Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia?

A- I
B- V
C- VI
D- VII

A

B- V

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2
Q

What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome?

A- Bacitracin ointment
B- Iodophor solution
C- Petrolatum gel
D- Mineral oil

A

D- Mineral oil

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3
Q

Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique the performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft?

A- Donor site first
B- Recipient site first
C- Donor site only
D- Recipient site only

A

A- Donor site first

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4
Q

What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic procedure?

A- 8-11mm Hg
B- 12-15 mm Hg
C- 16-19 mm Hg
D- 20-23 mm Hg

A

B- 12-15 mm Hg

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5
Q

Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object?

A- Strabismus
B- Chalazion
C- Glaucoma
D- Cataract

A

A- Strabismus

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6
Q

What procedure is performed to correct chronic cerebral ischemia?

A- Rhizotomy
B- Cranioplasty
C- Arteriography
D- Endarterectomy

A

D- Endarterectomy

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7
Q

According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk?

A- 27%
B- 18%
C- 4 1/2%
D- 1%

A

B- 18%

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8
Q

A second intention wound heals by?

A- Granulation
B- Evisceration
C- Primary union
D- Delayed suturing

A

A- Granulation

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9
Q

Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with?

A- Lidocaine
B- Digitoxin
C- Prostigmin
D- Furosemide

A

A- Lidocaine

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10
Q

How many milliners equal two (2) ounces?

A- 40
B- 50
C- 60
D- 70

A

C- 60

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11
Q

In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia?

A- Left lateral
B- Right lateral
C- Trendelenburg
D- Reverse trendelenburg

A

C- Trendelenburg

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12
Q

Which of the following types of suture create the least tissue trauma and drag?

A- Swaged multifilament
B- Swaged monofilament
C- Threaded multifilament
D- Threaded monofilament

A

B- Swaged monofilament

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13
Q

Which organization has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place?

A- EPA
B- CDC
C- OSHA
D- NIOSH

A

C- OSHA

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14
Q

Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is most applicable to the surgical patient?

A- Esteem and prestige
B- Love and belonging
C- Safety and security
D- Physiological and survival

A

D- Physiological and survival

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15
Q

What type of procedure might require a laparoscopy combination drape?

A- Pilonidal cystectomy
B- Subacromial decompression
C- Abdominoperineal resection
D- Femorofemoral bypass

A

C- Abdominoperineal resection

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16
Q

Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by?

A- Cellular membrane damage
B- Interrupt cellular division
C- Altering cellular DNA
D- Coagulation of protein

A

D- Coagulation of protein

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17
Q

A patient’s fingernail polish is removed to?

A- Prevent surgical wound infection
B- Allow temperature to be recorded
C- Prevent ESU exit pathway
D- Allow for use of pulse oximeter

A

D- Allow for use of pulse oximeter

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18
Q

How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the Foley indwelling catheter?

A- 5 mL
B- 10 mL
C- 15 mL
D- 20 mL

A

B- 10 mL

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19
Q

What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep?

A- Incision site to periphery using circular motion
B- Periphery to incision site using circular motion
C- Incision site to periphery using back and forth motion
D- Periphery to incision site using back and forth motion

A

A- Incision site to periphery using circular motion

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20
Q

The laboratory test that determines the ration of erythrocytes to whole blood is?

A- Reticulocyte count
B- Differential count
C- Hematocrit
D- Hemoglobin

A

C- Hematocrit
(measure red blood cells)

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21
Q

Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?

A- Colon
B- Calculi
C- Tonsils
D- Uterus

A

B- Calculi

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22
Q

Where should the surgical technologist begin with performing closing counts?

A- Backtable
B- Mayo stand
C- Off the field
D- Operative field

A

D- Operative field

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23
Q

Which of the following catheter tips is used in a patient with a ureteral stricture?

A- Olive
B- Coude
C- Whistle
D- Mushroom

A

B- Coude

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24
Q

Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing?

