Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

m.phil. preparatory flashcards > Molecular Biology > Flashcards

Molecular Biology Flashcards

1
Q

What is xenobiotics?

A

Chemicals that are foreign to a cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Why is cell membrane not permeable to ions?

A

It’s non-polar + like dissolves like.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do you understand by miscible and ionophores?

A

Ionophore are mixable with plasma membrane hence can deliver ions into the cell cytoplasm in various ways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the types of signaling molecules?

A

Two types (hydrophobic and hydrophilic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the types of signaling molecules with cells?

A

3 (ion channel proteins, enzyme based proteins and g protein based signaling systems)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an oncogene?

A

A cancer causing gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do you understand by cell signaling?

A

Can be achieved in three ways (ionic channels, enzyme or g protein based cell signaling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is plasma membrane asymmetric?

A

Different distribution of protein, lipids, and carbohydrate etc. between outer and inner leaflets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False? Glucolipids are present outside and inside on the plasmalemma?

A

False! They’re only present on the outer leaflet towards the extracellular environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Other than being embedded permanently inside the plasma membrane what other types of integration can exist for integral proteins?

A

They can be embedded inside the plasma membrane via fatty acyl or prenyl etc. groups. Not necessarily completely embedded within the membrane in all scenarios.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the types of Transportation in cell?

A

Passive(simple and facilitated diffusion( gated and ungated channels (gated=mechanical, gprotein, and ligand) + Active(Ionic channels, catalytic channels), ionophores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gives names of Signaling systems.

A

Hydrophilic (neurotransmitters) and hydrophobic (hormones) molecules + receptors(catalytic, ionic, g-protein coupled receptors).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is ankyrin and vinculin? Where are they found and what’s their function?

A

Ankyrin is the cytoskeleton structure of RBC and Vinculin is ////// of Non erythroid cells. Both bind with integrin protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What receptor type does the epinephrine hormone binds to?

A

G-protein coupled receptors (beta and alpha 2 adrenergic receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is rRNA and ribosome present in the nucleus?

A

Synthesized and present within the nucleolus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is euchromatin and heterochromatin?

A

Transcriptionally active and inactive versions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is karyotype?

A

The number and morphology of chromosomes in an organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the four proteins associated with DNA nucleosomes and folding.

A

H2A, H2B, H3, and H4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which DNA protein is involved in condensed chromatin?

A

H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the start and end codons.

A

Start(AUG), Stop(UAG, UGA, and UAA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the enzymes which synthesize mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA?

A

RNA polymerases 1(rRNA) 2(mRNA), and 3(tRNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do you understand regarding miRNAs?

A

Inactive form of RNA, suppress mRNA translation hence gene expression. Candidate for cancer treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What parts make up the large and small subunit of the ribosome?

A

45s(28, 5.8. and 5S) - Large subunit
18s from 45s makes the small subunit of the chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name the cyclins involved in cell cycle and their role?

A

Cyclin kinases (A,B,D,E). D and E help in progression s phase advancement, A helps in G2 advancement whereas B transition into the M-phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the difference between chromatids and chromosomes?

A

Both are the same thing with exception that chromatids are chromosomes that will go into individual daughter cells after mitosis. Chromatids appear only at the time of cell-division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How would a cell division get arrested at G1 stage?

A

If the mother centrioles do not move to the intracellular bridge from the newly developing poles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What enzyme is crucial to apoptotic DNA cleavage?

A

Caspases or CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why is chromatin condensation important during apoptosis?

A

Makes the linker DNA portion of nucleosomes more accessible to CAD. Can happen without condensation but it’s less efficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What factors can trigger apoptosis?

A

Gene activation or TNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the main events in prophase 1 of meiosis?

A

Synapsis and tetrad formation, crossing over at chiasmata.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the phases of prophase 1 of meiosis?

A

Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do you understand by homologous chromosomes?

A

Two pairs of chromosomes, one from each parents. Same size and same gene location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the main events of the 5 stages of prophase 1 of meiosis?

