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747 > CQ (500) 2020 > Flashcards

CQ (500) 2020 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. On a Cat III approach, to continue below AH, what conditions must be met? (GOM 5)
A
  • No Auto throttle faults
  • TRIPLE or LAND 3 must be displayed on the flight mode annunciator
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2
Q
  1. Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft? (GOM 7)
A
  • Stowage compartment on the First Observers Sidewall Console (right side of flight deck)
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3
Q
  1. Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF? (GOM 5)
A
  • Yes, the METAR must show that the weather is at or above minimums and a reasonable trend shows that the weather will remain so
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4
Q
  1. The First Officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation. ATIS is reporting the visibility as 1100 meters. What must be considered? (GOM 5) (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • Autobrakes 3 or greater must be used
  • The First Officer may not conduct the approach and landing
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5
Q
  1. If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to the flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions? (GOM 5)
A
  • The Director of Operations shall NOT delegate responsibility for those functions
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6
Q
  1. What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip? (GOM 5)
A
  • Flight Release/Flight Plan
  • Weight and Balance Form
  • Aircraft Loading Checklist
  • Hazmat Form
  • Ground Security Form
  • Aircraft Log (yellow and pink copies)
  • Fuel Receipts
  • All Receipts and Invoices (excluding hotel)
  • Engine Monitoring Data Form
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7
Q
  1. Minimum (fuel) required calculations are based on what 4 factors? (GOM 5)
A
  • Destination Fuel
  • Alternate Fuel
  • Reserve Fuel
  • Additional Fuel
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8
Q
  1. What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria when no gradient is specified? (GOM 5)
A
  • 200 feet per nautical mile
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9
Q
  1. When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered? (GOM 5)
A

The Captain must determine that the weight of the aircraft at the start of the takeoff roll is at or below all of the following weights:
- Maximum structure Takeoff Gross Weight (TOGW)
- TOGW limited by takeoff performance under the conditions existing at the time of takeoff
- TOGW considering the anticipated fuel burn before landing which will permit a landing at or below the maximum Landing Gross Weight (LGW)

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10
Q
  1. When is a new TLR required prior to departure? (AOM Vol I, PERF)
A

TLR is void when:
- the actual QNH is more than .10” (3.4hPa) below the planned QNH
- the actual OAT is greater than the Maximum Temperature (MT) for the takeoff runway
- the actual OAT is more than 10* less than the planned OAT
- the actual takeoff weight is greater than the weight listed in the PTOW PLUS table
- the actual takeoff weight is more than 10,000 lbs below the planned takeoff weight
- a performance limiting MEL exists that is not shown in the RMKS section

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11
Q
  1. When requesting a “Live” calculation, what must be provided to flight following? (AOM VOL I, PERF)
A
  • Desired Runway
  • Runway Surface Condition
  • ZFW
  • ATIS
  • Fuel on board
  • TOGW CG

(RC ZAFT)

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12
Q
  1. Your TLR has a notation “SLUSH-LEVEL 2” in the remarks section. What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower? (AOM VOL I, PERF)
A
  • More than 1/8 inch - up to 1/4 inch
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13
Q
  1. After entering the Thrust Limit from AERODATA, there are dashed lines present on the Takeoff Page. What do you do? (AOM VOL I, PERF)
A
  • The presence of dashes in place of reference speeds in the CDU is an indication that the FMS cannot generate speeds for the entered THRUST LIMIT, ZFW and FLAP setting. All data entries should stop and the crew should reconfirm all performance data entries
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14
Q
  1. Who may perform the Exterior Safety check? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • The FO will accomplish the exterior safety check. However, the IRP may accomplish the check. If crew members arrive separately, the first crew members to arrive at the aircraft will complete the exterior and interior safety checks and establish electrical power if not already established.
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15
Q
  1. When is the exterior safety check accomplished? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • The Exterior Safety Check is performed on every flight before entering the airplane to ascertain that no obvious unsafe condition exists.
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16
Q
  1. What is the maximum misalignment permitted on the pylon alignment stripe when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)
A
  • 1/2 the stripe
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17
Q
  1. What is the minimum amount of brake wear pin that can be visible when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)
A
  • Checking the brake wear pins is not part of the Exterior Inspection
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18
Q
  1. When conducting an Exterior Inspection, must a flashlight be carried during daylight hours? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • Yes
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19
Q
  1. For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around? (AOM Vol I, NP)
A
  • The Loadmaster shall assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around to ensure that all of the cargo doors are closed and secured and that there is no damage around the cargo door area, which may have been caused by the loaders and may not have been visible when the IRP did his initial walk-around inspection. DOES NOT CHECK FUEL DOORS.
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20
Q
  1. What are the memory items for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND? (QRH BC)
A

ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND

FUEL CTRL switch (affected engine) - CUTOFF
(Warning: Do Not Proceed Until Engine Has Shutdown)

If FIRE indication persists after shutdown:
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - PULL
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - ROTATE

After a momentary delay:
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - ROTATE (other direction)

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21
Q
  1. What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight? (QRH 7)
A

ENG 1,2,3,4 FAIL (TWO or MORE ENGINES)
Condition: one of these occurs on two or more engines
- engine flameout/indications are unusual/indications out of limits/unusual engine noises/no response to thrust lever movement
Objective: attempt a rapid relight
CAUTION: Shutdown of more than 1 engine will cause the AUTO-THROTTLES to be Inoperative

FUEL CTRL switches (affected engines) - CONFIRM, CUTOFF, then RUN
EGT - MONITOR
- If EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff EGT limit, repeat step 1 as necessary

NOTE:
- EGT indication will turn red if EGT exceeds the ground/single engine in-flight start limit; however, for the multi-engine in-flight start, the start EGT limit reverts to the takeoff limit
- If high speed buffet occurs during the maneuver, relax pitch force as necessary to reduce buffet, but continue the maneuver

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22
Q
  1. You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set, engines 1, 2, 3 are shut down and engine 4 is running as you wait the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the Marshaller gives you the signal for a fire on engine 4. With no Master Fire Warning illuminated, what recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 8)
A

FIRE ENGINE TAILPIPE
Cond: An engine tailpipe fire occurs on the ground with no engine fire warning

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

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23
Q
  1. A hung start occurs after starter cutout, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. What recall item should be accomplished? (QRH 7)
A

HUNG START (AUTOSTART AFTER STARTER CUTOUT)
Cond: N2 below 50% or engine fails to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

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24
Q
  1. An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG 1 FAIL appears. What recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 7)
A
  • NONE
  • There are no recall items associated with an engine failure. The appropriate QRH should be called for by the PF
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25
Q
  1. What are the memory items for EICAS message “ENG 1 AUTOSTART”? (QRH 7)
A

ENG 1,2,3,4 AUTOSTART (ABORTED ENGINE START)
Cond: During a ground start, an abort start condition occurs
Obj: To shut down the engine and motor it.

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

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26
Q
  1. What are the memory items for the ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL condition? (QRH 7)
A

ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL
Cond: one or more of these
- Engine indications are unusual
- Engine indications are rapidly approaching or exceeding limits
- Unusual engine noises are heard
- There is no response to thrust lever movement
Obj: To attempt to recover normal engine operation or shutdown the engine if recovery is not possible

THRUST LEVER (affected engine) - RETARD
- Retard until indications stay within normal limits or return to normal or the thrust lever is closed.

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27
Q
  1. What are the memory items for the EICAS message “FIRE MAIN DECK”? (QRH 8)
A

FIRE MAIN DECK FIRE MN DK AFT, FWD, MID
Cond: Smoke is detected in the main deck cargo area(s)

1 Don O2 masks
2 Establish crew communications

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28
Q
  1. What are the memory items for the EICAS message “CABIN ALTITUDE”? (QRH 8)
A

CABIN ALTITUDE
Cond: Cabin altitude masks

1 Don O2 masks
2 Establish crew communications

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29
Q

29 What are the memory items for EICAS message “FIRE WHEEL WELL”? (QRH 8)

A

FIRE WHEEL WELL
Cond: Fire is detected in a main wheel well
NOTE: When extending or retracting the landing gear, do not exceed the gear EXTEND limit speed - 270Kts/.82M

LANDING GEAR LEVER - DN
- This attempts to remove and extinguish the fire source

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30
Q
  1. Who is responsible for notifying the FAA when a PIC utilizes his emergency authority? (GOM 8)
A

The Director of Operations

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31
Q
  1. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency? (GOM 8)
A

PAN, PAN, PAN

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32
Q
  1. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of distress? (GOM 8)
A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

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33
Q
  1. What are some indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight? (GOM 8)
A
  • Notice a Smokey or acrid odor that can smell like electrical smoke, burned dust or sulfur
  • See a haze develop within the airplane…dust can settle on surfaces
  • Experience changing engine conditions…surging, torching from the tail pipe, and flameouts can occur…engine temps can change unexpectedly and a white glow can appear at the engine inlets
  • Experience a decrease or erratically fluctuation indicated airspeed
  • Experience changes in cabin pressure, including loss of cabin pressure
  • See a phenomenon similar to St Elmo’s fire or glow…in these instances, blue-colored sparks can appear to flow up the outside of the windshield or a white glow can appear at the edges of the wings or at the front of the engine inlets
  • Landing lights will cast sharp, distinct shadows
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34
Q
  1. What must a person consider before using Halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area? (GOM 8)
A
  • A PBE must be donned prior to discharging a Halon fire extinguisher in a confined space
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35
Q
  1. What is the time of useful consciousness at 35000’ without using supplemental oxygen? (GOM 8)
A
  • 30 to 60 seconds
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36
Q
  1. What must be entered into the logbook following an overweight landing? (GOM 8)
A
  • Aircraft weight
  • Rate of descent at touchdown
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37
Q
  1. Should supernumerary oxygen be deployed for smoke in the cabin? (GOM 8)
A
  • NO, unless the cabin altitude is greater than 14000’
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38
Q
  1. You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30-day period. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30-day period? (GOM 5)
A
  • 100 hours
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39
Q
  1. To whom can the Director of Operations delegate his responsibility for initiation, operation, diversion and termination of a flight? (GOM 5)
A
  • He cannot delegate his responsibility
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40
Q
  1. When operating outside of the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found? (GOM 6)
A
  • Jeppesen FD Pro program under “Air Traffic Control, State Rules and Procedures” tab for that country
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41
Q
  1. What are the B-44 fuel requirements? (GOM 6)
A

The flight must be planned with enough fuel to:
- Fly to airport to which was released
- + 10% of the total time from rerelease point to the rerelease destination airport
- Fly and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release
- + 30 minutes holding speed at 1500’ above the alternate airport under standard temperature conditions

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42
Q
  1. What are B-43 fuel requirements? (GOM 6)
A

The flight must be planned with enough fuel to:
- Fly to and land at the airport to which it was released
- + 10% of total period in Class 2 Airspace (where aircraft’s position cannot be “reliably fixed” at least once each hour)
- Fly to and land to the most distant Alternate in the release (if required)
- + 45 mins at normal cruising fuel consumption

