be accountable for actual costs since the system only deals with budgeted costs

D. variable costs are lower

E. user divisions will know their allocated costs in advance

A

E. user divisions will know their allocated costs in advance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is the first step in the cost​-allocation decision​ process?

A. Calculate the cost-allocation rate for each indirect cost pool.

B. Analyze the alternatives and select the best one for the denominator.

C. Identify the relevant indirect costs included in the cost pool(s) or numerator(s).

D. Identify the purpose of the cost allocation.

E. Identify the direct inputs that are already measured.

A

D. Identify the purpose of the cost allocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When choosing between using budgeted​ rates, and actual​ rates, which of the following is​ TRUE?

A. Actual rates let users know in advance what their costs are.

B. When budgeted rates are used, users must wait till the end of the budget period to know what their costs are.

C. With actual rates, a support department, rather than a user department, bears the risk of unfavourable cost variances.

D. Budgeted rates based on user department estimates may lead to outsourcing needed work, rather than relying on an internal support department.

E. Budgeted rates may help the manager of a support department to improve efficiency.

A

E. Budgeted rates may help the manager of a support department to improve efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following criteria subsidizes poor performers at the expense of the best​ performers?

A. benefits expended

B. benefit received

C. fairness and equity

D. causality

E. ability to bear

A

E. ability to bear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ben Tool Company is a tool manufacturer. Production capacity is 3,000 units per month; however, they are considering alternative ways to increase capacity to 3,500 units. One of the alternatives involves purchasing new equipment. In this alternative, there are two choices: machine A will provide increased capacity of 4,000 units per month, with unit costs of $14 at capacity, and machine B will increase capacity to 3,600 units per month with unit costs of $15 at capacity. Both machines are adequate since Ben’s does not intend to go beyond the 3,500 units per month level for the foreseeable future.

Relevant information for this decision includes __________.

A. whether other costs will change solely due to a capacity increase

B. excess capacity of either machine

C. Ben’s planned capacity utilization

D. the different unit cost of production between the two machines at their capacity levels

E. the different unit cost of production between the two machines at Ben’s planned capacity levels

A

E. the different unit cost of production between the two machines at Ben’s planned capacity levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Good Gameshop manufactures specialized board games. Management is attempting to search for ways to reduce costs and is considering two alternatives for an upcoming project of special games that must be delivered to the customer in 12 months’ time. Management agreed to the special project job as they have an idle plant that is scheduled for demolition 18 months from now, and either alternative will easily meet the delivery deadline.

Alternative 1 requires 10 machine operators and 2.5 individuals to handle direct materials. Employee pay averages $17.50 per hour and will increase to $18.50 at the mid-point (July 1) of next year. Each employee currently works 2,500 hours but will decrease to 2,400 hours if Alternative 2 is implemented. The second proposal only requires 8.5 workers.

Which of the following items of information are relevant to this decision?

A. the timing of the wage increase

B. hourly wage rates

C. the delivery deadline

D. the number of employees required in each alternative

E. property taxes for the idle plant

A

D. the number of employees required in each alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following would not be considered in a make or buy decision?

A. potential rental income from space occupied by production area

B. variable costs of production

C. qualitative factors

D. unchanged fixed costs

E. potential usage of manufacturing capacity

A

D. unchanged fixed costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A company has two manufacturing facilities: one in Alberta that produces a bulk chemical that it sells to many different retailers and one in Ontario that is dedicated to producing a specialty chemical for one client only. The annual profit from the single client is $150,000, and the profit from the other facility’s sales is $1,500,000 after allocating combined fixed costs based on units produced. Another company has offered to lease the Ontario facilities for $260,000.

Which of the following is TRUE?