A

Leptotene( condensation), zygotene(synapsis), pachytene(crossing over), diplotene(Tetrad dissolution), Diakinesis( disappearance of nucleolus, nuclear membrane breakdown and end of chiasmata).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Crossing over takes place between what chromatids?

A

Non sister homologous chromatids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do you understand by synaptonemal complex and tetrads?

A

They are protein RNA complex attaching matched homologous chromosomes whereas tetrad is the complex formed after synapsis of chromatids. Tetrad can exist without synaptonemal complex vice versa not possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Ribophorins and where are they found?

A

They’re receptors for large ribosomal subunits and are present in RER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The enzymes of TCA cycle or Krebs cycle are located in which organelle?

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is the ETC system present in cell. What other mechanics are used by the organelle to produce energy in the form of ATP

A

They’re present in the inner membrane of mitochondria. Other process involves oxidation of fatty acids, amino acids, and glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do you understand by condensed mitochondria?

A

Present in brown fat cells, produce heat instead of ATP, inner membrane is smaller with high matrix density, whereas intermembrane space is larger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the main function of golgi apparatus

A

Processing protein packages from RER + redistribution and recycling of membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do you know about the cis, trans, and VTC?

A

cis is the face of Golgi apparatus facing the RER and nucleus whereas trans is the face of the organelle towards the plasma membrane. VTC is a cisternae between Golgi and RER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Cristae, Cisterna, and Cisternae?

A

Cristae(mitochondrial folding), Cisterna, and cisternae are the grooves/ saccules or inner channels of RER and Golgi apparatus respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What organelle mediates the uncoupling of receptors and ligands during the endocytosis to recycle these materials?

A

Endosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Name the types of vacuole attachment with endosome.

A

Autophagic vacuoles, and phagocytic vacuole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of endosome fuses with the vacuoles?

A

Late endosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What organelles supply the endosome with lysosome enzyme and membrane?

A

RER synthesizes the necessary proteins, Golgi packages them and supplies the membrane and hydrolase enzymes in separate vacuoles to the endosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are peroxins?

A

The membrane of peroxisome contains special receptors called peroxins which aids in importing cytosolic proteins for peroxisome synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This organelle gets synthesized by a pre-existing organelle.

A

Peroxisomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an inclusion in cell biology? What inclusions lack membrane?

A

They are materials which are temporarily within the cytosol. Glycogen and lipid droplets are not bounded by a membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What’s the relationship between centrosome and microtubule?

A

Microtubule is a cytoskeletal structure whereas centrosome is the organelle which provides platform to microtubules for spindle fiber formation during cell division. Centrioles are present for organization purpose in centrosomes only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the structure of microtubules? What proteins help in movement and attachment with organelles?

A

Made of tubulin, MAPS binds with cytoskeletons and organelles whereas kinesin and dynein help in organelle related movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Explain the polymerization and depolymerization of microtubules and actin filament cytoskeletons.

A

In both cases takes place at the + end of the filaments, GTP attaches in case of microtubules and ATP in case of actin filaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Explain the uptake and release of substances across a cell.

A

Endocytosis(Receptor mediated, pinocytosis, or phagocytosis) Exocytosis(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why is clathrin important?

A

It’s a coating formed around a vesicle after cell endocytosis. Recycled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Explain the requirements of exocytosis?

A

Attachment of secretory receptors and plasma membrane + adhesion or joining of the p bilayer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Explain the initiation step of protein synthesis?

A

Small ribosome subunit combines with mRNA, methionine tRNA combines with the codon on mRNA at site p of the small subunit. After this the large subunit combines to start the process of protein synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What type of tRNA is used in the protein synthesis?

A

Acylated tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens at the three sites of the ribosome, namely A,P, and E?

A

A = New tRNA comes here
P = initiator tRNA is here (peptide bond formation and chain grows here)
E = tRNA leaves from this site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is signal sequence?

A

Special codon which encodes for signal sequence, this sequence helps the newly formed peptide to enter the RER cisterna.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Explain the process of signal sequence?

