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Essential Veterinary Patient Care Yr1 > Soiled patient + Supporting patient elimination > Flashcards

Soiled patient + Supporting patient elimination Flashcards

1
Q

Describe a wire coat, on the dog

A
  • Wire-like feel
  • Top coat is harsh
  • Thick, softer undercoat
  • Coarse
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2
Q

(To keep in mind how to nurse them, by caring for their coat)

What breeds might have a wire coat?

A
  • Border Terriers
  • WHWT
  • Wire-haired Dacshund
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3
Q

Describe a smooth coat, on the dog

A
  • Smooth feel
  • Short length
  • Close to body
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4
Q

(To keep in mind how to nurse them, by caring for their coat)

What breeds might have a wire coat?

A
  • Doberman Pinschers
  • Boxers
  • Staffordshire Bull Terrier

Pinschers = The Pinscher is a group of German dog breeds, developed originally as ratters on farms or as guard dogs. In the twenty-first century they are commonly kept as companion animals.

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5
Q

Describe a silky coat, on the dog

A
  • Silky feel
  • Varies in length
  • Medium > Long
  • Fine texture
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6
Q

(To keep in mind how to nurse them, by caring for their coat)

What breeds might have a silky coat?

A
  • Afghan Hound
  • Setters
  • Most Spaniels
  • Yorkshire Terriers
  • Terriers

Setters = A setter silently searches for game by scent; hunting is done systematically and methodically. When prey is encountered, the dog becomes motionless rather than chasing after the game. Setters get their name from their distinctive stance; a sort of crouch or “set” upon finding their quarry.

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7
Q

Describe a double coat, on the dog

A
  • Long top-coat (guard hairs)
  • Thick, dense but soft under-coat
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8
Q

(To keep in mind how to nurse them, by caring for their coat)

What breeds might have a double coat?

A
  • GSDs
  • Old English Sheepdog (OES)
  • Lhasa Apso
  • Rough Collies
  • Spitz breeds (Pomeranians, Chow Chows, Siberian Huskies)

Spitz = Any of a group of northern dogs, characterized by dense, long coats, erect pointed ears, and tails that curve over their back

Other Spitz breeds are:
* Samoyed
* Finnish Spitz
* Shiba Inu
* Samoyed
* Alaskan Malamute
* American Eskimo Dog
* Keeshond
* Icelandic Sheepdog
* Finnish Lapphund
* Norwegian Elkhound
* Japanese Spitz
* Norwegian Lundehund
* Akita Inu
* Basenji

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9
Q

What’s’ the difference between a Setter and a Pinscher?

A

Setter
* Sporting breed
* Used for pointing + hunting game birds
* Medium length coat
* Medium size
* Higher energy requirements than Pinscher

Pinscher
* Working breed
* Used for ratting + guard dogs
* Short length coat
* Larger size
* Lower energy requirements than Setter

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10
Q

Describe a wool coat, on the dog

A
  • Curly coated
  • Wool-like texture (Wooly)
  • Dense
  • Frizzy
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11
Q

(To keep in mind how to nurse them, by caring for their coat)

What breeds might have a wool coat?

A
  • Poodles
  • Bichon Frise
  • Bedlington Terrier
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12
Q

What 4 things do you need to assess when considering the care for a dog’s coat?

A
  1. Coat type (Short or Long)
  2. Normal grooming routine
  3. Normal skin appearance
  4. Condition/Procedure/Treatment that may cause soiling
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13
Q

When reducing the risk of the patient’s coat from being soiled, what can you do to protect the patient’s skin + fur?

A
  • Regular opportunities to allow elimination
  • Protect the tail - bandaging etc
  • Appropriate type of cat litter - for cats
  • Absorbent bedding
  • Regular checking to remove soiling from patient + kennel
  • Regular removal of excess saliva + mucus
  • Bed baths
  • Consider an Indwelling catheter for urinary or fecal matter
  • Regular monitoring of any wounds
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14
Q

When the patient’s coat is soiled, what can you do to prevent and further protect the patient’s skin + fur?

A
  • Protect the tail - bandaging etc
  • Absorbent bedding
  • More regular cleaning of soiled areas, including bed baths
  • Keep skin + fur dry
  • Regular checking to remove soiling from patient + kennel
  • Regular removal of excess saliva + mucus
  • Indwelling catheter for urinary or fecal matter
  • Regular monitoring of any wounds
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15
Q

How should you clean a soiled patient?

In basic terms, from start > finish

A

No matter what, always clean the patient ASAP
1. Wash hands + apply PPE
2. Remove excess soiling w/paper towel
3. Dispose of excess waste appropriately
4. Ensure water of bath or shower is warm (not too hot, not too cold)
5. Rinse thoroughly
6. Dry thoroughly
7. Remove matts w/appropriate brush
8. Check for scalding + sores

(May require bathing pre + post procedures)

If the patient repeatedly soils itself:
1. Clip fur
2. Dry fur
3. Apply barrier creaam (Often vaseline - make sure appropriate) cream chosen)

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16
Q

Name 3 types of shampoo that can be used in practice

A
  • Virbac EPI-Soothe
    (Colloidal oatmeal Glycerin)
  • Coatex medicated Shampoo for Dogs
  • HiBiScrub Antimicrobial Skin Cleanser
    (Chlorhexidine Gluconatee 4%)
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17
Q

Name 8 potential considerations that need to be taken into account when bed bathing or showering patients

A
  1. Allergies
  2. Existing skin conditions
  3. Tolerance/Behaviour/Temperament
  4. Wounds + dressings
  5. Intravenous catheters
  6. Indwelling drains or catheters
  7. Aural infections
  8. Infectious diseases
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18
Q

Name 3 methods of drying a patient

A
  1. Blow-drying (often using hair dryers)
    = Common in groomers + hydrotherapy centres
    = Rarely used in practice
    = Hair-dryers, most commonly used in practice
  2. Towel drying
    = Simple
    = Inexpensive
    = Less likely to cause fear or stress in patients
    = Use a shammy cloth to help eliminate moisture before using a towel
  3. Talc power
    = Great for damp patients
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19
Q

Name the method of drying which carry higher risks of causing thermal burns, if not used correctly

A

Blow-drying/Hair dryers

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20
Q

What method of drying would contraindicated if the patient has a skin disease or wounds?

A

Both:
* Blow-drying
= As can cause further damage to vulnerabale skin, using heat + could cause burns
* Talc powder
= Can delay wound healing + cause skin infections

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21
Q

Name the 5 main areas of patient hygiene that hospitilised patients require to be maintained, by nurses

A
  1. Oral care
  2. Aural care
  3. Ocular care
  4. Grooming
  5. Nail clipping
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22
Q

(Focusing mainly on cats + dogs)

Name ways of maintaining a patient’s oral care

A
  • Regular tooth brushing w/toothbrush or finger brush
  • Providing Antos tooth brush chews (Dogs)
  • Dried kibbled diet
  • Appropriate species chewing materials (remove tartar)
  • Using damp swabs to remove sticky secretions + provide comfort
  • Providing an Oral rinse
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23
Q

Name ways of maintaining a patient’s aural care

A
  • Montoring ear health/cleanliness
  • Check for:
    = Irritation
    = Odour
    = Self trauma
    = Excessive wax
    = Dirt
  • If the patient tolerates it + is clinically indicated (breed specific) gently remove any wax or dirt
  • Always use caution with ear cleaners
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24
Q

Name ways of maintaining a patient’s ocular care

A
  • Remove any discharge or secretions w/ damp swabs
  • If infection is present = always clean un-infected eye 1st
  • Use fresh swabs per wipe
  • Use PPE
  • Never share eye drops between patients
  • Always provide eye lube for patients who:
    = Requiring Oxygen
    = In a dry or hot enviornment
    = When a fan is being used
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25
Q

What are 7 common types of grooming equipment that can be used in the VP

A
  1. Soft-bristled brush
  2. Pin brush
  3. Slicker brush
  4. Comb
  5. Rubber brush/Hound glove
  6. Clippers
  7. Nail clippers
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26
Q

When should you use a soft-bristled brush?