A. The $260,000 is an opportunity cost of continuing to use the Ontario plant.

B. Incremental costs exceed incremental revenues if the plant is rented.

C. Incremental revenues exceed total costs if the plant is rented.

D. The company incurred a $260,000 opportunity cost for the past years, but this was not recorded on its books.

E. The company needs to determine the contribution margin for each product before making any decisions.

A

A. The $260,000 is an opportunity cost of continuing to use the Ontario plant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Koch Brothers purchased a new production machine for $200,000. It is capable of producing 400,000 units over its useful life, thus the manufacturer’s salesperson claimed the unit cost would only be $0.50. Koch’s own engineers recommended that the company acquire a machine that would have a unit cost of production of no more than $0.48 (with a $0.03 variance). A competitor of the vendor, who also was trying to sell Koch some equipment, claimed that the $0.50 is understated by $0.04 per unit. The total anticipated demand over the asset’s useful life is 300,000 units.
Relevant information includes ___________.

A. the fact that the $0.50 falls below the $0.48 + $0.03 variance

B. being able to produce at excess capacity

C. the $0.50 unit cost

D. the unit cost at Koch’s planned capacity utilization

E. the different unit costs of production between the two vendors’ machines

A

D. the unit cost at Koch’s planned capacity utilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The variation in total costs between two alternatives is known as __________.

A. predictable cost

B. differential cost

C. analyzed cost

D. expected cost

E. irrelevant cost

A

B. differential cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning opportunity costs?

A. They are relevant for the make/buy decision.

B. They require accounting journal entries.

C. They entail cash disbursements.

D. They are incorporated into formal financial accounting reports.

E. They entail cash receipts.

A

A. They are relevant for the make/buy decision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Past costs that are unavoidable and unchangeable are known as _____.

A. operating costs

B. sunk costs

C. product production costs

D. constraining costs

E. fixed overhead costs

A

B. sunk costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When considering a project that will require production using otherwise idle​ resources, which of the following are​ TRUE?

A. Only the variable costs of the project are relevant.

B. Avoidable fixed costs are irrelevant.

C. In the short​ run, even if revenue is less than the total costs of​ production, the project could help the​ company’s overall operating income.

D. Only financial factors should be considered.

E. The project should not be undertaken if total revenue from the project is less than the total costs of production.

A

C. In the short​ run, even if revenue is less than the total costs of​ production, the project could help the​ company’s overall operating income.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sunk costs​ ________.

A. are relevant

B. are differential

C. are evaluated to determine if they are relevant or not evaluating alternatives

D. have future implications

E. are irrelevant and ignored when evaluating alternatives

A

E. are irrelevant and ignored when evaluating alternatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following should management consider to avoid the pitfalls of relevant​-cost ​analysis?

A. Historic revenues and costs for items that differ according to alternatives should be considered.

B. Assume that all variable costs are relevant.

C. Assume that all fixed costs are irrelevant.

D. Consider all current revenues and costs.

E. Include any item of revenue or cost that is either an expected future revenue or expected future​ cost, and, differs between the alternatives.

A

E. Include any item of revenue or cost that is either an expected future revenue or expected future​ cost, and, differs between the alternatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following represents a qualitative​ factor?

A. the timing of variable costs

B. any nonfinancial factor

C. historical costs

D. an outcome that cannot be measured in numerical terms

E. relevant costs

A

D. an outcome that cannot be measured in numerical terms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The last step in the decision process is normally to​ _______.

A. make assumptions and predictions

B. perform quantitative analysis

C. choose alternatives

D. gather information

E. evaluate and explain outcomes

A

E. evaluate and explain outcomes

38
Q

When making​ decisions, it is best to use​ _______.

A. fixed costs that would be incurred

B. variable costs that would be incurred

C. average costs

D. relevant costs

E. unit​ cost, rather than total cost

A

D. relevant costs

39
Q

Unit cost data can mislead decisions by including irrelevant costs or by​ _______.

A. not computing unit costs at the relevant output level

B. computing administrative costs

C. including qualitative data

D. not computing fixed overhead costs

E. computing labour and materials costs only

A

A. not computing unit costs at the relevant output level

40
Q

Companies periodically confront decisions about discontinuing or adding branches or business segments. In order to determine the best course of​ action, a​ ________ should be performed in order to make the optimal decision.

A. relevant​-risks and relevant​-loss analysis

B. relevant capital and relevant cash flow analysis

C. relevant feasibility study

D. relevant risk assessment

E. relevant​-revenue and relevant​-cost analysis

A

E. relevant​-revenue and relevant​-cost analysis

41
Q

The feedback obtained in the decision process cannot affect​ _______.