A
  1. mRNA synthesis of signal sequence
  2. SRP binds to SS.
  3. SRP relocates polysomes(multi-ribosomes) to a SRP receptor on RER.
  4. Large subunit attaches to ribosome receptor protein, SRP detaches.
  5. Multisubunit protein translocators form pore on RER, synthesis continues and new polypeptides enters the cisterna through this pore.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What vesicles takes the polypeptide from RER to the cis golgi sacs?

A

coatomer-2 vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What vesicles bring back polypeptides that escaped from the RER.

A

Coatomer 1 vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where does retrograde and anterograde takes place?

A

VTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the three ingredients of ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), Proteoglycans, and glycoproteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the function of glycoproteins in EM?

A

Cell adhesion

65
Q

What are the most common collagen fibers?

A

One and three.

66
Q

This EM material undergoes both intracellular and extracellular synthesis process.

A

Collagen fibers.

67
Q

It has the highest conc. of carbohydrate among the EM fibers

A

Reticular fiber

68
Q

Explain the fixed cells of connective tissue

A

Adipose, pericytes, mast cells, macrophages.

69
Q

This CT cell is pluripotent?

A

Pericyte

70
Q

What are unilocular and multilocular adipose cells?

A

Unilocular is white adipose tissue, whereas multilocular is brown adipose tissue.

71
Q

What CT cell releases the primary and secondary mediators during an allergic reaction?

A

Mast cells

72
Q

What is the function of heparin?

A

Histamine antagonist chemical, results in blood anticoagulation and vasoconstriction.

73
Q

What is the function of histamine?

A

Vasodilation and mucus production

74
Q

Name Secondary mediators released by mast cell

A

Prostaglandin, leukotrienes, PAF, and thromboxane A2

75
Q

What cell mediates anaphylactic reactions?

A

Mast cells through primary and secondary mediators

76
Q

What type of globulin antigen attaches on the receptor of mast cell?

A

IgE from plasma cell reacts with the allergen and binds with the fc receptor on mast cell.

77
Q

On first or second? when does the mediators get released from mast cells?

A

On second exposure with same allergen.

78
Q

What is the precursor molecule of primary and secondary mediators? How is it formed and what enzyme catalyzes the reaction?

A

Arachidonic acid synthesized from phospholipid of plasmalemma converted to A. acid by phospholipase A2 enzyme.

79
Q

What is the receptor on Mast and macrophage cells?

A

FceRI receptors

80
Q

What are transient cells?

A

Cells which are temporarily present in connective tissue and were originally formed somewhere else in the body.

81
Q

What cell produces antibodies?

A

Plasma cells derived from B lymphocytes

82
Q

Puss is the characteristic of which leucocyte?

A

Neutrophils

83
Q

What leucocyte moderates allergic reaction?

A

eosinophils, breaks the antigen-antibody complex

84
Q

What cell is similar to mast cells in secretion and type of receptor?

A

Basophils

85
Q

Where is leptin found?

A

In adipose tissue (it regulates appetite and energy consumption).

86
Q

What is the role of cAMP in adipose tissue?

A

It activates hormone sensitive lipase to hydrolyze triglycerides.

87
Q

Where is thermogenin found and what’s its function?

A

Found in brown adipose tissue helps in heat generation. Carries protons away from ATP resulting in heat generation.

88
Q

What helps in providing uniform contraction across the muscle?

A

Triads

89
Q

What cells form the skeletal muscle when needed?

A

Satellite cells or mayoblast like cells

90
Q

Minus or plus? Which is the growing end of f actin?

A

Minus end

91
Q

What molecule prevents the growing -ve end of sarcomere?

A

Tropomodulin

92
Q

Explain the functions of the tail and globular head part of myosin muscle molecule.

A

Tail part assemblies the molecule into the thick filaments whereas the globular, which is the heavy HMM contains site of ATPase activity and actin binding domains.

93
Q

What enzyme is used in cleavage of myosin?

A

Trypsin for tails and globular head whereas papain for the globular head.

94
Q

What happens to the individual striations of the skeletal muscle as contraction commences?