A- Neck
B- Inguinal
C- Extremity
D- Abdominal

A

A- Neck
(think artery is in the neck )

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25
Q

Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?

A- Topical thrombin
B- Oxidized cellulose
C- Absorbable gelatin
D- Absorbable collagen

A

D- Absorbable collagen

(substance to help prevent/stop bleeding from the bleeding site)

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26
Q

During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR table is straightened to facilitate?

A- Proper circulation
B- Wound hemostasis
C- Adequate respirations
D- Tissue approximation

A

D- Tissue approximation

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27
Q

Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct?

A- Patent ductus arteriosus
B- Coarctation of the aorta
C- Aortic aneurysm
D- Transposition of the great vessels

A

B- Coarctation of the aorta

(reanastomosis: taking apart and rearranging the surgery)

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28
Q

For which of the following diagnoses would a patient undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatograpy?

A- Cholecystitis
B- Choledocholithiasis
C- Pancreatitis
D- Pancreatolithiasis

A

B- Choledocholithiasis

(Needing to see the biliary and pancreatic tract)

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29
Q

The high ligation of the fonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an?

A- Spermatocelectomy
B- Varicocelectomy
C- Epididymectomy
D- Vasovasostomy

A

B- Varicocelectomy

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30
Q

Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision?

A- I and II
B- I and III
C- II and III
D- II and IV

A

A- I and II

(1st and 2nd nerves cause loss of smell and vision.)

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31
Q

Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy?

A- Culdocentesis
B- Colposcopy
C- Culdotomy
D- Colporrhaphy

A

A- Culdocentesis

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32
Q

Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?

A- Vitrectomy
B- Iridectomy
C- Enucleation
D- Keratoplasty

A

B- Iridectomy

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33
Q

What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture?

A- Arch bar application
B- TMJ osteotomy
C- LeFort I
D- LeFort II

A

A- Arch bar application
(wiring the jaw shut)

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34
Q

Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?

A- Hip
B- Knee
C- Ankle
D- Shoulder

A

A- Hip

(Abduction splint: brace that prevents excessive hip flexion)

35
Q

Untreated acute otitis media may result in?

A- Tonsillitis
B- Mastoiditis
C- Adenoiditis
D- Ethmoiditis

A

B- Mastoiditis

(Acute otitis media: Infection of the middle ear)

36
Q

Which of the following is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency?

A- Positron emission tomography
B- Magnetic resonance imaging
C- Computed tomography
D- Doppler ultrasound

A

D- Doppler ultrasound

37
Q

The instrument shown below would be used during a? (see exam for example)

A- Parotidectomy
B- Tonsillectomy
C- Rhytidectomy
D- Stapedectomy

A

B- Tonsillectomy

38
Q

Which of the following is the body’s primary source of energy?

A- Carbohydrates
B- Vitamins
C- Proteins
D- Fats

A

A- Carbohydrates

39
Q

What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?

A- Hyoid
B- Manubrium
C- Thyroid gland
D- Cricoid cartilage

A

D- Cricoid cartilage

(prevents aspiration during induction and ET tube placement)

40
Q

What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body?

A- In-situ
B- In-vivo
C- Metastasis
D- Encapsulation

A

C- Metastasis

41
Q

The shared passageway for food and air is the?

A- Trachea
B- Larynx
C- Pharynx
D- Bronchus

A

C- Pharynx

42
Q

The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the?

A- Prostate
B- Epididymis
C- Tunica vaginalis
D- Ejaculatory duct

A

B- Epididymis

43
Q

The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the?

A- Bicuspid
B- Tricuspid
C- Aortic semilunar
D- Pulmonary semilunar

A

A- Bicuspid

44
Q

Which characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis?

A- Hinge
B- Immobile
C- Slightly movable
D- Freely movable

A

C- Slightly movable

(amphiarthrosis: Slight movement between the vertebrae/backbone)

45
Q

What is the most abundant ion in the body?

A- Calcium
B- Sodium
C- Potassium
D- Magnesium

A

A- Calcium

46
Q

Which of the following is a method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not conducive to growth and viability?

A- Conjugation
B- Transduction
C- Spore formation
D- Genetic mutation

A

C- Spore formation

47
Q

What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose?

A- Liver
B- Stomach
C- Pancreas
D- Gallbladder

A

C- Pancreas

(regulates sugar and blood glucose)

48
Q

What does the term strike-through mean?

A- Rupture of heat seal during sterilization
B- Failure of biological indicator during sterilization
C- Perforation of sharp object through sterile wrapper
D- Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers

A

D- Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers

49
Q

Which of the following monitoring devices would be used within a vessel?

A- ECG lead
B- Swan-Ganz
C- Pulse oximeter
D- Sphygmomanometer

A

B- Swan-Ganz

50
Q

When adding 30mL of injectable saline to 30mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become?

A- 0.25%
B- 0.5%
C- 0.75%
D- 1.0%

A

A- 0.25%

30mL + 30mL= 60mL 30mL/60mL x (X)/(0.5%)
Cross multiply:
30mL x 0.5% = 15 and 60mL x (X)= 60
New equation becomes: 15/60 x 60/60=
Cross multiply: 60’s cancel each other out
Divide; 15/60= 0.25%

51
Q

A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to?

A- Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect
B- Determine if the patient is allergic to the soap
C- Reduce the amount of time for the pre-op prep
D- Leave a visible film so the prep borders will show

A

A- Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect

52
Q

Which area is prepped last when performing the skin prep for a Bartholin’s cystectomy?

A- Anus
B- Mons pubis
C- Vagina
D- Perineum

A

A- Anus

(Anus & vagina’s are prepped last)

53
Q

The sterile surgical technologist should drape a table from?

A- Side to side
B- Back to front
C- Front to back
D- Open drape, lay it down

A

C- Front to back

54
Q

Which of the following can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm board greater than 90 degree’s?

A- Brachial plexus
B- Cervical plexus
C- Rotator cuff
D- Acromicoclavicular joint

A

A- Brachial plexus

(nerves that sends signals from the spinal cord to shoulder, arms, and hands.

55
Q

What is the purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling Foley catheter?

A- Obtain urine specimen
B- Instill irrigation fluids
C- Provide hemostasis
D- Prevent urine reflux

A

B- Instill irrigation fluids

(Third lumen is put into the bladder)

56
Q

Which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field during cataract procedures?

A- Fluorescent overhead lights
B- Fiberoptic headlamps
C- Operating microscope
D- Surgical loupes

A

C- Operating microscope

57
Q

Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are?

A- Raytecs
B- Kitners
C- Pledgets
D- Cottonoids

A

D- Cottonoids

58
Q

Which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments?

A- Oxycel
B- Avitene
C- Gelfoam
D- Thrombin

A

B- Avitene

(an absorbable topical microfibrilar collagen)

59
Q

Which surgical specialty would utilize a phacoemulsification machine?

A- Neurosurgery
B- Maxillofacial
C- Ophthalmology
D- Otorhinolaryngology

A

C- Ophthalmology

(Phacoemulsification: Cataract surgery)

60
Q

Which of the following lasers would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye?

A- Argon
B- Excimer
C- Ho: YAG
D- Carbon Dioxide

A

D- Carbon Dioxide

(the laser would not pass through clear fluids)

61
Q

For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pancreaticojeunostomy?

A- Gastroschisis
B- Morbid obesity
C- Neonatal jaundice
D- Alcoholic pancreatitis

A

D- Alcoholic pancreatitis

62
Q

In which procedure would a Denis-Browne ring retractor be used?