A. the prediction method

B. implementation

C. future predictions

D. the decision model

E. past performance

A

E. past performance

42
Q

For make​-or​-buy ​decisions, relevant costs include​ _______.

A. incremental costs plus opportunity costs

B. variable costs plus fixed overhead

C. direct material costs plus direct labour costs

D. differential costs plus sunk costs

E. incremental costs plus fixed costs

A

A. incremental costs plus opportunity costs

43
Q

If Henry Inc.​ doesn’t use one of its limited resources in the best possible​ way, the lost contribution to income could be called​ ________.

A. a constraining factor

B. an alternative cost

C. a resource cost

D. an opportunity cost

E. a total alternative cost

A

D. an opportunity cost

44
Q

Which of the following costs are never relevant in the decision​-making ​process?

A. relevant costs

B. fixed costs

C. opportunity costs

D. historical costs

E. variable costs

A

D. historical costs

45
Q

Which of the following anticipated future costs always differ among alternative courses of​ actions?

A. relevant costs

B. indirect costs

C. historical costs

D. direct materials costs

E. direct labour costs

A

A. relevant costs

46
Q

Opportunity cost is a cost of capital for which of the following sources of​ funds?

A. short-term debt sold at a discount

B. preferred shares

C. internally generated cash flow

D. common shares

E. long-term debt

A

C. internally generated cash flow

47
Q

The income tax depreciation method referred to as CCA:

A. allows amortization over the asset’s useful life as determined by management.

B. provides an organization some flexibility in choosing a method of amortization.

C. ignores estimated salvage value.

D. allows a corporation some flexibility in choosing the class to which an asset is assigned.

E. only applies to businesses organized as corporations.

A

C. ignores estimated salvage value.

48
Q

When considering the net cash inflows resulting from a capital budgeting​ decision, taxes will:

A. increase the amount of the cash savings by (1 + tax rate).

B. reduce the amount of the cash savings by (1 + tax rate).

C. increase the amount of the cash savings by (1 - tax rate).

D. reduce the amount of the cash savings by (1 - tax rate).

E. increase the amount of the cash savings by the tax rate.

A

C. increase the amount of the cash savings by (1 - tax rate).

49
Q

In selecting capital​ projects, organizations choose:

A. the alternative that matches the RRR.

B. the alternative that provides benefits that exceed predicted costs by the greatest amount.

C. the alternative that has revenues that exceed its costs.

D. the alternative that has the highest revenues.

E. the alternative that has the longest time horizon, but also exceeds the RRR.

A

B. the alternative that provides benefits that exceed predicted costs by the greatest amount.

50
Q

When the present value of expected cash inflows from a project equals the present value of expected cash outflows of a​ project, the discount rate is the:

A. net present value rate.

B. inflation rate.

C. universal rate.

D. required rate.

E. internal rate of return.

A

E. internal rate of return.

51
Q

A​ project’s net present value is increased if:

A. the company’s net income is negative during the life of the project.

B. the CCA rate is increased.

C. the discount rate is increased.

D. the rate of inflation rises.

E. the CCA rate is decreased.

A

B. the CCA rate is increased.

52
Q

Which of the following is​ TRUE, concerning​ NPV?

A. When the NPV is​ positive, the project recovers the initial investment and earns a return greater than the RRR.

B. When the NPV is​ positive, the sum of the cash flows from the project equal the initial investment.

C. The project just recovers the initial​ investment, discounted by the hurdle rate.

D. The IRR is less than the RRR when the NPV is​ positive, after using the RRR as the discount rate.

E. When the NPV is​ negative, the sum of the cash flows from the project must also be negative.

A

A. When the NPV is​ positive, the project recovers the initial investment and earns a return greater than the RRR.

53
Q

The first step in the capital budgeting decision process model is to:

A. Identify potential capital investments that agree with the organization’s strategy.

B. Establish assumptions common for each potential capital investment.

C. Manage the control of non-quantitative factors.

D. Obtain appropriate sources of financing for investments.

E. Analyze the present value of future cash inflow and outflow and relevant qualitative factors.

A

A. Identify potential capital investments that agree with the organization’s strategy.

54
Q

The consequences of capital expenditures are:

A. quantitative and qualitative.

B. nonfinancial and irrelevant.

C. quantitative and financial.

D. appropriate and inappropriate.

E. qualitative and nonfinancial.

A

A. quantitative and qualitative.

55
Q

Which of the following methods utilizes discounted cash flows when analyzing potential capital​ expenditures?