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43
Q
  1. May a flight be released under the rules for No Suitable Alternate if there is an alternate available within two hours that is unusable because of weather forecast? (GOM 6)
A
  • NO
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44
Q
  1. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following? (GOM 6)
A
  • ETA exceeds 15 min beyond flight plan ETA
  • Deviate more than 100 NM from flight plan route
  • More than 4000’ from flight plan altitude
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45
Q
  1. When are you considered “established” on course? (GOM 6)
A
  • “Established” is considered as being within HALF OF FULL-SCALE DEFLECTION for the ILS and VOR or within +-5* of the required bearing for the NDB
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46
Q
  1. Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country? (GOM 6)
A
  • PIC
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47
Q
  1. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc) for a particular host country be found? (GOM 6)
A
  • Most relevant information is found in the ENTRY SECTION of the appropriate Jeppesen Text Manual. More detailed information can be obtained from Operations Control Center (OCC) personnel
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48
Q
  1. When do you need a permit to proceed? (GOM 6)
A
  • The Permit to Proceed is used by US Customs officials to allow aircraft to TECH STOP (change crew, fuel, etc) at a US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry. The detailed entry inspection requirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination.
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49
Q
  1. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country? (GOM 6)
A
  • The only way to determine the appropriate holding speeds for a particular country is to FIRST CHECK THE ATC SECTIONS OF THE JEPPESEN TEXT documents found in FD Pro D and find the “HOLDING” SECTION FOR A PARTICULAR COUNTRY. The Holding section will reference a table of speeds, found in the 200 series pages of the Air Traffic Control section of the Jeppesen General Manual
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50
Q
  1. When operating outside the US and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew? (GOM 6)
A
  • Clarify the routing or if cleared direct, use specific phraseology indicating “CLEARED PRESENT POSITION direct to ____” (GOM 6-19)
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51
Q
  1. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights? (GOM 6)
A
  • Verify that the computer Flight Plan coordinates agree with the actual coordinates from Jeppesen HI/LO charts or the NAT Track message, as appropriate
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52
Q
  1. List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS. (GOM 6)
A
  • Moderate Turbulence
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Moderate Icing
  • Severe Icing
  • Severe Mountain Wave
  • Thunderstorms without or with hail
  • Heavy Dust or Sandstorm
  • Volcanic Ash Cloud
  • Pre-Eruption Volcanic Activity or Volcanic Eruption
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53
Q
  1. When would you NOT use CMV (converted meteorological visibility)? (GOM 5)
A
  • When reported RVR is available
  • For calculating takeoff minima
  • For other RVR minima less than 800m
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54
Q
  1. What does the term “NOSIG” mean when found in a METAR? (GOM 5)
A

NO SIGnificant change in the next 2 hours

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55
Q
  1. Can a flight be released based on a METAR? (GOM 5)
A
  • YES, when weather conditions forecast in a TAF prevent the release of a flight, but the METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums, a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above the minimums required. The flight must be coordinated with flight following to ensure the takeoff, approach and landing can be accomplished prior to issuance of the next normally scheduled METAR report.
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56
Q
  1. You are unable to see the required visual cues at decision height on an approach. Are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate? (GOM 5,6)
A
  • NO, As with any listed alternate, the destination alternate is just a planning exercise to ensure that you have available fuel to divert to a suitable airport.
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57
Q
  1. You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response. Based on analysis of the radar returns you elect to deviate 20 miles south of track. What do you do? (GOM 6)
A

Maintain your altitude until 5 miles south of track. Then, climb to 300’ above your assigned cruising level

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58
Q
  1. You are unable to maintain your altitude while in oceanic airspace and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude. What do you do? (GOM 6, AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • Turn at least 30 degrees off track
  • Maintain altitude as long as possible
  • Watch for traffic
  • Turn on all available lighting
  • Broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45
  • Establish 5NM Offset Track
  • Descend to an altitude offset by 500’ in RVSM airspace
  • Consider descent below FL290, offset by 500’
  • Select <ENG OUT on the FMS Cruise Page
  • Continue to attempt contact with ATC
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59
Q
  1. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do? (GOM 5)
A

Divert to your released airport (intermediate airport), after coordinating with ATC

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60
Q
  1. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regard to vertical and lateral maneuvering? (GOM 6)
A

It is expected that the pilot will normally proceed to the missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within the protected airspace This does not preclude flying over the MAP at an altitude/height greater than that required by the procedure.

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61
Q
  1. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is _____, with a minimum bank angle of _____ * (GOM 6)
A

Departures are only protected for turn radius of 290 knots or less, with a minimum bank angle of 15*

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62
Q
  1. Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew? (GOM 6)
A

The flight crew shall write down the clearance on the Flight Plan, along with the time it was received and the controlling frequency. When a re-route is necessary, the flight crew shall clearly cross-out old waypoints and enter the new waypoints in their place

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63
Q
  1. Certain locations in the world have been identified by IATA as having less than reliable air traffic control services. Is there any additional procedure required? (GOM 6)
A

The IATA Inflight Broadcast Procedures should be followed at each Mandatory reporting point

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64
Q
  1. Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check? (GOM 6)
A
  • Approximately ten minutes after passing each waypoint, the steering LRN unit position should be plotted and all LRN units checked against each other to ensure there are no significant deviations
  • Record the time (UTC)
  • Verify on-course tracking
  • The check is designed to ensure that the proper coordinates are inserted in the ‘NEXT’ position and that the aircraft is tracking to that position. The check does NOT verify the aircraft is in the proper position
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65
Q
  1. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such a route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain…(GOM 6)
A

The aircraft must be capable of meeting obstacle clearance requirements along a particular route with an engine inoperative. If diversion procedures or “escape routes” are not available or defined, these routes should not be flown, unless weights are reduced to allow compliance with en-route obstruction clearance criteria as described in GOM6-41, FAR 121.191 and FAR 121.193.

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66
Q
  1. While flying in less developed areas and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the en-route chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford? (GOM 6)
A
  • Special attention must be paid to the grid Minimum Off-Route Altitude (MORA). Grid MORAs provide a minimum of 1000’ obstacle clearance or 2000’ in mountainous terrain
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67
Q
  1. What is the Engine Failure Procedure in VMC if an engine fails after V1? (GOM 6, AOM Vol I PERF)
A

In VMC, you must fly the runway heading to 1000’ then maneuver as necessary, unless a Special Engine Failure procedure dictates otherwise

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68
Q
  1. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
A

The flight crew may know they have been cleared through the transition level, (descending) when cleared to maintain an altitude instead of a flight level. Additionally, a flight should be given an altimeter setting when cleared through the transition level.

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69
Q
  1. When conducting a course reversal procedure outside of the United States, what must be done to assure obstruction clearance? (GOM 6)
A

Unlike the United States, where a holding pattern can be used as a course reversal, the course reversal procedure must be flown exactly as depicted

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70
Q
  1. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch.6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected? (GOM 6)
A
  • Apply corrections to all published minimum departure, en-route and approach altitudes according to the table in GOM Ch.6
  • ATC-assigned altitudes or flight levels should not be adjusted for temperature
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71
Q
  1. According to GOM Ch.6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations? (GOM 6)
A
  • Greater turn radius
  • Higher landing and takeoff speeds
  • Potential for hot brakes
  • Missed approach climb capability problems
  • Aircraft may seem fast visually
  • Higher rates of descent (near the GPWS “sink rate” warning activation)
  • Pressurization scheduling may differ from normal
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72
Q
  1. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit? (QRH 12)
A
  • 3* C above the fuel freeze point
  • Increase speed, change altitude or deviate to a warmer air mass or all 3 to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temp limit
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73
Q
  1. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used? (AOM Vol I L, QRH 12)
A

Consult the fuel freeze tables in Chapter L or the QRH Chapter 12

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74
Q
  1. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire (GOM 6)
A

Rapid horizontal figure 8 motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire

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75
Q
  1. If a SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch? (GOM 6)
A
  • Verify proper SELCAL code
  • Verify that the SELCAL VHF/HF selectors are set to HF
  • Verify that the HF squelch is set to MIN or OFF
  • Verify the HF Gain set to MAX or INCR
  • Request a new test (if necessary)
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76
Q
  1. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the US, what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunication? (GOM 6)
A
  • Use proper ICAO Phraseology
  • Speak slowly and clearly and spell identifiers using the phonetic alphabet (if necessary)
  • Anticipate the controller: For example, be aware of the names of the fixes along the route, review possible SID and STAR names so that they will be familiar when heard
  • Obtain assistance, ask other crew members to monitor communication, even ACMs (or others), especially if they speak the local language. If unsure of what has been said, insist on verification, no matter how many times it takes
  • If necessary, practice sterile cockpit techniques from the top of descent until parked at the ramp
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77
Q
  1. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • Print the ATC UPLINK page and place the printout where both pilots can see it until the clearance has been complied with
  • Leave the ATC UPLINK page displayed until the clearance has been complied with
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78
Q
  1. What is the correct response to a “Cleared Route Clearance” uplink? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • Send a “Standby” downlink message
  • Print the uplink message
  • After review of the message, accept or reject the clearance
  • If accepted, load the FMS
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79
Q
  1. Except on the North Atlantic, what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADS-C? (QRH CPDLC, CPDLC Presentation)
A

Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADS-C services

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80
Q
  1. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF? (AOM Vol I SP)
A

Unless ATC has requested you to select it off, it is Kalitta Air policy not to select ADS OFF

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81
Q
  1. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints? (CPDLC Presentation)
A

Although physically possible, it is not permitted

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82
Q
  1. What does ADS-B stand for? (GOM 5)
A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast

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83
Q
  1. How do you turn ADS-B off? (GOM 5)
A

Select the transponder to STBY

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84
Q
  1. What must supernumeraries be briefed on and who must brief them? (AOM Vol I NP)
A

Supernumeraries must be briefed by flight crew member on use of cabin emergency equipment and emergency escape provisions

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85
Q
  1. What will cause the Main Deck Signaling System to activate automatically? (AOM Vol II 1)
A
  • Depressurization event
  • Main deck cargo smoke/fire
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86
Q
  1. What must a supernumerary do prior to entering the main deck? (AOM Vol I NP)
A
  • Carry a portable oxygen bottle with a smoke combat mask
  • Notify the operating crew upon returning
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87
Q
  1. What is indicated by the EICAS message >EMER LIGHTS? (AOM Vol II 1)
A
  • The emergency lights switch is not armed
  • The emergency lights switch is armed and the lights have activated
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88
Q
  1. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • Door operating 40kts
  • Door open 65kts
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89
Q
  1. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position? (AOM Vol II 1)
A

When Oxygen is on

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90
Q
  1. What is the Max. Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing? (AOM Vol I 1)
A

MAX: 9.4psi
T/O & Land: 0.11psi

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91
Q
  1. The AFT CARGO HT switch TEMP legend is illuminated. Is aft cargo heat available? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Yes, it will cycle at a higher temperature

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92
Q
  1. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Yes, for one pack up to 15000’

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93
Q
  1. What will cause an engine bleed air SYS FAULT light to illuminate? (AOM Vol II 2)
A
  • Bleed Overheat
  • Bleed Overpressure
  • HP Bleed open when commanded closed
  • PRV open when commanded closed
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94
Q
  1. What will cause the cabin altitude indicator on the primary EICAS to turn amber? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Cabin altitude in the caution range

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95
Q
  1. The LLCAFR switch is in FWD LOW and the customer has requested a temperature of 4C to 8C for perishable cargo. What is the condition of the equipment cooling system? (AOM Vol II 2)
A