A

Z bands come closer, I band and H bands shorten, A band remains the same length.

95
Q

Explain the steps of muscle contraction

A
  1. Contraction stimulus
  2. Depolarization at the sarcolemma myoneural junction.
  3. T tubule impulse delivery and DHP receptor conformation changes.
  4. Ca2+ release and SR cisternae.
  5. Actin activation
  6. Calcium ion breaks TnC-actin linkage opening the active domain for actin myosin binding.
  7. Relaxation after Ca2+ level starts to drop. Tropomyosin again cover the actin binding sites.
96
Q

What is Calsequestrin?

A

Structure in skeletal muscle SR that binds the ca2+ in the resting phase.

97
Q

What is the “all or none law” of muscles?

A

Individual muscle cells contracts in unison not randomly.

98
Q

What is the name of neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction?

A

Acetylcholine

99
Q

How’s acetylcholine recycled?

A

Acetylcholinesterase enzyme in external lamina degrades acetylcholine, transferred back to the axon terminal in choline form further processed by choline acetyl transferases and acetyl CoA recombination.

100
Q

What type of vesicle is used in acetylcholine recycle into the axon terminal?

A

Clathrin coating.

101
Q

What is the function of desmosome in cardiac muscle besides support?

A

Ionic signal transmission to other cardiac muscle cells.

102
Q

What is a nexus?

A

Collection of gap junctions in smooth muscles.

103
Q

The mechanism of contraction in smooth and skeletal muscle is same?

A

False

104
Q

Why is smooth muscle contraction slower but longer as compared to skeletal muscles?

A

ATP hydrolysis is slow + different mechanism then skeletal muscles.

105
Q

What is the actin masking molecule of smooth muscle?

A

Calmodulin

106
Q

Calponin inhibits muscle contraction, True or False?

A

True!

107
Q

Explain the energy dynamics of smooth muscle contraction in terms of phosphorylation?

A

Ca2+ forms complex with calmodulin triggering the enzyme myosin kinase, myosin is phosphoryalted, calmodulin inhibition ends, myosin head is phosphorylated, contact with actin domain, ATPase enzyme activated. Binding continues until phosphorylation of myosin head ends.

108
Q

What is contraction in visceral, vascular, uterus and other parts of the body containing smooth muscles?

A

Visceral= cell to cell signal transmission
Vascular= No cell to cell and limited
Uterus= oxytocin based
Elsewhere=epinephrine

109
Q

Name two other cells that are non muscular and possess contraction capability?

A

Myoepithelial cells and Myofibroblasts

110
Q

What nervous system is associated with smooth muscles?

A

ANS

111
Q

Where are Schwann and oligodendritic cells present and how do they benefit neurons?

A

Schwan is present in PNS whereas oligodendritic cells in CNS. Both insulate however Schwann cell might cover myelinated or unmyelinated neurons too.

112
Q

The thickness of myelin sheath is a function of it’s diameter?

A

True

113
Q

What ions are involved in action potential?

A

Na+ and K+ — Na moves in whereas K moves out

114
Q

How is repolarization or resting phase achieved in action potential?

A

K+ channels remain open longer than Na+ channels, hence K+ leaks in reversing the polarity.

115
Q

What is anti and orthodromic spread?

A

Away towards the soma and away from the soma towards the axon terminal.

116
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

Signal jumping between individual nodes of Ranvier of myelin sheath..

117
Q

Antero and retrograde transport is the movement of material towards and away from soma respectively?

A

False, vice-versa!

118
Q

Name the layers of meninges?

A

Dura, arachnoid, and pia mater.

119
Q

What cells produce CSF?

A

Choroid plexus

120
Q

When does hydrocephalus occurs in brain?

A

When the CSF reabsorption by arachnoid granulations is interrupted.

121
Q

What is chromatolysis?

A

Nissl body disruption

122
Q

This degeneration is the separation of axon and myelin sheath and is known as?

A

Wallerian degeneration.

123
Q

How does regeneration of nerves takes place?