​Methods:
1. Accrual accounting rate​-of​-return
2. Internal Rate of Return​ (IRR)
3. Payback Period
4. Net Present Value​ (NPV)

A. 1 and 3

B. 1 only

C. 1 and 2

D. 2 and 4

A

D. 2 and 4

56
Q

In situations where the required rate of return is not constant for each year of the​ project, it is advantageous to use:

A. sensitivity analysis.

B. the adjusted rate of return method.

C. the payback method.

D. the net present value method.

E. the internal rate of return method.

A

D. the net present value method.

57
Q

In capital budgeting​ decisions, relevant cash flows:

A. are expected future cash flows that do not differ between alternatives.

B. are actual cash flows that do not differ between alternatives.

C. are actual cash flows that differ between alternatives.

D. are expected future cash flows that differ between alternatives.

E. are past cash flows lost.

A

D. are expected future cash flows that differ between alternatives.

58
Q

If the net present value analyses of a project resulted in a positive value and the company does not accept the​ project, it may be assumed that:

A. an alternative project has a lower NPV.

B. the net initial investment cannot be recovered.

C. quantitative factors outweigh the benefit of the investment.

D. the return is greater than that required by the company.

E. qualitative factors outweigh the benefit of the investment.

A

E. qualitative factors outweigh the benefit of the investment.

59
Q

When all future cash inflows and outflows are discounted to the present using the required rate of​ return, the method used is:

A. discounted cash flow.

B. required rate of return.

C. capital budgeting.

D. payback method.

E. net present value.

A

E. net present value.

60
Q

A ​”what​-​if” technique that examines how a result will change if the original predicted data are not​ achieved, or if an underlying assumption​ changes, is called:

A. payback method.

B. sensitivity analysis.

C. net present value analysis.

D. internal rate of return analysis.

E. adjusted rate of return analysis.

A

B. sensitivity analysis.

61
Q

The net present value method is better than the internal rate of return because:

A. IRR focuses more on accounting income.

B. it considers the source of cash flows.

C. the NPV’s of different projects can be added together, and investments may have multiple required rates of return.

D. managers generally find the NPV method easier to understand.

E. it always yields the same result as IRR.

A

C. the NPV’s of different projects can be added together, and investments may have multiple required rates of return.

62
Q

In NPV​ analysis, if the IRR exceeds the RRR:

A. the NPV is positive when project cash flows are discounted at the IRR.

B. the project should be rejected.

C. the NPV is negative when project cash flows are discounted at the RRR.

D. the NPV is positive when project cash flows are discounted at the RRR.

E. the NPV will be negative (when discounted at the IRR).

A

D. the NPV is positive when project cash flows are discounted at the RRR.

63
Q

Which of the following are not considered in capital​-​budgeting?

A. recurring after-tax operating flows

B. initial machine investment

C. cash flow from current disposal of old machine

D. cash flow from terminal disposal of new machine

E. depreciation

A

E. depreciation

64
Q

The discount​ rate, hurdle​ rate, or​ (opportunity) cost of capital all refer to the:

A. required rate of return.

B. discounted cash flow.

C. internal rate of return.

D. payback period.

E. net present value.

A

A. required rate of return.

65
Q

Which of the following incorporates the amount of investment into the performance​ measure?

A. return on investment

B. dividend income

C. residual income

D. both residual income and return on investment

E. both dividend income and residual

A

D. both residual income and return on investment

66
Q

Keeping all other factors​ constant, which of the following would NOT cause an increase in the return on​ investment?

A. actions that decrease expense

B. actions that decrease investments

C. actions that increase revenues

D. actions that increase sales

E. actions that increase liabilities

A

E. actions that increase liabilities

67
Q

Which of the following performance measures is more likely to promote goal​ congruence?

A. contribution margin

B. inventory turnover

C. return on investment

D. residual income

E. marginal income

A

D. residual income

68
Q

What disadvantage is there in using ROI​ and/or RI as performance​ measures?

A. RI is measured in absolute dollars but ROI is in percentages.

B. A manager’s bonus will decrease when ROI decreases.

C. ROI may decrease when business expands if income does not increase in line with the new investment.

D. Imputed costs that are deducted in the RI calculation, are not recognized in accrual accounting, and are therefore not included in the operating figure used in calculating ROI.

E. RI and ROI are both single-period measures.

A

E. RI and ROI are both single-period measures.

69
Q

The most popular approach to incorporating the investment base into a performance measure is​ _______.

A. return on investment

B. residual income

C. economic value added

D. opportunity cost

E. income on return

A

A. return on investment

70
Q

The cost of capital that is recognized in a residual income calculation is also called the​ _______ cost.

A. operating income

B. cash accounting

C. incremental

D. opportunity

E. imputed

A

E. imputed

71
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the ROI performance​ measure?

A. Is also called the accounting rate of return.

B. The usual formulation is [total assets/ income].

C. Some companies use net assets (assets minus liabilities) as the numerator.

D. ROI is based on cash flow.

E. Net assets are sometimes used as the denominator, and net assets are sometimes used as the numerator.

A

A. Is also called the accounting rate of return.

72
Q

The DuPont method of profitability analysis is​ _______.

A. ROI x RI

B. ROI x WACC

C. ROI / WACC

D. TA - CL / operating income

E. [revenue / investment] x [income / revenue]

A

E. [revenue / investment] x [income / revenue]

73
Q

Which of the following approaches include investment in the performance​ measure?

A. ROI and ROS

B. ROS and RI

C. EVA and ROI

D. ROI and RI

E. ROI, EVA, and RI

A

E. ROI, EVA, and RI

74
Q

Most of a​ product’s life​-cycle costs are locked in by decisions made during the​ ________ business function of the value chain.

A. marketing

B. customer-service

C. design

D. manufacturing

E. research

A

C. design

75
Q

When the firm uses the target​-costing approach to​ pricing, the target cost per unit is the difference between the per unit target price and the per unit target​ _______.

A. contribution margin

B. gross margin

C. production costs

D. operating income

E. fixed costs

A

D. operating income

76
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning value​-​engineering?

A. The goal of value-engineering is to eliminate locked-in costs.

B. When and how costs are locked in are more important than when and how costs are incurred.

C. Value-engineering activities reduce both value-added and non-value-added costs.

D. After a product’s design has been value-engineered, costs are difficult to influence.

E. Value-engineering does not work when dealing with direct costs.

A

C. Value-engineering activities reduce both value-added and non-value-added costs.

77
Q

Target pricing is based on​ _______.

A. what customers are willing to pay

B. full product cost

C. variable manufacturing and nonmanufacturing costs

D. engineered cost

E. full manufacturing cost

A

A. what customers are willing to pay

78
Q

The strategy in which companies systematically evaluate all aspects of the value​-chain business functions with the objective of reducing costs to meet​ customers’ needs is referred to as​ _______.

A. designed-in costs

B. cost incurrence

C. value analysis

D. full costing

E. value engineering

A

E. value engineering

79
Q

For long​-run pricing​ decisions, using stable prices has the advantage of​ _______.

A. reducing the need to change cost structures frequently

B. increasing margins

C. helping build buyer-seller relationships

D. minimizing the need to monitor competitors prices frequently

E. reducing competition

A

C. helping build buyer-seller relationships

80
Q

When target costing and target pricing are used together​ _______.

A. target costs are higher than current costs because of inflation over time

B. the target price is set to undercut the competition

C. the target cost per unit is the estimated long-run price per unit that enables a product or service to achieve the target profit per unit

D. target price is the estimated price for a product or service that a potential customer will be willing to pay

E. the target cost is established first, then the target price

A

D. target price is the estimated price for a product or service that a potential customer will be willing to pay

81
Q

When are a​ product’s direct materials cost most likely to be locked​ in?