Closed Loop

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96
Q
  1. What systems are available with the engine bleed valve closed and no fault is detected? (AOM Vol II 2)
A
  • Reversing
  • Nacelle Anti-Ice
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97
Q
  1. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative? (MEL 30)
A
  • Provide operation is not predicated on flights onto known or forecast icing conditions
  • Windshield Air (Anti-Fogging) Systems are operative and remaining #1 and #2 window heaters are operative
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98
Q
  1. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • When icing conditions are anticipated except when OAT is below -40*C
  • When TAT is 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals)
  • Prior to reduce thrust for descent when TAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), even when OAT is below -40C
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99
Q
  1. While in flight, Wing Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I L
A
  • In flight, when in icing conditions (ice is actually accumulating) and the leading edge flaps are not extended
  • When TAT is 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), the leading edge flaps are not extended and the aircraft is below 22,000’
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100
Q
  1. Where is the windshield washer reservoir located? (AOM Vol II 3)
A

In the left sidewall, behind the captain’s seat

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101
Q
  1. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated? (AOM Vol II 3)
A

When any engine is operating

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102
Q
  1. Are the TAT probes heated? When? (AOM Vol II 3)
A

Yes, in flight only

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103
Q
  1. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff? (AOM Vol I L)
A

Not below 400’

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104
Q
  1. VNAV is armed for takeoff, at 400’ AFE, the autothrottle mode changes to THR REF. What change occurs to the N1 indicators on the primary EICAS? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol II 7)
A

The reference N1 line changes from green to magenta

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105
Q
  1. When the pitch mode is VNAV PTH, what changes will occur to the autothrottle and pitch modes when speed speed intervene is selected with the Legacy FMC? With the NG FMC? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol II 16F)
A
  • Legacy FMC: will change the pitch mode to VNAV SPD and autothrottle will go to IDLE, then HOLD

-NG FMC: will remain in VNAV PTH and SPD

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106
Q
  1. Will aileron trim operate with an autopilot engaged? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol I L)
A

Yes, but it is prohibited

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107
Q
  1. What are the minimum and maximum: GLIDESLOPE & GLIDE PATH angle? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • GLIDESLOPE: 2.5* to 3.25*
  • GLIDE PATH: 2.75* to 3.5*
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108
Q
  1. What will occur in cruise flight with an autopilot engaged and the PM inadvertently touches the trim switch instead of the push to talk switch? (AOM Vol II 4)
A

The autopilot will disengage

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109
Q
  1. When using FLCH SPD as the pitch mode on takeoff (VNAV did not capture), is it necessary to push the THR button to select climb thrust? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM VOL II 7, AOM Vol II 11)
A

No, the change will occur at the specified point (flaps or altitude) programmed on the Takeoff Page of the FMC

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110
Q
  1. If VNAV is armed for takeoff, what would be the indicated FMA pitch mode change at 400’ AFE? (AOM Vol II 4)
A

VNAV SPD

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111
Q
  1. If LNAV is armed in flight, at what cross track distance will it become active? (AOM Vol I L)
A

2.5 NM

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112
Q
  1. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system? (AOM Vol I L)
A

The center VHF radio is not approved for ATC voice communications

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113
Q
  1. When is an ACARS in range report required to be manually sent? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • 30 minutes prior to arrival when unable to contact the ground station on an AMC charter flight
  • 30 minutes prior to arrival when a maintenance item is or will be entered in the logbook
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114
Q
  1. When should HF radios not be used? (AOM Vol I L)
A

During Refueling

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115
Q
  1. How would you verify that the ACARS state is BEGIN or WAIT? (AOM Vol I SP)
A
  • ACARS 2/2, DISCRETE, verify BEGIN/WAIT
  • TO FIX:
    • Close the L1 door
    • Set the parking brake
    • Open the L1 door
    • Select RETURN IN
    • Select PROCEED WITH RETURN IN
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116
Q
  1. What must be done to communicate directly with the mechanic who is operating the start valve for a manual (wrench) start? (AOM Vol II 5)
A
  • The mechanic must plug into the headset jacks at the nacelle. Service Interphone must be selected on
  • FLT must be selected on the audio panel
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117
Q
  1. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off? (AOM Vol II 5)
A

No

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118
Q
  1. What is indicated by the EICAS advisory >RADIO TRANSMIT? (AOM Vol II 5)
A

A VHF or HF radio has been continuously keyed for 30 seconds

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119
Q
  1. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF? (AOM Vol II 5)
A

Dial past 136.000 or below 118.000 and select transfer switch

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120
Q
  1. What buses are powered with #1 & #2 external power available but not on? (AOM Vol II 6)
A
  • Ground Handling
  • Main Deck Cargo Handling
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121
Q
  1. The battery switch is on and the standby power selector is in AUTO. No external power is available. You are starting the APU. Is the APU standby bus powered? (AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 7)
A

No, starting the APU removes power from the APU standby bus

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122
Q
  1. What battery is required to start the APU? (AOM Vol II 6)
A

Both batteries are required to start the APU

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123
Q
  1. How can a DCIR be opened? (AOM Vol II 6)
A

By opening the AC Bus Tie switch

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124
Q
  1. While conducting the interior preflight, you notice that the #2 generator FIELD OFF light is illuminated. How can you reset it? (AOM Vol II 6)
A
  • Cycle the Generator Control switch off and then on
  • Turn off the Generator Control switch and then use the guarded field switch on the Overhead Maintenance panel to close the field
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125
Q
  1. What electrical bus isolation occurs during auto land? (AOM Vol II 6)
A

AC buses 1, 2, and 3 are isolated. AC bus 4 powers the sync bus

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126
Q
  1. The number 4 generator is deferred. Can a Category III approach be conducted? (AOM Vol II 6, QRH AP)
A

Yes

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127
Q
  1. The #1 APU generator is inoperative. External power is not available. What must be done to power the refueling panel? (AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 7)
A

The refueling panel cannot be powered. The Ground Handling bus is required

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128
Q
  1. Before starting engines with the #1 APU generator inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system? (MEL 24, AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 13)
A

Turn on the # 4 Demand Pump

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129
Q
  1. When must continuous ignition be used? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • Heavy Rain
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Volcanic Ash
  • Icing Conditions
  • Standing water or slush on the runway
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130
Q
  1. With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set? (AOM Vol I L)
A

After brake release

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131
Q
  1. What does the EICAS Memo message APU RUNNING mean? (AOM Vol II 7)
A
  • APU is at 95% RPM
  • Electrical and Pneumatics are available
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132
Q
  1. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE), what happens on the ground? (AOM Vol II 7)
A

The EEC will alternate igniters 1 & 2 after every second engine start

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133
Q
  1. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE), what happens in flight? (AOM Vol II 7)
A
  • Both igniters will activate when N2 drops below 50% in the affected engine
  • Both igniters will activate in all engines when the flaps are out of up
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134
Q
  1. When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM? (AOM Vol II, 7)
A
  • With a loss of AC Power
  • Power is supplied to both igniters continuously
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135
Q
  1. Under what conditions should a start attempt be aborted (P&W)? (NO AUTO ATART-*) (AOM Vol II 16PW)
A
  • No N2
  • No oil pressure
  • No EGT rise within 10 seconds
  • Rapidly rising EGT
  • No N1 by idle N2
  • No acceleration after 90 seconds
    • EICAS/display interruption
    • Pneumatic disruption
    • Tailpipe fire
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136
Q
  1. If the Maximum Continuous EGT limit is exceeded, what is indicated? On Takeoff? (AOM Vol II 7)
A
  • Entire EGT gage turns amber
  • Inhibited for 5 minutes after TOGA is pushed
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137
Q
  1. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Enables main deck fire suppression
  • Turns off 2 packs
  • Configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
  • Closes master trim air valve
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138
Q
  1. Is the engine fire detection system AND logic or OR logic? (AOM Vol II 8)
A

AND logic

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139
Q
  1. What event will cause the engine fire detection system to configure itself in OR logic? Is there a cockpit indication? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Failure of one of the detection loops during the self test (STATUS cue on the primary EICAS)
  • FIRE DET LOOP status message
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140
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message >DET FIRE/OHT 1 mean? (AOM Vol II 8)
A

Both loop A and loop B for engine 1 have failed

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141
Q
  1. Describe what occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Closes the related engine and spar fuel valves
  • Closes the related engine bleed air valve
  • Trips off the related engine generator
  • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine - driven hydraulic pump
  • Depressurizes the related engine - driven hydraulic pump
  • Arms both related engine fire extinguishers
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142
Q
  1. What conditions will unlock the engine fire switch? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Pressing the unlock button on the fire panel
  • System senses a fire
  • Fuel switch in cutoff
  • Fire test in progress
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143
Q
  1. After a fire test pass, what 2 systems are no longer being monitored by the AC? (AOM Vol II 8)
A
  • Wheel Well
  • Leading Edge Duct
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144
Q
  1. How many overheat loops are installed for the APU? (AOM Vol II 8)
A

None

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145
Q
  1. If the outboard ailerons fail to “unlock” during approach, are there any restrictions on landing? (QRH 9)
A

20 knot crosswind limit

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146
Q
  1. What causes the outboard ailerons to unlock? (AOM Vol II 9)
A

Low Airspeed

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147
Q
  1. How would you select flaps 1 using the alternate flap system? (AOM Vol II 9)
A

You cannot select flaps 1 with the alternate system. All leading edge flaps extend at the same time.

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148
Q
  1. Moving the flap handle to a selected position will cause the flaps to move as long as either hydraulic (primary mode) or electric (secondary mode) power is available to the aircraft. Having said that, why is there an alternate flap system?
A

In the event that the flap handle fails or all three Flap Control Computers FCCs are failed

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149
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message >SPEEDBRAKES EXT mean?
A

Speed brake lever aft of arm and

  • RA between 800 and 15’
    Or
  • Flaps in the landing configuration
    Or
  • Two or more thrust levers forward of the idle position
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150
Q
  1. What occurs when the speedbrake lever is extended to the flight detent position? (AOM Vol II 9)
A
  • Two inboard spoilers on each wing extended to the mid position
  • Two middle spoilers on each wing extend fully
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151
Q
  1. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude? (AOM Vol I L)
A

20,000’

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152
Q
  1. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited? (AOM Vol II 9)
A

Multiple Autopilots engaged

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153
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain’s and FO’s altitude display for RVSM operations? (AOM Vol I L)
A

200’

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154
Q
  1. In addition to altitude and vertical speed information, what does the IRU selected by the captain provide? (AOM Vol II 10)
A

Reference information to the autobrake system

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155
Q
  1. On what range if the ND can you display all airports, all waypoints and all VORs? (AOM Vol II 10)
A

40 miles

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156
Q
  1. Which of the instrument source selectors will automatically transfer? (AOM Vol II 10)
A

EIU

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157
Q
  1. Selecting the ARPT button on the EFIS control panel does what? (AOM Vol II 10, 11, 16F)
A
  • With the legacy FMC installed, displays all airports within the selected range that have at least 1 hard surfaced runway 7500’ long or greater
  • With the NG FMC installed, displays all airports within the selected range that have at least 1 hard surfaced runway 6000’ long or greater
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158
Q
  1. For all aircraft, except N782CK, what is the up orientation of each ND mode? (AOM Vol II 10)
A
  • MAP is track up
  • PLAN is True North up (VOR is heading up
  • APP is heading up
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159
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM? (AOM Vol I L)
A
  • Sea Level to 5000’ -
    • 35’ between CA and FO
    • 75’ between CA or FO and field elevation
  • 10000’ -
    • 40’ between CA and FO
    • 75’ between CA or FO and field elevation
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160
Q
  1. Operations for using QFE are? (AOM Vol I L)
A