A

Myelin and axon separate. Schwan cell colony forms near the muscle tissue, they proliferate anterograde, successful regeneration involves penetration of Schwann colony by the proliferating Schwan colony.

124
Q

What’s anucleate?

A

Lacking a cell nucleus

125
Q

A B O blood group determinant carbohydrates are present in what part of RBC?

A

Plasmalemma

126
Q

Name the hemoglobin molecules (only the normal)?

A

HbA1, HbA2, and HbF.

127
Q

What is the abnormal hemoglobin molecule called?

A

HbS

128
Q

Where does the carboaminohemoglobin attaches on the erythrocytes?

A

Globin moiety

129
Q

What is the name of enzyme found in RBC which forms or cleaves H2CO3?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

130
Q

What is the event of O2 disassociation in RBC?

A

H2CO3 formation, Breakage HCO3- into plasma, and Cl- into cytosol of RBC, O2 unbinds from Hb, 2,3DPG binds in place of O2.

131
Q

To which moiety of Hb does O2?

A

Heme moiety

132
Q

How is abnormal HBs formed.

A

Point mutation in beta chain of hemoglobin

133
Q

What is the granule in WBC cells composed of?

A

Hydrolytic enzymes

134
Q

What is the name of enzyme associated with catalysis of superoxide and H2O2 pathogen destruction?

A

Myeloperoxidase

135
Q

What are null cells?

A

lymphocytes (PHSCs) and NK cells

136
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

Platelets

137
Q

What is factor IV?

A

Platelet membrane and Ca2+

138
Q

What is factor VIII and function?

A

Von Willebrand factor (required by Intrinsic clotting mechanism

139
Q

What factor is required by intrinsic blood coagulation?

A

VIII

140
Q

What is the thromboplastin known as?

A

Factor III

141
Q

How does platelet aggregation takes place in intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation?

A

Platelets bind factors which also bind collagen in the sub-epithelial tissue.

142
Q

Yellow bone marrow is hemopoietic?

A

No it’s not!

143
Q

What do you understand by megakaryocytes?

A

They’re cells which form platelets

144
Q

What are the regions of red bone marrow and functions?

A

Stroma (cell and gf producer), sinusoids(blood vessels).

145
Q

What are the 3 cell types in hemopoiesis?

A

Stem cells (multipotent), progenitor cell(specific), precursor cell(lineage cell)

146
Q

What cell can convert red marrow into yellow?

A

Adventitial reticular cell

147
Q

What are the two types of stem cell in red bone marrow?

A

CF-GMM and CF-LY

148
Q

Where do T and B lymphocytes mature?

A

Thymus and red bone marrow respectively.

149
Q

What are cytokines?

A

In simple words, they’re cells which stimulate or slow down immune system.

150
Q

What’s an epitope?

A

Antigen deterministic site

151
Q

Which cell is MHC specific?

A

T-cell

152
Q

T cells become immunocompetent inside the bone marrow?

A

No, they mature and develop immunocompetency within the thymus gland cortex.

153
Q

What is the name of the receptor of T cells?

A

TCR aka T cell receptor

154
Q

Which cell possess the CD markers?

A

T cells

155
Q

What’s the function of IL-4,5,6?

A

B-cell growth

156
Q

What is the function of INF- gamma?

A

Encourages macrophages to eliminate pathogen captured by it.

157
Q

Explain the role of these antibodies, IgA, D, G, and M

A

IgA (milk, saliva, etc), IgD and IgE(Immediate hypersensitivity response and B cell activation, IgG(passive immunity of fetus), IgM(Complement system activation).

158
Q

What is the function of M-fold cells?

A

Presents epitopes to the lymphocytes of DL tissue.

159
Q

What’s reticular cells?

A

Fibroblastic cells which produces supporting framework for the diffused lymphoid tissue.

160
Q

What is a hilum?

A

Concave structure of lymph node where efferent vessels and venules out

161
Q

What’s the role of postcapillary venules in lymph node?

A

Exposes T-lymphocytes to blood

m.phil. preparatory flashcards (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions