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Martha Phase 2a > PTS SBA 3 corrections/notes > Flashcards

PTS SBA 3 corrections/notes Flashcards

1
Q

when is a PCI used for a STEMI?

A

first line but must be done within two hours of onset

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2
Q

when is fibrinolysis with IV Tenecteplase used

A

within 12 hours of the onset of STEMI if PCI was not done

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3
Q

what test does NICE recommend for diagnosing heart failure

A

NT-proBNP levels
naturietic peptides

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4
Q

what does ABCDE stand for in heart failure XRAY

A

aleveolar oedema
kerley B lines
cardiomegaly
dilated upper lobe vessels
pleural Effusion

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5
Q

who can hypertrophic cardiomyopathy cause sudden death in

A

children, young adults, and competitive athletes

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6
Q

what does a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis present with?

A

deep fast breaths (Kusmall breaths)
hyperkalaemia (tall tented T waves on ECG)
pear drop breath

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7
Q

what are the types of cardiomyopathy

A

dilated, restrictive, hypertrophic
dr H (heart)

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8
Q

when is a bounding pulse found?

A

in septic shock

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9
Q

would a PE be a cause of hypovolaemic shock?

A

no

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10
Q

what type of pain does pericarditis present with?

A

pleuritic sharp pain, worse when lying down and relieved by leaning forward

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11
Q

What is the first line investigation for AAA?

A

USS of aorta- quick

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12
Q

is polyuria a symptom of thyroid disease?

A

no it is a symptom of diabetes

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13
Q

what is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

GRAVES disease

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14
Q

explain graves disease

A

autoimmune condition- body produces TSH receptor stimulating antibodies.
presents with: Graves ophthalmopathy, eye pain, diplopia and other hyperthyroid symptoms.

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15
Q

how is Addison’s disease tested for?

A

synacthen test

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16
Q

what does dexamethasone test for?

A

cushings

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17
Q

what is carcinoid syndrome?

A

result of tumour of enterochromaffin cells with secrete 5-HT.
excess secretion of substance P, insulin, serotonin, ACTH and bradykinin.
classical triad is: palpitations, diarrhoea, flushing.

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18
Q

what treats carcinoid syndrome?

A

somatostatin analogue.

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19
Q

what is trousseaus sign.

A

wrist felxion on the inflation of a BP cuff

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20
Q

what causes trousseaus sign.

A

hypocalcaemia.

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21
Q

what are the two signs of hypocalcaemia

A

trousseaus and chvosteks

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22
Q

describe chvosteks sign.

A

tapping the facial nerve in the parotid gland causes ipsilateral facial muscle twitching.

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23
Q

what is the lining of the oesophagus

A

stratified squamous

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24
Q

what is the metaplastic change seen in barrets oesophagus

A

STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS –> Simple columnar

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25
Q

what is angular stomatitis

A

soreness at the corners of lips, seen in severe coeliac disease

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26
Q

what are aphthous ulcers?

A

mouth ulcers commonly seen in severe coeliac disease.

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27
Q

what is the management for H. pylori infections

A

PPI + Metronizadole + clarithromycin

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28
Q

what is the treatment for TB

A

RIPE
Rifampicin: Red/orange discolouration of secretions e.g. urine + tears; Isoniazid: Peripheral
neuropathy; Pyrazinamide: High uric acid levels → gout; Ethambutol: Colour blindness + reduced
visual acuity (EYE-thambutol)

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29
Q

what is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction

A

surgical adhesions.
scar like tissue between organs can compress the small bowel.

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30
Q

is chronic disease associated with normocytic or microcytic anaemia?

A

BOTH

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31
Q

is white cell count raised in hodgkins lymphoma?

A

NO!

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32
Q

what is polycythaemia vera

A

bone marrow overproduces blood cells
95% of cases are caused by mutation in JAK2.

33
Q

what are symptoms of polycythaemia vera?

A

dizziness, itching, haemorrhage

34
Q

when are Heinz bodies seen?

A

G6PD deficiency

35
Q

what is the presentation of liver failure

A

asterixis (jerking movement of the hand when arms are extended)
spider naevi
gynaecomastia
Jaundice

36
Q

is low albumin included in the definition of acute liver failure

A

NO
INR greater than 1.5, onset of less than 26 weeks duration, mental alteration without pre-existing cirrhosis, no previous liver disease

37
Q

what does jaundice indicate?