A. when the materials are used in production

B. when materials are received from the supplier

C. when purchasing commits to buying the materials

D. when the bill for the materials is paid

E. when the product is designed

A

E. when the product is designed

82
Q

The target pricing approach is easier when​ _______.

A. products highly differentiated and the consumer life cycle is longer

B. products are not well differentiated and the consumer life cycle is shorter

C. products are not well differentiated and the consumer life cycle is longer

D. products highly differentiated and the consumer life cycle is shorter

E. little is known about market factors

A

C. products are not well differentiated and the consumer life cycle is longer

83
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE of costs and pricing​ decisions?

A. Companies supply products as long as there is a demand for the product in the market regardless of the price at which the products are sold.

B. Companies get profit from selling products only when they are the price makers.

C. Companies supply products as long as the price the customer is willing to pay for their products exceeds the price that is charged by the competitor.

D. Companies supply products as long as the revenues from selling the additional units exceed the cost of producing them.

A

D. Companies supply products as long as the revenues from selling the additional units exceed the cost of producing them.

84
Q

Eliminating non​-value added activities by reducing their cost​ drivers, is referred to as​ _______.

A. price engineering

B. cost incurrence costing

C. value-added pricing

D. value engineering

E. value-added activity based pricing

A

D. value engineering

85
Q

The three major influences on pricing decisions are​ _______.

A. competition, demand, and production efficiency

B. continuous improvement, customer satisfaction, and a dual internal/external focus

C. economic, qualitative, and costs

D. variable costs, fixed costs, and mixed costs

E. competition, costs, and customers

A

E. competition, costs, and customers

86
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of long​-run ​pricing?

A. It is generally a function of the market factors, and the cost involved in production is generally not a consideration.

B. It is fixed at a level that recovers the variable costs of the company and a predetermined profit markup.

C. It is based only on internal requirements like cost and estimated rate of return since, in the long run, these requirements are the driving factors of any organization.

D. It is a strategic decision designed to build long-run relationships with customers based on stable and predictable prices.

A

D. It is a strategic decision designed to build long-run relationships with customers based on stable and predictable prices.

87
Q

Decisions on the price to bid on a one​-time​-only special order should include​ _______.

A. cost data and potential bids of competitors

B. existing fixed manufacturing overhead

C. only cost data

D. cost data, and the use of variable costing income statements

E. only the potential bids of competitors

A

A. cost data and potential bids of competitors

88
Q

For setting long​-term prices a company should use full product costs. Full product costs for pricing purposes​ _______.

A. include all direct costs plus an appropriate allocation of the indirect costs of all business functions

B. equals manufacturing and selling costs

C. does not include fixed overhead

D. include all manufacturing costs only

E. include direct costs only

A

A. include all direct costs plus an appropriate allocation of the indirect costs of all business functions

89
Q

A price​-bidding decision for a one​-time​-only special order includes an analysis of​ _______.

A. all cost drivers

B. only fixed manufacturing costs

C. only marketing costs

D. all costs of each function in the value chain

E. indirect costs of each category in the value chain

A

D. all costs of each function in the value chain

90
Q

Pricing for one​-time​-only special orders​ is, typically​ _______.

A. a short-run decision

B. a pricing decision using the time horizon

C. based on fixed costs alone

D. higher in variable costs than usual

E. a long-run decision

A

A. a short-run decision

91
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of alternative long​-run pricing​ approaches?

A. A market-based approach only considers how customers will react.

B. A market-based approach only considers costs.

C. A cost-based approach only considers how customers will react.

D. A market-based approach is more logical in a competitive market.

E. In cost-plus pricing, selling price ignores market forces when setting the markup.

A

D. A market-based approach is more logical in a competitive market.

92
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the factors that affect pricing​ decisions?

A. An increase in the price of a substitute product does not affect pricing decisions.

B. Information about a competitor in a perfect market affects pricing decisions.

C. Managers must always be aware of the competition when pricing their products.

D. Information about competitors’ technologies is not useful for pricing decisions.

A

C. Managers must always be aware of the competition when pricing their products.