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T6 Tech > 4FTS EKQ > Flashcards

4FTS EKQ Flashcards

1
Q

In the event of an Uncontrolled Flying Control Movement/Control Restriction/Unusual Occurrence, what should you ensure the Groundcrew do not start?

A

Post flight servicing

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2
Q

When should aircrew have their G-suit re-fitted?

A

Changing between winter & summer AEA

If they have any doubt about the effectiveness of the G-suit

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3
Q

On entry to Seahawk and Sparrowhawk lines, aircrew taxy past ‘check pins’ signs. What checks should they confirm at this point?

A

Ejection seats made safe, command eject solo locked in detent

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4
Q

If practicable, the G-Awareness and G-Warm should be executed within how many minutes prior to the high G manoeuvres?

A

< 5 mins

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5
Q

When can a sortie be continued with an anti-G system that is less than 100% serviceable?

A

If deemed safe by aircraft commander, normally < 3g, absolute limit of 4g.

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6
Q

What is the Aerodrome Rescue and Firefighting Category required for Texan?

A

2

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7
Q

What is the Aerodrome Rescue and Firefighting Category required for formation take-offs and landings?

A

5

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8
Q

What should the initial start call to ATC include?

A

Callsign
POB
Location
[Number of aircraft - Formation]
ATIS code copied

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9
Q

What are the two LL VFR departures that can be flown by fixed wing aircraft at Valley?

A

LL South
LL East/North

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10
Q

Rotary aircraft transit within the CMATZ not above a maximum of what height on the Valley QFE?

A

500ft

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11
Q

Low level VFR recoveries to Valley from the South should remain at what height on the Valley QFE?

A

1000ft

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12
Q

On a low level VFR recovery from the North/East (including the A5 Pass), unless dictated by weather, aircraft should fly at what height on the Valley QFE?

A

2500ft (not below) crossing the Menai Strait

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13
Q

Within what range to the airfield can you ‘request further descent’, enabling ATC to descend you 500ft below the RVC/SMAC under a T/S?

A

10nm

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14
Q

With Valley using rwy 31 and Mona using rwy 04, what heights should traffic fly when joining?

A

Valley: 1000ft through initial
Mona: 2000ft through initial (then descend to 1000 once across railway)

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15
Q

The minimum height for a VRIAB at Valley is 500ft on Valley QFE. What is the exception to this rule, and what height must a VRIAB be flown at?

A

Rwy 31
800ft Val QFE

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16
Q

For fixed wing mixed type joins (through initial), Hawk T2 following Texan T1, at what IAS should you fly your aircraft.

A

Texan >= 240KIAS
Carry out VRIAB (at least 1/3 way down the runway), or if unable convert to SIA.

17
Q

What is the maximum number of speaking units permitted in both the Valley and Mona visual circuit?

A

3, with one extra if joining to land or departing

18
Q

What are the weather minima for the visual circuit?

A
19
Q

What does birdstrike risk level Medium require from aircrew?

A

Be vigilant, consider restricting activity to minimum required for training/currency.

20
Q

What flying a visual SIA, when should you call “Long final, [intentions]” and “Final gear down”?

A

Long final, [intentions] = 5nm
Final gear down = 2nm (inside 3nm)

21
Q

When intending to fly a low level circuit/re-join through Initial/re-join for a SIA, aircraft commanders should declare their intentions at which point in the visual circuit?

A

Upwind turn

22
Q

Departing the visual circuit on rwy 31R to then re-join, where should you route?

A

Left hand over the sea (ensure clear behind visually + call will have been made to inform of intentions + TCAS), avoiding Rhosneigr, 1000ft Val QFE

23
Q

After landing, once under control, aircraft of the same type should move to what side of the runway?

A

‘Company’ side

24
Q

When the golf course is active with Rotary traffic above 250ft Valley QFE, what height are Fixed Wing circuits restricted to on Valley QFE?

A

1000ft

25
Q

If a gear inspection is required from RAF Valley ATC, at what height should aircraft overfly the landing gear check lights?

A

200ft QFE on 31/13

If on 19/01, join 31/13

26
Q

What are the routine transit heights between Mona and Valley for Texan and Hawk?

A

Texan: 1000ft VALLEY QFE

Hawk: 1500ft VALLEY QFE

27
Q

Any change in height or routing when transiting between Mona and Valley required permission from who (bad weather, etc)?

A

Valley Approach, #5

28
Q

Fixed wing overflight of villages on the Isle of Anglesey should be avoided below what height?

A

2000ft AGL

29
Q

Where is the noise sensitive area pertinent to the downwind track at Mona?

A

Just below the SW edge of the lake

30
Q

With a clearance to “high approach, one on”, aircraft should not go below what height on QFE?

A

150ft

31
Q

Given the instruction to “go around” by ATC, what actions should pilots take?

A

Acknowledge and discontinue the approach, power up to climb to 1000ft QFE, cleaning up the aircraft with the after t/o checks. Once done, ensure clear above and behind and ease over to the deadside.

32
Q

Below what height Valley QFE would you expect rotary aircraft to operate in the cliff winching areas?

A

500ft

33
Q

When transiting the Mountain Flying Training Area outside of the flow arrows, fixed wing aircraft should not fly below what height?

A

1000ft AGL

34
Q

Which GH area should not be used for dynamic manoeuvring in the vertical?

A

GH X

35
Q

When flying a routine 4FTS sortie as a singleton, you suffer an IFF transponder failure. What actions should you take?

A

Terminate the sortie, recover as soon as practicable

36
Q

In the event of an intercom failure, control can be positively handed over between cockpits. The associated cockpit takes control by moving the stick in what direction?

A

Front: Side to side

Rear: Fore and aft

37
Q

At what intervals should BARO altimeters be cross checked?

A

Every 5000ft above 10,000ft
Every 2000ft between 5000ft and 10,000ft
Every 1000ft below 5000ft

38
Q

Should aircraft commanders estimate they only have sufficient fuel to make one approach and arrive with the minimum declared fuel to safely divert, what call should they make?

A

“Minimum Fuel”

39
Q

What state should phones be in for flight?

A

Off

T6 Tech (11 decks)

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