A

For removing dried material from a topcoat

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27
Q

When should you use a pin brush?

A

For removing dead hair from thick coats

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28
Q

When should you use a slicker brush?

A

For removing loose hair in all coat types - except smooth

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29
Q

When should you use a comb?

A

For removing matts from smooth coats

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30
Q

When should you use a rubber brush/hound glove?

A

For removing loose hair from smooth coats

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31
Q

When should you use clippers?

A

To shave (remove) hair + matts

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32
Q

When should you use nail clippers?

A

To cut nails to an appropriate length

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33
Q

Should you cut above or below the quick?

A

Below

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34
Q

What colour is the quick in the majority of animals or dogs?
+
What colour nail is the hardest to define the quick?

A
  • Usually the quick is = Pink
  • Harder to define in = Black
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35
Q

Name potential reasons to why a patient may require nursing support in elimination

A
  • Recumbency
  • Concurrent medical problems
  • Drug side-effects
  • Monitoring flud input + output
  • Samples for diagnostic tests (If cystocentesis is not clinically possible)
  • Pre + post procedure
  • Post surgery - some surgical cases require post-op catheterisation for prolonged periods
  • Admin of drugs
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36
Q

Name 3 side affects of drugs that can affect fluid inputs + outputs

A
  1. Diarrhoea
  2. Polydipsia
  3. Polyuria
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37
Q

What causes diarrhoea?

A

Inflammation of the colon

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38
Q

What drug that is commonly used for heart conditions, such as congestive heart faliure, lung fluid retention or kidney disease, cause polyuria?

A

Furosemide

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39
Q

How can you measure out fluid ins + outs?

A

Ins
* Measure out water given
* Measure IVFT provided

Outs
* Weigh or measure water bowl once removed from the kennel
* Weight the soiled vetbed

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40
Q

Typically, how much water content is within a wet food diet?

A

80%

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41
Q

Is it normal for cats to drink less?

A

Yes

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42
Q

What is a method of administering anti-epileptic drugs, such as Diazepam?

A

Rectally

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43
Q

Why is it common to give Diazepam rectally to epileptic patients?

A
  • Its safer, quicker + non-invasive for person administering
  • Prevents triggering further seizures
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44
Q

What will regular enemas prevent, post-surgery of the abdominal + urogenital tract?

A

Post-op infections

Anal glands may require:
* Removal
* Flushed
* Investigation to check for perianal adenoma (not cancerous)

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45
Q

Name as many questions as possible that an RVN may ask a client, for their patient

A
  • What are their usual routine?
  • Normal diet?
  • How often do they pass faeces p/day?
  • Do they have any issues or abdominalties with their faeces?
  • Where do they usually toilet?
  • What do they toilet on? (Grass, concrete)
  • What commands do they use?
  • Do they go to the toilet on or off their lead?
  • Have they got any on-going medical issues, related to elimination?
  • What litter do they use?
  • Are they litter trained? (Rabbits etc)
  • Indoor or outdoor cats?
  • Do they have any issues w/ ongoing regurgitation?
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46
Q

Why are commands so important when it comes to patient elimination, when within the VP?

A

Because some patients will refuse or hold in their urine or faeces as they are not used to or are not comfortable eliminating on a particular surface

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47
Q

What type of dogs are particularly sensitive to commands?

A

Assistant dogs!

As they are trained to eliminate on command and will not, without permission.

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48
Q

What happens if a cat is either too stressed to eliminate at the VP?

A

May have to discharge them, to eliminate at home, to prevent FUO

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49
Q

A cat is refusing to eliminate despite many nursing interventions.

What is a nursing intervention which may be required to use on felines, before discharging them home, in order to eliminate?