A

problem in hepatobilliary system

38
Q

what type of jaundice is indicated if both the stool and urine colour is affected (light and dark respectively)

A

OBSTRUCTIVE

39
Q

how can a cancer of the head of the pancrease cause obstructive jaundice?

A

blocks the common bile duct

40
Q

is benzene exposure a risk factor for renal cell carcinoma

A

YES

41
Q

how is a diagnosis of wilsons obtained?

A

liver biopsy

42
Q

what is the treatment for cholera (rice water stools)

A

rehydrate with IV fluids

43
Q

what are the investigations for haemochromatosis

A

raised transferrin saturation, high ferritin low TIBC

44
Q

what is the community treatment for meningococcal septicaemia

A

BENPEN
benzylpenicillin

45
Q

what is the hospital treatment for meningococcal septicaemia

A

cefotaxime IV (3rd gen cephalosporin)

46
Q

what is lowenstein jensen agar used for?

A

culture mycobacterium tuberculosis

47
Q

what is blood agar used for

A

Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria species. It is also required to detect and differentiate haemolytic bacteria, especially Streptococcus species.culture anaerobes such as fusobacteria

48
Q

what is charcoal agar used for

A

campylobacter jejuni

49
Q

what is chocolate agar used for

A

grow aerobes such as strep. pneumonia
alsogood for H. influenzae as there is both nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide and haemin

50
Q

what is macconkey agar used for

A

grow gram negative bacilli

51
Q

what type of bacteria is Psuedomonas

A

non-lactose fermenting aerobic bacilli with positive oxidase test

52
Q

what type of bacteria are proteus, salmonella, shigella

A

non lactose fermenting aerobic bacilli with negative oxidase test.

53
Q

what is the most common cause of infective endocarditis in adluts?

A

strep viridans

54
Q

what type of bacteria is strep viridans

A

optochin resistant alpha haemolytic strep.

55
Q

which bacteria is optochin sensitive

A

strep. pneumonia

56
Q

an example of lancefield A bacteria

A

strep. pyogenes

57
Q

lancefield b bacteria?

A

strep agalactiae

58
Q

which strep are non haemolytic?

A

s. mutans, s. milleri

59
Q

what does a catalase test show

A

+ve= staph, -ve= strep

60
Q

is Rheumatoid factor or anti CCP more specific for rheumatoid arthritis.

A

ANTI CCP

61
Q

what is C-ANCA associated with?

A

granulomatosis with polyangitis

62
Q

what is anti dsDNA associated with

A

SLE

63
Q

what indicates type 2 resp failure?

A

oxygen is low, cO2 is high.

64
Q

what indicates type 1 resp failure

A

normal CO2, low oxygen.

65
Q

what inheritance is von willebrand disease?

A

autosomal dominant

66
Q

what is the key finding of sarcoidosis

A

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

67
Q

name the main steroid treatment for asthma

A

beclometasone

68
Q

what is the indicator in a history of TB?

A

cough >3weeks
recent travel

69
Q

what is the most common casue of community acquired pneumonia

A

strep pneumoniae

70
Q

what is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

deposition of immune complexes and cellular immunity.
IgG/IgM

71
Q

what is type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

A

cytotoxic
antibody mediated

72
Q

what is a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

A

allergic
IgE mediated, quick onset

73
Q

what is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

A

delayed
cell mediated

74
Q

if TIA is SUSPECTED what is the treatment

A

Aspirin 300mg

75
Q

if TIA is confirmed what is the long term treatment?

A

clopidogrel monotherapy

76
Q

what are the symptoms of cauda equina syndrome?

A

LMN signs
lower back pain, LMN weakness, sphincter disturbance (urinary and faecal), impotence, saddle paraesthesia, decreased anal tone.

77
Q

where does cauda equina start

A

L1/2- level where the spinal cord terminates

78
Q

what is indicative of MG rather than MND?

A

MG = progressive weakness on repetitive movements eg blinking.

Martha Phase 2a (10 decks)

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