Prohibited

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161
Q
  1. What pages are available on the CDU with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • PROG
  • LEGS
  • NAV RAD
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162
Q
  1. Weather radar information can be displayed on all ND modes, except? (AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • Plan
  • VOR centered
  • APP centered
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163
Q
  1. The NG FMC has a field on the VNAV CRZ page with the title RECMD. What does it display? (AOM Vol II 16F, NG FMS Pilot’s Guide)
A

The most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 miles based on gross weight, selected speed option and constant altitude based on entered winds and forecast temperature

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164
Q
  1. You have been given a clearance to fly a heading of 090* to intercept J121 to HTO. Procedurally, what will you enter in the FMC? (AOM VolI 11)
A
  • On RTE page 2: put J121 at L1
  • On RTE page 2: put HTO on R1
  • Verify route on LEGS 1 page
  • Push EXEC
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165
Q
  1. When does the FMC have Approach Logic? (AOM Vol II 11)
A
  • After passing the first waypoint in the IAP
  • Within 25 miles when the runway is the waypoint displayed at L1
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166
Q
  1. What safeguard is applied when the FMC has approach logic and the pitch mode is VNAV PTH? (AOM Vol II 11)
A

Loss of the path will cause the aircraft to do a level fly off

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167
Q
  1. Can Class II Navigation be conducted with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II 11)
A

Yes

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168
Q
  1. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, on what page can the update sources be viewed and, it desired, disabled or enabled? (AOM Vol II 16F)
A

The NAV OPTIONS page

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169
Q
  1. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, what airports are entered on the ALTN Page? (AOM Vol II 16F)
A
  • ETP airports
  • If no ETP airports, the destination alternate
170
Q
  1. External power is connected, but not selected on. The fueler comes upon to you and asks if he can fuel since power is not on. Can he? (AOM Vol II 12, 6)
A

Yes, the fueling panel receives power from the Ground Handling Bus

171
Q

171.When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off? (AOM Vol II 12, QRH 12)

A
  • If the FUEL LOW CTR L/R message is displayed
  • If the FUEL PRESS CTR L/R message is displayed
172
Q
  1. Can you reset a tripped fuel pump Circuit Breaker? (QRH 12)
A

No, do not reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker

173
Q
  1. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A? (QRH 12)
A

-40*C (most restrictive of the fuel types used)

174
Q
  1. How can you verify that the fueling panel door is closed from the cockpit? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

The preselect fuel value will no longer appear on the fuel synoptic

175
Q
  1. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)? (AOM Vol I L)
A

53,000lbs

176
Q
  1. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast) (AOM Vol I L)
A

72,000lbs

177
Q
  1. When is the only time that the fuel system will automatically balance the fuel tanks? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

During fuel jettison

178
Q
  1. On aircraft equipped with an electric scavenge pump, what causes the pump to activate? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

The pump activates when the 2 and 3 reserve tanks transfer to their respective main tanks

179
Q
  1. Once activated, how long will an electric scavenge pump operate? (AOM Vol II 12)
A

120 minutes or until CTR Tank is empty

180
Q
  1. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach? (AOM Vol II 13, QRH 13)
A
  • Loss of Stabilizer Trim
  • Increased ability to flare
181
Q
  1. What will cause a #2 or #3 demand pump to operate when the switch is in the AUTO? (AOM Vol II 13)
A
  • Low pressure output from the EDP
  • Respective fuel control switch in cutoff
182
Q
  1. What will cause a #1 or #4 demand pump to operate when the switch is in AUTO? (AOM Vol II 13)
A
  • Low pressure output from the EDP
  • Respective fuel control switch in cutoff
  • Flaps are in transit on the ground
  • Flaps are out of up in flight
183
Q
  1. Does unlatching the EDP switch close its respective shut off valve? (AOM Vol II 13)
A

No

184
Q
  1. The hydraulic quantity on the STATUS page shows 0.00. The EICAS message HYD PRESS ENG is displayed. The SYS FAULT light is not illuminated. Do you have any hydraulic pressure from the system available? Why? (AOM Vol II 13)
A
  • Yes
  • The hydraulic quantity indication disregards the fluid in the standpipe which is available to the EDP
185
Q
  1. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? (AOM Vol I L)
A

0.80

186
Q
  1. Where can you confirm the hydraulic quantity? (AOM Vol II 13)
A

Status and Hydraulic Synoptic page

187
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message “HYD CONTROL” mean? (AOM Vol II 13, QRH 13)
A
  • The affected system’s demand pump may not operate under high demand situations
  • The affected system’s demand pump must be placed to ON in order to ensure system pressure will be available during high demand situations
188
Q
  1. With the #4 AUX pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on? (AOM Vol II 13)
A

Off

189
Q
  1. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended? (AOM Vol I L
A

720,000 lbs

190
Q
  1. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

85kts

191
Q
  1. Autobrakes operate using which brake control system? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

Normal brake system

192
Q
  1. RTO braking will provide what deceleration rate? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

RTO is not rate based…MAX Braking

193
Q
  1. At what tiller angle will the body gear begin to aid in turning the aircraft? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

At 20* of tiller angle

194
Q
  1. Where can you read alternate brake pressure? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

Alternate brake system pressure cannot be read

195
Q
  1. The #4 hydraulic system is inoperative. How can the parking brake be held until chocks are in place? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

Pressurize Hydraulic System 1 with the ADP or AUX pump if installed

196
Q
  1. What does the brake torque limiting system do? (AOM Vol II 14)
A

The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to the landing gear. When excessive torque is detected, a signal is sent to the anti-skid valve to release the brake pressure to that wheel.

197
Q
  1. From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or improper configurations? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

EICAS Alert Messages (Warning, Cautions and Advisory)

198
Q
  1. With multiple EICAS messages present, what will assure that all memo messages are displayed? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

Pushing the CANC button when the last page of EICAS Alert Messages is displayed

199
Q
  1. When are the Fire Bell and Master Warning Lights inhibited? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

V1 till 400’ RA or 25 seconds after V1

200
Q
  1. When does the takeoff configuration warning activate? (AOM Vol II 15)
A
  • Either #2 or #3 N1 is 70% or more
  • Airspeed is less than V1 and:
    • Body gear not centered
    • Flaps not in the takeoff range
    • Parking brake set
    • Speed brake lever not down
    • Stabilizer trim not in the selected green band
201
Q
  1. In what phase of flight would you receive the GPWS alert “DON’T SINK”? (AOM Vol II 15)
A
  • Takeoff
  • Go Around
202
Q
  1. When is the Windshear Alert System (not PWS) active? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

VOR to 1500’

203
Q
  1. What will cause the EICAS message CONFIG GEAR to display? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

The airplane is in flight:
- Any gear is not down and locked
- Any thrust lever is closed and radio altitude is less than 800’
- Flap lever is in a landing position (25 or 30)

204
Q
  1. What range must be selected to use the TAWS - Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system for navigation? (AOM Vol II 15)
A

Use of the terrain display for navigation is prohibited

205
Q
  1. When carrying Class 1 explosive material on a DOD flight, the captain must ensure what information is included in the remarks on the flight plan? (GOM 7)
A
  • Proper shipping name
  • Classification
  • Net explosive weight
206
Q
  1. Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft? (GOM 7)
A

Stowage compartment on the First Observers Sidewall Console (right side of flight deck)

207
Q
  1. Who is the final authority when conducting simultaneous fueling and cargo loading at military installations? (GOM 7)
A

Wing or Base Commander

208
Q
  1. When operating an AMC contracted flight, when must the destination airfield be notified? (GOM 7)
A

30 minutes out

209
Q
  1. When operating an AMC contracted flight, where is the appropriate facility and frequency for contact prior to arrival found? (GOM 7)
A

Flight Plan

210
Q

210 blank

A

Blank

211
Q
  1. Under Operating Fundamentals of Kalitta Air, flight operations will be conducted in a manner that ensures what 4 things? (GOM CH 3 3-23)
A
  • Maximum safety for personnel, cargo and equipment
  • Schedule integrity and reliability
  • Maximum customer satisfaction
  • Maximum efficiency economy
212
Q
  1. Prior to each departure, the PIC must obtain adequate knowledge of the following subjects? (GOM 4-21)
A
  • Weather characteristics appropriate to the season
  • Navigation Facilities
  • Communication procedures, including airports visual aids
  • Kinds of terrain and obstructions
  • Minimum safe flight levels
  • Pertinent air traffic control procedures, including terminal areas, arrival, departure, holding and all types of instrument approach procedures
  • Congested areas and the physical layout of each airport in which he/she will operate
  • All relative NOTAMS
213
Q
  1. Blank
A

Blank

214
Q
  1. Who may determine whether a Pre-departure Briefing for a special airport is needed? (GOM CH5 5-17)
A
  • The Director of Operations or Assistant Director of Operations
  • The Chief Pilot or Assistant Chief Pilot
  • The Director of Safety
215
Q
  1. When is a loading checklist required? (ROM 10-6)
A

The checklist is required where there is a Loadmaster or Special representative assigned to the flight

216
Q
  1. Where must Cargo Aircraft Only (CAO) dangerous goods be loaded? (GOM App H H-26)
A

Cargo Aircraft Only (CAO) dangerous goods must be loaded so that they are accessible. As discussed above, a crew member (or other authorized person) must be able to access, handle, and (when size and weight permit) separate such packages from other cargo during flight

217
Q
  1. When operating under Special Permit 7573 or 9551 who may be onboard? (GOM J-16)
A

If a flight is conducted under either of these special permits, persons authorized to be onboard during flight are limited to:
- 1. Required flight crew members
- 2. An FAA Inspector
- 3. The shipper or consignee of the cargo or representative of the shipper or consignee (designated in writing)
- 4. A person necessary for handling the cargo

218
Q
  1. After loading the final numbers in the CDU, you get an EICAS message >STAB GREENBAND, what are some reasons for this? (AOM Vol II Ch 9-15)
A

Nose gear pressure sensor disagrees with calculated stabilizer green band. A nose gear oleo pressure switch provides a cross check to ensure the correct green band has been selected

219
Q
  1. Can we depart before our ETD? For DHL? (GOM Ch7 7-11, DHL Guide)
A

If the aircraft is ready for departure more than 20 minutes early, Company aircrews shall request early departure. For DHL, PIC shall contact the Flight Follower for authorization. The Flight Follower shall check that such a departure will not negatively impact customer arrival times, slot, curfew, crew duty time or any other factors. Should an early departure be approved, the PIC shall record this approval on the Flight Release.