A- Cystectomy
B- Nephrectomy
C- Retropubic prostatectomy
D- Transurethral prostatectomy

A

C- Retropubic prostatectomy

63
Q

Which cranial nerve is severed as a last resort treatment of Ménière’s disease?

A- VII
B- VIII
C- IX
D- X

A

B- VIII

(Ménière’s disease: Is a balance disorder. The 8th cranial nerve is sound & movement.)

64
Q

Brachytherapy is performed to treat?

A- Uterine prolapse
B- Endometriosis
C- Cervical cancer
D- Menorrhagia

A

C- Cervical cancer

65
Q

Which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia?

A- Radial keratotomy
B- Scleral buckling
C- Keratoplasty
D- Vitrectomy

A

A- Radial keratotomy

to correct nearsightedness

66
Q

What is the name of this retractor? (see exam for picture)

A- Charnley
B- Bennett
C- Harrington
D- Richardson

A

B- Bennett

67
Q

Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made?

A- Canine fossa
B- Frontal sinus
C- Eyebrow
D- Tear duct

A

A- Canine fossa
(upper jaw)

68
Q

The device used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow is a/an?

A- Caliper
B- Doppler
C- Pacemaker
D- Manometer

A

B- Doppler

69
Q

The needle holder shown below would be used during a:

A- Vaginal hysterectomy
B- Repair of rotator cuff
C- Tonsillectomy
D- Craniotomy

A

D- Craniotomy

70
Q

A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food is:

A- Anabolism
B- Catabolism
C- Metabolism
D- Commensalism

A

B- Catabolism

71
Q

Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?

A- Semicircular canals
B- Cranial nerve V
C- Labyrinth
D- Cochlea

A

A- Semicircular canals

72
Q

The first step of urine production when fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called:

A- Tubular secretion
B- Tubular reabsorption
C- Glomerular filtration
D- Glomerular absorption

A

C- Glomerular filtration

73
Q

The adipose tissue overlying the symphysis is the?

A- Labia majora
B- Mons pubis
C- Perineum
D- Vestibule

A

B- Mons pubis

74
Q

The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the?

A- III
B- V
C- VII
D- X

A

D- X

75
Q

Wounds during surgery are classified according to the degree of microbial contamination. A wound that is old and was contaminated prior to the procedure or that has perforated viscera is referred to as?

A- Clean contaminated
B- Clean
C- Dirty
D- Contaminated

A

C- Dirty

76
Q

Which layer of the skin is composed of adipose tissue?

A- Cutaneous
B- Dermis
C- Epidermis
D- Subcutaneous

A

D- Subcutaneous

77
Q

Which of the following techniques will the CST employ when donning gloves immediately after gowning?

A- Open glove technique
B- Traditional gloving
C- Closed glove technique
D- Single glove technique

A

C- Closed glove technique

78
Q

When assisting with cases involving an immunecompromised patient , the CST must fulfill which of the following duties?

A- Aseptic technique
B- Proper instrumentation counts
C- Assisting the surgeon
D- Maintaining communication with he circulator

A

A- Aseptic technique

79
Q

When a surgeon asks that a specimen be sent for permanent section, how will the circulator will place it in a specimen container?

A- Dry
B- Sterile saline
C- Formalin
D- Cidex

A

C- Formalin

80
Q

The microorganism associated most with deep-tissue wounds post operatively is?

A- Pseudomonos aeruginosa
B- Enterococcus
C- Streptococcus
D- Escherichia coli

A

A- Pseudomonos aeruginosa

81
Q

The time is takes from the administration of a drug until its action becomes evident refers to?

A- Transition period
B- Onset
C- Duration
D- Function

A

B- Onset

82
Q

Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes?

A- PTFE
B- Polypropylene
C- Polyester fiber
D- Polyglactin 910

A

C- Polyester fiber

83
Q

What radiopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the patient is allergic to iodine?

A- Isovue
B- Renograffin
C- Methylene blue
D- Indigo carmine

A

B- Renograffin

84
Q
A