A

Temporary urinary catheter

Remember - they are contraindications!

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50
Q

What substrate can you use to replace litter if a cat or other species develops or has litter aversion?

A

Soil

(Filter, clean + make it safe 1st, obv)

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51
Q

In what circumstance would using the substrate of soil be applicable, for cats?

A

Outdoor cats may prefer soil over commerical litter as they are not used to soiling inside the house or litter tray, especially if stray

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52
Q

When assessing faeces, what must you determine?

A

Whether it is diarrhoea + constipation

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53
Q

When assessing urine, what must you determine?

A

Whether it is:
* Polyuria
* Incontienence
* Oliguria
* Anuria
* Blockage

  • Oliguria = less than normal urine output
  • Anuria = Absence of urine output
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54
Q

What 3 potential clinical signs will be found with diarrhoea?

A
  1. Mucus consistency in stools
  2. Blood in stools
  3. Ineffective straining
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55
Q

What 2 potential clinical signs will be found with constipation?

A
  1. Mucus or jelly-like consistency
  2. Straining
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56
Q

With constipation, what happens to the colon?

A

Faces are impacted within the colon

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57
Q

When physically palpating a patient, what can indicate the patient is may be suffering from constipation?

A

The colon will feel full when palpated

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58
Q

What is the name given to the state when a patient’s urinary tract is blocked + not producing any urine?

A

Anuria

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59
Q

What 4 essential things should you look for when assessing the patient’s urine, when they have polyuria?

A
  1. Colour
  2. Volume
  3. Consistency
  4. Dilution
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60
Q

What common condition do cats often present with the following symptoms:

  • Stops using the litter tray
  • Urinates in the bath or shower
A

Stres cystitis

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61
Q

If a patient is suffering from incontinence, will they cease all production of urine completely, or may they still drip urine?

A

They may still drip urine, if they were not producing urine, they would be presenting with anuria

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62
Q

Why is it more important to be aware of urine issues with cats?

A
  • They are very secretive, especially when toileting
  • Will hide symptoms of pain etc
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63
Q

Do female and/or male cats spray?

A

Both!
Just males are more known for it, especially toms.

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64
Q

What can client’s often mistake incontinence for in cats?

A

Spray or marking their territory

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65
Q

What 4 infectious diseases can cause diarrhoea?

A
  1. Parvo Virus
  2. Lishmaniasis
  3. Giardia
  4. Gastroenteritis
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66
Q

What should you do if a patient presents with infectious diarrhoea?

A
  1. Isolate the patient in isolation
  2. Remove soiled matter into clincial waste
  3. Great hygiene + disinfection of all areas
  4. Barrier nurse
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67
Q

What 4 main patient’s are most susceptible to the parvo virus?

A
  1. Young/neonatal
  2. Geriatric
  3. Immunocompromised
  4. Unvaccinated
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68
Q

What are 2 characteristic signs of parvo virus that can be seen in the infected patient’s faeces?

A
  1. Melena
  2. Metallic (blood) + sickly-sweet scent (bacteria)

  • Hematochezia = passage of fresh blood in the anus or within the stools
  • Melena = passage of black, tarry stools, blood-stained causes black colour
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69
Q

What 2 types of parasites can cause Giardia?

A
  1. Endoparasites
  2. Protozoans
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70
Q

What is Leishmaniasis?

A

A zoonotic protozoal parasite, transmitted by small biting sand-flies.
Presents w/ enlarged lymph nodes + spleen, letharfgy, epitasis, skin problems around head + pressure points etc.

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71
Q

What considerations should you consider when nursing a patient with diarrhoea?

A
  • Isolate if infectious
  • Barrier nurse if needed
  • Wear PPE - gloves for handling + footbaths
  • Provide patient frequent access to toilet area
  • Line the kennel w/incopads
  • Easily digesable diet (pre + post-probiotics)
  • Small amounts of water + electrolyte solution
  • Faecal catheter
  • Monitor hydration status
  • Bandage tail or shortern hair
  • Ensure patient is dry, remove any soiling asap!
72
Q

What makes faeces cause sores or scald the patient if they are left to sit in it?