220
Q
  1. Are there any limitations for taxiing out with 3-engines? 2-engines? (FTM 2-11)
A

Delayed engine start should be used when operationally possible. The following weights are for guidance only:
- Less than approximately 726,000 lbs, start engines 4, 1 and 2
- Less than approximately 660,000 lbs, start engines 4 and 1

If the engine has been shut down for several hours, it is desirable to operate at as low a thrust setting as practical for several minutes prior to takeoff.
- Taxiing with two engines at high gross weight is not recommended for normal operation because of the noise and blast damage from higher than normal thrust requirements

221
Q
  1. Can you be dispatched with less than 72,000 lbs of fuel? (AOL Vol I L-18)
A
  • Yes, Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (excluding ballast)………. 53,000 lbs
  • Requires approval from DO, Cheif Pilot or designee
222
Q
  1. If a PIC uses his emergency authority and is requested to submit a report to the requesting ATC facility, when must this be completed? (GOM Ch 5)
A

When requested, the PIC must submit a detailed report (separate from the Event Log), within 48 hours to the requesting ATC facility

223
Q
  1. Are Hazmat shipping labels required to be seen on ULD’s? (GOM)
A

Often, the placement of the ULD Tag on a ULD will, once loaded on the aircraft, not be visible to anyone viewing the ULD. The tag is verified by the Loadmaster/Station Representative when the cargo is loaded onboard and need not be verified after loading

224
Q
  1. When inspecting the PBE, what color is the indicator when it is no longer serviceable? (AOM 1-63)
A

The PBE is considered to be unserviceable when the paper indicator clearly turns pink

225
Q
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring the doors page synoptic is displayed during preflight? (AOM Vol I NP)
A

First Officer (FO Cockpit Prep)
- Doors Display Switch (after Captain’s status check)………. PUSH

226
Q
  1. When conducting a preflight, when will the Yaw Damper switch INOP light extinguish? (AOM Vol I NP CA Cockpit Prep)
A

INOP lights remain illuminated until first IRU aligns

227
Q
  1. The MDSS TURB switch remains illuminated for how long after being pushed? (AOM Vol I NP)
A

Remains illuminated for approximately 90 seconds

228
Q
  1. What should you see during the STBY PWR check? (AOM Vol I NP)
A

STBY POWER SELECTOR to BAT
Verify BAT DISCHARGE MAIN and BAT DISCH APU display on EICAS
Verify PFD, ND, L CDU (+primary EICAS) remain on, SOME PLANES DO NOT HAVE APU standby bus
STBY POWER SELECTOR to AUTO

  • Verify BAT DISCH MAIN and BAT DISCH APU messages no longer display
229
Q
  1. What is the procedure for all EFIS/EICAS screens going blank? (QRH p0-2)
A

Follow QRH procedure for: EFIS/EICAS SCREENS BLANK
- This directs you to reset circuit breakers

230
Q
  1. What is the procedure for all EFIS/EICAS screens going blank? (QRH p0-2)
A

Follow QRH procedure for: EFIS/EICAS SCREENS BLANK
- This directs you to reset circuit breakers

231
Q
  1. When must the PIC declare a fuel emergency to ATC? (GOM Ch 5)
A

If the PIC determines that he must have traffic priority, he should declare an emergency due to low fuel and provide ATC with minutes of fuel remaining

232
Q
  1. If a PIC rejects for a non-mechanical reason, is a logbook entry required? (GOM 5-114)
A

If the rejected takeoff is due to a non-mechanical issue, the crew is required to note the rejected takeoff in the “Remarks” section of the aircraft log

233
Q
  1. What is ICAO emergency fuel? (GOM Ch 5)
A

The PIC shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting, “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL”, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned fuel reserve fuel

234
Q
  1. What is the difference between Distress and Urgency? (GOM Ch 8)
A
  • DISTRESS is defined as a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. Distress messages have the highest priority.
  • URGENCY is defined as a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance. Urgency messages are second in priority only to distress messages
235
Q
  1. What is the pilot response to a “CAUTION OBSTACLE” or “CAUTION TERRAIN”? (QRH 16-6)
A

Pilot Flying…Correct flight path or aircraft condition

236
Q
  1. GPWS alerts are provided for what 7 categories of events? (AOL Vol II 15-35)
A

GPWS alerts are provided for the following:
- altitude loss after takeoff or go-around
- excessive and severe descent rate
- excessive terrain closing rate
- unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration
- excessive deviation below an ILS glide slope
- altitude advisories
- windshear

237
Q
  1. When directed by the QRH, pushing the Ground Proximity (GND PROX) Flap Override (OVRD) switch does what? (AOM Vol II 15-11)
A

Push (OVRD illuminated) - inhibits TOO LOW FLAPS alert

238
Q
  1. TAWS, GREEN indicates what altitude? AMBER? RED? (AOM Vol II 15-13)
A
  • DOTTED GREEN - terrain from 2,000’ below to 500’ (250’ with gear down) below airplane altitude
  • DOTTED AMBER - terrain 500’ (250’ with gear down) below to 2000’ above airplane altitude
  • DOTTED RED - terrain more than 2000’ above airplane altitude
239
Q
  1. Can crew members accept another carrier’s NOTOC form? (GOM H-35)
A

Kalitta Air crew members may accept another air carrier’s (or freight forwarder’s) Pilot-In-Command Notification Form provided that form contains at least the same information as the KA Form

240
Q
  1. How much dry ice is allowed to be carried onboard? (GOM APP H H-30)
A

** See charts on H-30**

Quantity will vary based upon sublimation rate and A/C configuration

241
Q
  1. What is the minimum RVR allowed for takeoff? How many centerline lights should you see at 500 RVR?
A

500 RVR - 10 lights (50’ apart)

242
Q
  1. Under low visibility conditions, how would you determine when you have 2000’ of runway remaining? (AOM Vol I App A A.2.6)
A
  • High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL)
  • On the rollout end, the last 2000’ of lights are amber
243
Q
  1. Where can you find the complex special engine fail procedure for GAU/MGGT RUNWAY 02, if you wanted to study it before receiving the TLR? (AOM Vol I Perf-100)
A

A caret (>) to the right of any runway length indicates the presence of additional information, such as NOTAMs or notes that can be displayed by selecting the caret

244
Q
  1. With PACKS in HI FLOW, how much extra fuel burn will you have? (MEL 21-76)
A

Approximately 1%

245
Q
  1. Why is it important to check fields 10 and 18 on the flight plan strip? (GOM 9-51)
A
  • Crew members need to be aware of these qualifiers should they be queried by ATC
  • Must verify the accuracy of these fields by checking DMIs that render the equipment listed in Fields 10a, 10b, and 18 inoperable
246
Q
  1. Who is responsible for determining aircraft disinfection procedures prior to entering a country? (GOM 6-7)
A

Cargo Services

247
Q
  1. Can you dispose of the insecticide canisters prior to landing, if needed? (GOM 6-7, JepPro)
A

NO, must be retained for quarantine officer if needed

248
Q
  1. What code should never be put in the transponder? (GOM 5-120)
A

Under no circumstances should a pilot of a civil aircraft operate the transponder on Code 7777. This code is reserved for military interceptor operations

249
Q
  1. Can we do circling approaches? (FTM 5-41)
A

Kalitta Air is not authorized to perform Circling Approaches.

Circling maneuvers from authorized approaches are permitted.

The WX minimums to perform a circling maneuver are the higher of the published circling minimums or 1000’ HAA and 3 miles visibility.

The Circling Maneuver must be performed at or above the higher of the published circling MDA or 1000’ HAA

250
Q
  1. How close to the destination airport does one need to be to accept a visual approach? (GOM 5-138)
A

Within 35 miles

251
Q
  1. Where do we find authorized geographic areas of en-route operations? (GOM 6-2)
A

Authorized geographic areas of en-route operations are contained in OpSpec B050

252
Q
  1. Can we operate in “No FIR” areas? (GOM 6-10)
A

KA is NOT authorized to operate in “No FIR” areas. The authority to operate is granted by OpSpec B050 - Authorized Areas of En-route Operation, Limitations and Provisions

253
Q
  1. What are some considerations when operating in NON-WGS 84 compliant areas? (FCTM 1-27)
A

The positions of runways, airports, waypoints, navaids, etc., may not be as accurate as depicted on the map display and may not agree with the GPS position

254
Q
  1. Can we operate on Performance Based Communications and Surveillance (PBCS) tracks? (GOM 6-55)
A

KA aircraft are NOT permitted to operate on the PBCS tracks that are designated in the NAT Track Message

255
Q
  1. After coast-out and radar service terminated, at what point do we squawk 2000? (Reg/Sup Ops pg 13)
A

30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace

256
Q
  1. When operating out of VHHH and using runways 7L and 7R, can we use a NADP-2 departure?
A

No

257
Q
  1. How do we derive alternate airport weather minimums? (GOM 5-79)
A

Alternate airport weather minimums are calculated using either of the following conditions:
- 1 NAVAID (Approach) - add 400’ and 1 mile
- 2 NAVAIDS (Approaches) - add 200’ and 1/2 mile
- CAT II Approach - requires 300’ HAT @ 3/4 miles visibility
- CAT III Approach - requires 200’ HAT @ 1/2 miles visibility

258
Q
  1. For purposes of condition reporting and airplane performance, a runway is considered contaminated when? (AOM Vol Perf 11)
A

A runway where more than 25% of the runway length, within the width being used, is covered by standing water (more than 1/8”), slush or snow

259
Q
  1. What is a minimum weather for a circling maneuver? (FTM 5-41)
A

The weather minimums to perform a circling maneuver are the higher of the published circling minimums or 1000’ HAA and 3 miles visibility

260
Q
  1. What must be considered before an approach below 3/4 mile or RVR 4000? (AOM Vol I Ap A 4-1)
A
  • During low weather conditions (3/4 mile visibility/RVR 4000), OpSpec C054 requires actual landing length plus 15% be compared to the fully factored landing distance
  • Also consider Autobrakes 3 or 4. Quicker stop for low visibility
261
Q
  1. If mid and rollout RVR reports unavailable for a CAT II approach, what is the minimum RVR requirement? (OpSpec 60-4)
A

If the mid and rollout RVR reports are unavailable, the TDZ report must be at least 1400 RVR

262
Q
  1. On a CAT III Approach with far end RVR reporting, is far end RVR controlling? (GOM 5-110)
A

All available RVR reports are controlling, except a far-end RVR report, which is advisory only

263
Q
  1. In an ICAO country, if the PIC declares “Minimum Fuel”, can they expect priority handling? (GOM 5-130)
A

Pilots should not expect any form of priority handling as a result of declaring “Minimum Fuel”. However, ATC will advise the flight crew of any additional expected delays and will coordinate with other ATC units when transferring control of the airplane to ensure they are aware of the flight’s fuel state

264
Q
  1. What do we need for Alternate IFR Weather Minimums? (GOM 5-79)
A

Alternate airport WX minimums are calculated using either of the following conditions:
- 1 NAVAID (Approach) - add 400’ and 1 mile
- 2 NAVAID (Approaches) - add 200’ and 1/2 mile
- CAT II Approach - requires 300’ HAT @ 3/4 miles visibility
- CAT III Approach - requires 200’ HAT @ 1/2 miles visibility

265
Q
  1. Where can we use a single Long-Range Navigation System (LRNS)? (OpSpec B-054, C)
A

Detailed in OpSpec B054

266
Q
  1. ICAO route codes A, B, G and R are used for what type of ATS routes? (GOM 6-37)
A

Used for routes which form part of the regional networks of ATS routes and are not area navigation routes

267
Q

266.The letter “U” used as route designator “UPPER” is normally in conjunction with what type of airspace? (GOM 6-37)

A

The use of a supplementary letter “U” means the route is designated as an upper airway, normally in conjunction with Class A airspace at or above the transition level. The U is spoken as “Upper”.

268
Q
  1. Enroute we must be able to maintain how many feet of obstacle clearance? (GOM 6-48)
A

Maintain 1000’ above all obstacles within 5 statute miles on each side of the route or the aircraft can continue to an airport where a landing can be made while clearing all terrain by 2000’.

269
Q
  1. When selecting a transition for an approach procedure, what is an important consideration regarding altitude constraints on the transition
A

?? See flight ops bulletin, LAX, approach transition higher than arrival, you’ll jack up the arrival

270
Q
  1. Can we operate in areas where barometric pressure is missing or above 31.00”? (GOM 5-11)
A

Flights to and from those airports are restricted to VFR weather conditions

271
Q
  1. If ATC has modified the filed flight plan, you will receive a “CLEARED ROUTE CLEARANCE“ or “CLEARED TO [position] VIA ROUTE CLEARANCE”, are there any restrictions after loading the DCL? (AOM SP-66)
A

The only way to view the complete Route Uplink Message is to either print or, if printing is unavailable, load the uplink

272
Q
  1. What is the minimum battery charge on your IPad EFB when reporting for duty? (GOM Ch5)
A

Pilots will report for duty with the EFB indicating a minimum 80% battery charge

273
Q
  1. When will the Runway Turnoff lights extinguish with the switch selected ON? (AOM Vol II 1-47)
A

Lights extinguish when air/ground sensing system in air mode

274
Q
  1. In AUTO the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign will illuminate when? (AOM Vol II 1-49)
A
  • Landing gear not up and locked
  • Flap lever not up
  • Airplane altitude below 10,300’
  • Cabin altitude above 10,000’
  • Supernumerary oxygen on
275
Q
  1. If DC power fails, Emergency Lights are powered by what battery source? (AOM Vol II 1-51)
A

The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries. Battery charge is maintained by DC bus 4. A fully charged battery provides at least 15 minutes of operation

276
Q
  1. The PBE has an operation duration of _____ and can be used to an altitude of _____?
A
  • 15 minutes
  • 40,000’
277
Q
  1. When is the MDSS automatically activated? (AOM 1-50)
A

In case of a depressurization event, or cargo compartment smoke/fire, an automatically activated aural alert (siren) and visual alert (red strobe lights) is provided

278
Q
  1. Once activated, how long will the MDSS remain active? (AOM 1-50)
A
  • Depressurization or Smoke/Fire: The aural and visual alerts will remain active until the triggering condition is corrected
  • Turbulence: The visual alert will remain active for a period of 90 seconds, then automatically cease
279
Q
  1. What is the width of the wing gear? (AOM 1-1)
A

36’ 1”

280
Q
  1. What is the minimum taxi width?
A

50’ ??

281
Q
  1. How do you make a 180* turn on a 153’ runway? (FTM 2-8)
A

Taxi the airplane so that the wing gear tires are close to the runway edge. Stop the airplane completely with the thrust at idle. Hold the tiller to the maximum steering angle, release the brakes, then add thrust on the engines on the outboard side. Light intermittent braking on the inside main gear helps decrease turn radius

282
Q
  1. How many escape descent devices (reels) are there on a BCF?
A

6 Escape Reels

283
Q
  1. The minimum pavement for a 180* turn is? (AOM Vol II 1-2)
A

153’ (body gear operating)

284
Q
  1. What are the 3 types of hydroplaning? (GOM 5-107)
A

DYNAMIC: a film of water 1/10 of an inch or greater in depth. The speed at which dynamic hydroplaning will begin is a function of tire pressure and may be computed using the formula=9 X the square root of tire pressure

VISCOUS: a film of water 1/100 of an inch thick is trapped between the tire and the runway; smooth runway surfaces

REVERTED RUBBER (STEAM): may occur following a locked wheel skid on a wet runway. This type of hydroplaning cannot occur if anti-skid devices are operating properly and there is no residual drag in wheel bearings or brakes

285
Q
  1. With an operating antiskid system, which type of hydroplaning do we not need to worry about? (GOM 5-107)
A

REVERTED RUBBER (STEAM): may occur following a locked wheel skid on a wet runway. This type of hydroplaning cannot occur if anti-skid devices are operating properly and there is no residual drag in wheel bearings or brakes

286
Q
  1. With a tire pressure of 220psi, what would be the approximate hydroplaning speed? (GOM 5-107)
A

133kts (9 X square root of tire pressure)

287
Q
  1. What are the 2 types of push button switches? (AOM Vol II 1-17)
A

ALTERNATE ACTION: switches have 2 positions - on/off

MOMENTARY ACTION: switches are spring loaded to the extended position

288
Q
  1. Name the location of the Flight Deck Access Lights? (AOM Vol II 1-25)
A

Located on Overhead MTC Service Panel. Additional Access Lights switches are located on the upper deck cabin services module (CSM), at Door 1 left, at right upper deck service door and Main Equipment Center lower hatch

289
Q
  1. What does the “IRS ON BAT” mean? How much time do you have? (AOM Vol II 11-7)
A
  • IRS operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus)
  • The center IRU operates on DC power for 5 minutes, then shuts down
290
Q
  1. During pre-flight you notice a Field Off Light illuminated on the overhead maintenance panel, what might be the problem? (AOM Vol II 6-7)
A

Illuminated (white) - generator field open

291
Q
  1. Normally equipment cooling comes on when…on the ground? In flight? Where does the air go? What about in STBY or OVRD? (AOM Vol II 2-29, 2-30)
A

ON THE GROUND: with the engines not operating, the Equipment Cooling selector in NORM and ambient temperatures moderate or high, the warm exhaust air is ducted overboard through the ground exhaust valve. With lower ambient temperatures, the ground exhaust valve is closed, and the system is configured for flight

IN FLIGHT: Equipment Cooling selector to STBY closes the overboard exhaust valve to manually configure the airplane for flight

OVRD: With the Equipment Cooling selector in OVRD, the internal fans deactivate and the smoke/override valve opens with all other valves closed. The smoke/override valve opens to an overboard vent allowing cabin differential pressure to draw air from the panels area on the flight deck, through the equipment cooling ducts to the E&E compartment equipment racks, to create a reverse flow of air across the equipment, then through the supply duct and overboard

292
Q
  1. If cabin pressure becomes excessive, 2 pressure relief valves open. What pack shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure? Is it available once pressurization returns to normal? (AOM Vol II 2-23)
A

Pack 2 shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure. Pack 2 resets when both cabin pressure relief valves close.

293
Q
  1. With Master Trim Air switch OFF, Upper Deck Zone, Crew Rest Zone and Main Deck Cargo Zone receive pack outlet air at the same temperature command by which TEMP Selector? (AOM Vol II 2-18) (Flight Deck Temp selector Vol II 2-22)
A

The ZTC (Zone Temperature Controller) modulates the zone trim air valves to regulate the temperature of the conditioned air in each zone

294
Q
  1. Aft Cargo Heat is provided by bleed air from which duct? (AOM Vol II 2-37)
A

Aft Cargo Heat is provided from the Center section

295
Q
  1. Cabin altitude controllers use inputs from which sources to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule? (AOM Vol II 2-32)
A

The cabin altitude controllers use ambient pressure and flight plan data from the FMC to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule.

296
Q
  1. After an over pressurization event, when will PACK 2 reset? (AOM Vol II 2-23)
A

Pack 2 shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure. Pack 2 resets when both cabin pressure relief valves close

297
Q
  1. When the bleed air over temperature switch opens, the control logic will close which valves? (AOM Vol II 2-36)
A

When the bleed air over temperature switch opens, the control logic will close the:
- High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV)
- Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV)

298
Q
  1. What will cause a PACK valve to close? (AOM Vol II 2-17)
A

When an overheat or PTC fault is detected, the respective pack valve closes resulting in a pack shut down

299
Q
  1. If you have only 1 equipment cooling fan, is carriage of perishable or animals allowed? (MEL 21-58-7b)
A

Need answer

300
Q
  1. With a left bleed duct isolated due to a bleed leak, what systems are affected? (AOM Vol II Pg2-36)
A
  • Left leading edge flap operates electrically in secondary mode
  • Demand pump 1 is selected OFF, to avoid the EICAS alert message HYD PRESS DEMAND from being displayed during approach
  • A maximum of one air conditioning pack on assures sufficient thrust is available from the 2 engines which supply air to the unaffected duct sections
301
Q
  1. What condition will cause a zone System (SYS) Fault light? (AOM Vol II Pg2-2)
A
  • Temperature zone duct overheat of zone temperature controller fault has occurred
  • Master trim air valve switch is closed
  • Trim Air switch is off
  • Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow
302
Q
  1. Bleed air is available for NAI operation with the Engine Bleed Air switch OFF, except when? (AOM Vol II Pg2-35)
A
  • The PRV had failed closed
  • The PRV has closed du to a bleed air overheat
  • The start valve is not closed
  • The HP bleed valve is failed open
303
Q
  1. Bleed air is available for reverse thrust operation with the Bleed Air switch ON or OFF, except when? (AOM Vol II Pg2-35)
A
  • The PRV has failed closed
  • The PRV has been closed due to a bleed air overheat
  • The start valve is not closed
304
Q
  1. If you received a PACK 2 Status message after pushback, what would you do? (AOM Vol I NP-7)
A
  • Before engine start investigate
  • After engine start nothing
305
Q
  1. Do you have to do a cross-bleed start from the supplemental procedures for a delayed engine start with the APU off? Why not?
A

No, crossbleed start in supplemental procedures is for starting first engine. Crossbleed you only have 1 engine started opposed to at least 2

306
Q
  1. On the ground, what condition must be met to configure EQUIPMENT COOLING for flight? (AOM Vol II Pg2-29)
A

On the ground, 1 engine on each wing must be running to configure for flight

307
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message “EQUIPMENT COOLING” mean on the ground? How can you configure for light mode? (AOM Vol II Pg2-30)
A

Equipment cooling is not configured for flight (ground valve still open), reconfigure, move selector to STBY (to close ground valve)

308
Q
  1. With a PRV closed due to an overheat, is NAI available? (AOM Vol II Pg3-1)
A

No

309
Q
  1. The forward cargo compartment receives heat how? (AOM Vol II Pg2-29)
A

Air exhausted from the (E&E) compartment

310
Q
  1. If both isolation valves are closed, what do you lose? (AOM Vol II Pg2-37)
A
  • Cargo smoke detection
  • Portable water pressurization
  • Lower lobe air conditioning
  • Trim air
311
Q
  1. With a PRV valve deferred, are you restricted from flight into known icing conditions? (MEL Pg36-22)
A

Yes

312
Q
  1. Is known icing and forecast icing the same thing?
A

No

313
Q
  1. Will wing anti-ice function on the ground? (AOM Vol II Pg3-1)
A

No

314
Q
  1. With Engine Bleed Valve closed, NACELLE ANTI-ICE bleed air is supplied by which bleed? (AOM Vol II Pg3-6)
A

When NACELLE ANTI-ICE switch is ON with the engine bleed valve closed, the HP bleed valve remains closed. Bleed air is supplied by IP bleed only

315
Q
  1. When is the wing anti-ice system inhibited? (AOM Vol II Pg3-2)
A
  • On the ground
  • With flaps extended
316
Q
  1. What is the procedure for descending into icing conditions near convective weather? (AOM Vol I Pg SP-112)
A
  • Pack high flow switch…..ON
  • Nacelle Anti-ice switches……ON
  • (at or below 22,000’) Wing Anti-ice switch…..On
317
Q
  1. You are in the Commonwealth of Independent States and you need to be de-iced. They are using ARTIKA 200 fluid, are there any additional procedures? (DEICE Pg4-5)
A

ARTIKA 200 is NOT approved for use, 100 is

318
Q
  1. With the PRV closed due to an overheat, is NAI available? (AOM Vol Pg3-1)
A

No

319
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message >WAI LEFT indicate? (AOM Vol II Pg3-10)
A

Left wing anti-ice valve not in the commanded position

320
Q
  1. The >ANTI-ICE NAC EICAS message indicates what? (AOM Vol II Pg3-10)
A

Any nacelle anti-ice system is on and the TAT is greater than 12*C and ice detector does not detect any ice

321
Q
  1. How does the NAI valve indicate open? (AOM Vol II Pg3-6)
A

NAI is displayed beside the EICAS N1 warning the NAI valve is open

322
Q
  1. What is the difference between a pre-takeoff contamination check and a pre-takeoff check? (DEICE Pg2-6)
A
  • Pre-takeoff Contamination Check: HOT has expired and within 5 minutes of takeoff roll
    (Must be done from outside unless operators program specifies otherwise)
  • Pre-takeoff Check: a contamination check within the HOT
    (From inside observe rep surface)
323
Q
  1. Do we have to select MAX power for a takeoff after being deiced?
A

No

324
Q
  1. You need to deice at KDOV, can you utilize MIL-SPEC deicing fluid? If so, are there any additional procedures needed? (DEICE Pg4-5)
A

Yes, and you will need a Pre=-Takeoff contamination check

325
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message >ICING mean? (AOM Vol II Pg3-10)
A

Icing conditions exists, wing anti-ice is off and any nacelle anti-ice switch is off

326
Q
  1. What are the indications that the NAI and WAI are on? (AOM Vol II Pg 3-6,7)
A
  • NAI on EICAS N1
  • WAI on respective EICAS N1
327
Q
  1. When must continuous ignition be on? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-22)
A
  • Heavy Rain
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Volcanic Ash
  • Icing Conditions
  • Standing Water or Slush on Runway
328
Q
  1. Who id responsible to ensure a de-ice vendor (ADVL) Approved De-ice Vendor List? If they are not on the list, can they be trained onsite? (DEICE Pg 3-2,3)
A

Kalitta Air Quality Assurance Manager, Yes they can be trained

329
Q
  1. You are in the Commonwealth of Independent States and you need to be de-iced. They are using ARTIKA 100 fluid, are there any additional procedures? (DEICE Pg. 4-5)
A

Pre-takeoff contamination check

330
Q
  1. When in VNAV, what speed will the airplane fly when reaching the T/D symbol? (AOM Vol II Pg 11-36)
A

ECON descend speed

331
Q

331 blank

A

Blank

332
Q
  1. When is the speed (SPD) switch active and operative? (AOM 4-3)
A
  • Inactive in TO/GA, FLCH SPD and VNAV ___
  • Operative 400’ after takeoff to landing
333
Q
  1. When does VNAV activate if ARMED? (AOM 4-6)
A

Activates at 400’ above field elevation

334
Q
  1. Describe the functions of the THR button. Light illuminated. Light extinguished. (AOM Vol II 4-3)
A

Illuminated: (A/T Mode) Changes A/T mode to THR REF when:
- reference thrust limit is CLB, CLB1, CLB2, CRZ or CON and pitch mode is ALT or V/S
- reference thrust limit is GA and pitch mode is G/S or FLARE or pitch mode is ALT or V/S and flaps in landing position

Extinguished: (Thrust Limit Mode)
- after takeoff and during climb, changes reference thrust limit to armed climb thrust limit
- changes reference thrust limit to CLB unless engine inoperative or CON selected, then reference thrust limit is CON

335
Q
  1. Name some reasons the auto-throttle would disengage. (AOM Vol II 4-25)
A

Manually: Autothrottle Arm switch to OFF or pushing either Autothrottle Disconnect switches

Automatically:
- Fault in active mode is detected
- Thrust reverser is raised to idle
- When the FMC Master switch is switched
- Both FMCs fail (cannot be reactivated)
- Two or more engines are shut down (cannot be reactivated)

336
Q
  1. What type of mode is VNAV? (AOM Vol II 11-33)
A

Pitch Mode: provides vertical profile guidance through the climb, cruise and descent phases of flight

337
Q
  1. Descend Direct (DES DIR) on the VNAV descent page does what? (AOM Vol II 11-143)
A

Deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude

338
Q
  1. Is it possible to have only one off-side tuning light on? (AOM Vol II 5-21)
A

No, unless it is burned out

339
Q
  1. What happens if a VHF radio has a stuck mic on the ground? (AOM Vol II 5-22)
A

On the ground, any VHF radio transmitting for longer than 35 seconds is disabled. The radio is enabled when the microphone switch for that radio is released

340
Q
  1. When is an Enroute Delay required to be sent? (AOM Vol I SP-23)
A

If the enroute flight time exceeds the projected flight plan time by more than 5 minutes

341
Q
  1. The cargo interphone system provides what? (AOM Vol II 5-28)
A

The cargo interphone system provides communication between load personnel, the flight deck and ground crew

342
Q
  1. Describe the steps necessary to receive a SATCOM call. (AOM Vol II 5-26)
A
  • SAT L Transmitter Select switch (ACP)…………PUSH
  • Adjust volume control as required
  • CDU MENU Function key…………………………….PUSH
  • <SAT (LSK)…………………………………………………..PUSH
  • <ANSWER (LSK)…………………………………………..PUSH
343
Q
  1. Explain how to tune the HF radio as required by the FO preflight. (AOM Vol I NP-39)
A

Tune each HF radio to a different frequency and transmit. Presence of side tone indicates a satisfactory transmitter check

344
Q
  1. The oxygen mask microphone is enabled when? (AOM Vol II 5-1)
A

Oxygen mask microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-hand door open

345
Q
  1. The offside tuning light on a RTU indicates what? (AOM Vol II 5-3)
A
  • The radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel
  • The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
346
Q
  1. Can you do a proper HF radio check without tuning the radio?
A

NO (tune to UTC time or volmet and transmit)

347
Q
  1. How do you make a SATCOM call to a number not in the directory? (AOM Vol II 5-25)
A
  • SAT L Transmitter Select Switch (ACP)…..PUSH
  • Adjust volume control as required
  • CDU MENU Function Key…..PUSH
  • <SAT (LSK)…..PUSH
  • Using the CDU scratch pad, enter the desired telephone number in the format below
    • “AACCXXXNUMBER”
      • AA…..Access Code (+ or 00) (the + sign or digits 00 are interchangeable)
      • CCC…..Country Code (1 to 3 digits, e.g. 1 for USA & Canada, 49 for Germany, 86 for China)
      • XXX……Area/City Code (2 to 4 digits, e.g. 734 for Detroit, 69 for Frankfurt, Germany)
      • NUMBER…..Local Telephone Number 97 to 10 digits)
348
Q
  1. What activates the O2 microphone? (AOM Vol II 5-1)
A

Oxygen mask microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-hand door open

349
Q
  1. How do you reset to boom-mic after the O2 mic has been activated? (AOM Vol II 5-1)
A

Boom microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-handed door closed and Reset/Test slide lever pushed and released

350
Q
  1. You have cold dead airplane, can it be loaded and fueled without someone entering the cockpit? (AOM Vol II 6-13, 14)
A
  • If EXT 1 is available, fueling lower cargo loading can occur
  • If EXT 2 is available, main deck cargo loading can occur
351
Q
  1. When is the Electric Synoptic inhibited? (AOM Vol 6-7)
A

During autoland, Message ‘ELECTRICAL SYNOPTIC INHIBITED FOR AUTOLAND” appears on the synoptic display

352
Q
  1. During an Autoland, when do the A/C and D/C busses isolate? (AOM Vol II 6-14)
A

During automatic precision approach below 1,500’ radio altitude

353
Q
  1. What normally powers the Main Standby Buss? (AOM Vol II 6-14)
A

The main standby bus is normally powered by AC bus 3

354
Q
  1. With the BATT switch ON, standby power selector in AUTO and A/C Bus 3 unpowere, the Main Standby Bus is powered by what source? (AOM Vol II 6-14)
A

The Main Standby Bus is powered by the Main Standby Inverter

355
Q
  1. Where does the Ground Service Bus get its power from? (AOM Vol II 6-12)
A

AC Bus 1

356
Q
  1. With the battery charger unpowered, the Main Battery will power the Main Standby Bus for a minimum of? (AOM Vol II 6-15)
A

30 minutes

357
Q
  1. What are the power sources for the Ground Service Bus? (AOM Vol II 6-12)
A

AC Bus 1

358
Q
  1. With the APU generator 1 inoperative and no External power available, what system or systems will be affected? (AOM VOL II 5-13)
A
  • Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment lights
  • fueling system
  • auxiliary hydraulic pump 4
359
Q
  1. What are the reasons for disconnecting the IDG per the QRH? (AOM Vol II 6-11, QRH 6-4)
A

To prevent damage to the IDG:
- IDG oil pressure low
- IDG oil temperature high
- Generator control open due to uncorrectable generator frequency fault

360
Q
  1. Will the IDG ever disconnect automatically? (AOM Vol II 6-11)
A

Extremely High Drive Oil Temp if not manually disconnected by crew

361
Q
  1. A Generator Drive Light (IDG) indicates what? (AOM Vol II 6-6)
A
  • IDG Oil Pressure Low
  • IDG Oil Temperature High
  • GCB open due to Uncorrectable Generator Frequency Fault
362
Q
  1. During load shedding, what are some EICAS messages that may show depending on fuel panel configuration? (AOM Vol II 6-10)
A
  • FUEL PUMP 3 FWD
  • FUEL OVRD 2 FWD
  • FUEL OVRD 3 FWD
  • FUEL OVRD CTR L
  • FUEL PUMP 2 FWD
363
Q
  1. While adjusting your seat electrically, there is a spark coming from below the seat. What is the fastest way to remove the power supply to that seat? (AOM Vol II 1-72)
A

A Master ON/OFF switch located behind the lumbar support in/out adjustment handle

364
Q
  1. Can you do a CAT III approach with an engine generator DMI’d? (MEL 24-1, 22-28)
A

Yes

365
Q
  1. If number 4 engine generator is deferred, which generator powers the SYCH BUS during a CAT III approach? NEED ANSWER
A

NEED ANSWER

366
Q
  1. What does the BAT position on the STBY Power Switch do? (AOM Vol II 6-2)
A
  • Powers Main Battery Bus from Main Battery through Main Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch on
  • Powers APU Battery Bus from APU Battery through APU Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch on
  • Disables Main and APU Battery Charger
  • Powers Main and APU Standby Busses from their related Batteries through their Hot Battery Busses and Standby Inverters with Battery Switch on
367
Q
  1. What does the BAT position on the STBY Power Switch do? (AOM Vol II 6-2)
A
  • Powers Main Battery Bus from Main Battery through Main Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch on
  • Powers APU Battery Bus from APU Battery through APU Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch on
  • Disables Main and APU Battery Charger
  • Powers Main and APU Standby Busses from related Batteries through their Hot Battery Busses and Standby Inverters with Battery Switch on
368
Q
  1. Name the items on the GROUND HANDLING BUS? (AOM Vol II 6-13)
A
  • Lower Cargo Handling Equipment and Compartment Lights
  • Fueling System
  • Aux Hydraulic Pump 4
369
Q
  1. Name the items on the GROUND SERVICE BUS? (AOM Vol II 6-12)
A
  • Main and APU Battery Chargers
  • Upper Deck Doors
  • Fuel Pump for APU Start
  • Flight Deck Door, Nav and Service Lights (cont.)
  • Misc. Service Lights and Equipment
370
Q
  1. How many Utility Buses are there? (AOM Vol II 6-12)
A

4

371
Q
  1. Selecting the BATT switch to “ON” does what specifically? (AOM Vol II 6-2)
A
  • Main Battery is available as Backup Power Source for Main Battery Buss and Main Standby Buss
  • APU Battery is available as Backup Power Source for APU Battery Buss and APU Standby Buss
372
Q
  1. How are the Captain and FO’s transfer buses powered? How are they backed up? (AOM Vol II 6-13)
A
  • CPT - AC BUSS 3, AC BUSS 1 BACKUP
  • FO - AC BUSS 2, AC BUSS 1 BACKUP
373
Q
  1. What information must be recorded in the aircraft logbook and the event log after an engine failure/shutdown? (GOM 8-23)
A
  • Engine operating condition prior to shutdown (I.e. stable, surging, etc)
  • Engine condition after shutdown including oil pressure
  • Total flight time that the engine windmilled
  • Any other engine operating parameters exceeded during this flight
  • If the engine was shut down with the firewall shutoff
374
Q
  1. Can the APU be started in flight? (AOM Vol II 7-36)
A

No

375
Q
  1. Moving the fuel control switch to cutoff does what? (AOM Vol II 7-18)
A
  • Closes Fuel Valve
  • Removes Igniter Power
  • Unlocks Engine Fire Switch
  • Commands Related Hydraulic Demand Pump to Operate when Demand Pump Selector in Auto
376
Q
  1. During an in-flight auto-start, what EGT limitation is limiting? (AOM Vol II 7-30)
A

Takeoff

377
Q
  1. How is the engine oil cooled? (AOM Vol II 7-34)
A

Flowing through the FUEL/OIL HEAT EXCHANGER

378
Q
  1. What happens when the oil filter becomes saturated with contaminants? (AOM Vol II 7-34)
A

Oil bypasses the filter then returns to the reservoir

379
Q
  1. Where is the engine oil quantity measured? (AOM Vol II 7-34)
A

Reservoir

380
Q
  1. Describe the APU start sequence. (AOM Vol II 7-36)
A
  • APU Fuel Valve and Inlet Door open simultaneously
  • Starter Engagement occurs when Inlet Door is fully open
  • continues with Ignition, Light-off and engine acceleration to rated speed
381
Q
  1. What is normal N1 and N2 idle? (AOM Vol II 7-3, 8)
A

White indications

382
Q
  1. Where does STBY ignition receive its power from and why do we keep it in NORM? (AOM Vol II 7-32)
A
  • Standby power system (AC then, Standby if AC fails)
  • AC power system supplies power to selected igniter
  • Standby power system supplies power continuously to both igniters if AC power system is not powered
  • 1 or 2 standby system supplies power continuously ONLY to related igniter
383
Q
  1. The fuel control switch when placed to RUN with auto-start ON does what? With auto-start OFF? (AOM Vol II 7-18)
A

ON = opens Spar and Engine fuel valves
- ECC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve and igniter operation
OFF = opens Spar and Engine fuel valves
- energizes igniter (s)

384
Q
  1. Approach idle is selected inflight when? (AOM Vol II 7-28)
A
  • NAI is on
  • Flaps are in Landing position
  • CONT ignition is on
385
Q
  1. If an EEC automatically switches to ALT mode, do you lose auto-throttles? Why? (AOM Vol II 7-27)
A

Yes, because all EEC’s must be in NORM or manually switched to ALT

386
Q
  1. What is the reason for approach idle? (AOM Vol II 7-28)
A

Decrease acceleration time for go-around

387
Q
  1. When does approach idle change back to ground idle? (AOM Vol II 7-28)
A

Five seconds after touchdown, increase thrust from minimum idle and no use of thrust reverser operation

388
Q
  1. Does the APU auto shutdown for a fire or do you have to pull the fire switch? (AOM Vol II 8-3)
A

AUTO

389
Q
  1. How long does the APU run after selecting it to OFF? Why? (AOM Vol II 7-37)
A
  • 60 seconds
  • for cooling down and fire detection
390
Q
  1. When starting the APU off of a TR, what happens if the TR overheats? (AOM Vol II 16-42-2)
A

Switch to APU battery, removes TR from APU starting circuit

391
Q
  1. If we use auto-start for an inflight relight, what EGT limit should be used? How many start attempts? (AOM Vol II 7-30)
A
  • Takeoff EGT limit
  • EEC will continue start attempts until stable at IDLE or Fuel Control Switch to Cut Off (unlimited)
392
Q
  1. What are some of the Thrust Reference Modes that can be displayed on the Primary EICAS? (AOM Vol II 7-2)
A

(TO, TO1, TO2), D-TO, (CLB, CLB1, CLB2), CON, CRZ, GA

393
Q
  1. With the Autostart ON, what actions are commanded by moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN? (AOM Vol II 7-18)
A
  • Opens Spar and Engine fuel valves
  • ECC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve and igniter operation energizes igniter(s)
394
Q
  1. What would cause an increase of oil quantity during cruise flight? (AOM Vol II 7-34)
A

Indicator malfunction or leak in the FUEL/OIL Heat Exchanger

395
Q
  1. Where is the engine oil pressure measured? (AOM Vol II 7-34)
A

Upstream of the engine

396
Q
  1. Where is engine oil temperature measured? (AOM Vol II 7-34)
A

Downstream of the engine

397
Q
  1. Can the APU fire bottle be discharged from the ground? (AOM Vol II 8-7,9)
A

Yes, automatically or by pulling the handle in the wheel well and pushing the button

398
Q
  1. There are fire detection and extinguishing systems for which areas of the airplane? (AOM Vol II 8-8)
A
  • APU
  • Cargo Compartments
  • Engines
  • Lavatories
399
Q
  1. How can the fire bell be silenced? (AOM Vol II 8-8)
A
  • Extinguishing the fire
  • Pushing either Master Warning/Caution reset switch (wheel well horn continues to sound)
  • Pulling the APU fire control switch in the right wheel well
400
Q
  1. Is the Main Deck Cargo Compartment an “AND” or “OR” logic configuration? (AOM Vol II 8-9)
A

AND

401
Q
  1. When are the Engine and APU detector loops monitored for faults? (AOM Vol II 8-11)
A

The engine and APU detector loops are continuously monitored for faults. In addition to continuous testing of engine and APU detection systems, testing of all dual loop fire/overheat detectors and cargo compartment smoke detectors occurs when electrical power is initially applied.

402
Q
  1. If the cargo smoke detectors are configured for single loop operation due to a fault, automatic testing of the system is conducted when? (AOM Vol II 8-11)
A

Every 60 minutes

403
Q
  1. For engine fire on the ground, why do we wait for a positive engine shutdown before proceeding?
A

Ensures fuel no longer flowing to engine, feeding the fire

404
Q
  1. When the Main Cargo ARM switch is pushed, what occurs? (AOM Vol II 8-4)
A
  • Enables main deck fire suppression
  • Turns off 2 packs
  • Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
  • Turns off all airflow to main deck
  • Turns off airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
  • Closes master trim air valve
405
Q
  1. There are fire detection and protection systems for which areas of the aircraft? (AOM Vol II 8-9)
A
  • Main deck cargo compartment
  • Lower cargo compartment forward and aft
406
Q
  1. What does the EICAS message >DET FIRE APU indicate? (AOM Vol II 8-13)
A

APU fire detection loops A or B failed

407
Q
  1. Pulling the engine fire handle does what? (AOM Vol II 8-1)
A
  • Closes the related engine and spar fuel valves
  • Closes the related engine bleed air valve
  • Trips the related engine generator
  • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine driven hydraulic pump
  • Depressurizes the related engine driven hydraulic pump
  • Arm both related engine fire extinguishers
408
Q
  1. Pushing the Main Cargo AFT/FWD Fire ARM switch does what? (AOM Vol II 8-4)
A
  • Turns off 2 packs
  • Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
  • Confirms equipment cooling to override mode
  • Turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
  • Closes master trim air valve
409
Q
  1. Memory item for Engine Fire On The Ground? (QRH BC-1)
A

FUEL CTRL SWITCH (affected engine)………………………………..CUTOFF
WARNING: DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE HAS SHUTDOWN

If fire indication persists after engine shutdown
ENGINE FIRE SWITCH (affected engine)……………………………..PULL
ENGINE FIRE SWITCH (affected engine)……………………………..ROTATE

After a momentary delay:
ENGINE FIRE SWITCH (affected engine)……………………………..ROTATE (to other bottle)
Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications

410
Q
  1. Engine 4 is running, while starting engine 1, number 4 generator drops offline, do you have fire detection or protection or both? (AOM Vol II 6-21)
A
  • Yes
  • APU Batt Bus for Detection and Main Hot Batt Bus for Extinguishing (protection)
411
Q
  1. What is being tested when pushing a Squib Test button? (AOM Vol II 8-12)
A
  • Electrical continuity
  • Squib control circuit
  • Squib lights
412
Q
  1. What are the indications a fire bottle has been discharged or has low pressure? (AOM Vol II 8-1,13)
A
  • Amber BTL DISCHARGE lights on overhead panel and EICAS advisory (BTL LO L, R), (ENG A, B)
413
Q
  1. What will release the Engine Fire Handle? (AOM Vol II 8-1)
A
  • Fire Warning
  • Fuel Control Switch in CUTOFF
  • Push override lock switch
414
Q
  1. When configuring the CDU for takeoff, what is considered reasonable when comparing the FMC generator stabilizer trim to the ACARS or TLR Stabilizer Trim table? (AOM PERF-21)
A

No more than 2 units is reasonable

415
Q
  1. With the autopilot engaged, will operation of the alternate trim switches cause the autopilot to disconnect? (AOM Vol II 9-17)
A

NO

416
Q
  1. Is asymmetric flap protection available in ALTN mode? (AOM Vol II 9-24)
A

NO

417
Q
  1. Will the flap lever operate with the ALTN flap switch armed? (AOM Vol II 9-24)
A

NO

418
Q
  1. What will happen if the Alternate Stabilizer Trim switches and Control Wheel switches are held in opposite directions? (AOM Vol II 9-16)
A

No trim is commanded

419
Q
  1. If automatic Stabilizer Trim cutout occurs, how is hydraulic power restored to the related control module? (AOM Vol II 9-16)
A

Stab Trim Cutout Switch to On

420
Q
  1. Control column trim cutoff function does not affect which form of trim actuation? (AOM Vol II 9-17)
A

Alternate Trim Inputs

421
Q
  1. What system allows rudder control to be regained if a jam occurs? (AOM Vol II 9-20)
A

Rudder system shearouts allow rudder control to be regained if a jam occurs or significant manual force is applied to rudder pedals

747 (6 decks)

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