A

They have a low pH, making it acidic to the skin!

As is urine, as it contains ammonia, which has a low pH

73
Q

What diet is highly digestable and suitable for patients who are experiencing diarrhoea or constipation?

A
  • High protein
  • Low in fat (difficult to digest)
  • Medium carbohydrates

  • Chicken + rice flavours are best, great for sensitive stomachs
74
Q

How can you administer pre + pro-biotics?

A
  • Often come in paste form
  • Can be given orally or mixed in w/food
  • Can have a disintinctive flavour - some like, some hate
75
Q

Why should you offer small amounts of food to patients who may be struggling w/ diarrhoea or constipation?

A

Because they may bolt the food down, as they often present with polydipsia, and therefore have polyuria, for the body to compensate for loosing so much fluid and therefore hungier + thirstier than usual

76
Q

Why are probiotics great for the gut when a patient is undergoing diarrhoea + constipation?

A
  • Because they help introduce friendly, good bacteria
  • Bind stools
  • Reduces inflammation in the colon
77
Q

Why should the tail be bandaged when a patient is soiling itself?

A
  • Keeps tail dry, preventing wet area for bacterial growth > preventing infection
  • Tails, especilly in dogs, will wag + spread all over the kennel. patient, water etc
  • Ensures patient comfort
78
Q

What will happen if the patient bolts down water too fast?

A

Regurgitation

79
Q

Alongside heart conduction, what do electrolytes also assist with?

A

Nerve conduction

80
Q

How should you clean up severaly watery diarrhoea?

A

With bucket + disinfectant!

81
Q

What is the faeces scoring system (FSS) called?

A

The Waltham FSS

82
Q

Name the stool chart commonly used in the VP

A

The Bristol Stool chart

83
Q

What are stools within grade 1 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • “Bullet-like” consistency
  • Crumbles w/ little pressure
84
Q

What are stools within grade 1.5 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • Hard
  • Dry
  • Stool cracks when pressed
85
Q

What are stools within grade 2 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • Well-formed
  • Does not leave mark when picked up
86
Q

What are stools within grade 2.5 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • Well-formed
  • Slightly moist surface
  • Leaves a mark when picked up
87
Q

What are stools within grade 3 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • Moist
  • Beginning to loose form
  • Leaves definite mark when picked up
88
Q

What are stools within grade 3.5 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • Very moist
  • Still
  • Definite form
89
Q

What are stools within grade 4 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • Most or all form is lost
  • No real shape
90
Q

What are stools within grade 4.5 of the Waltham FSS like?

A
  • Liquid stool
  • Slight consistency
91
Q

What are stools within grade 5 of the Waltham FSS like?

A

Entire stool = liquid

92
Q

What nursing interventions + considerations should be taken with a constipated patient?

A
  • Ensure hydrated
  • Encourage movement
  • Provide high-fibre diet
  • Medicate w/ lactulose or microlax (VS instruction)
  • Enema
  • Manual evacuation
93
Q

What diet should you feed a constipated diet?

A

Low-fibre, to reduce fibre density for the stools

94
Q

Why is it hard to produce consipated stools?

A

Because of the amount of dehydration, the stools are chalky + dry, they are not lubricated + harder to pass

95
Q

What happens to the colon when the patient is constipated?

A

The colon is in overdrive + absorbing too much water

96
Q

If a patient is to have an enema, what nursing intervention can you provide beforehand, that will help stimulate the bowels before the enema?

A

Frequent walks!
+
This will increase blood flow to the GI tract
+
Encourage mobility to the guts

97
Q

What type of fibre causes constipation from the diet?

A

High-fibre

98
Q

What is pro-toxin?

A
  • A pro-fibre supplement, that usually is within a capsule + can be sprinkled onto food
  • Promotes gut motility
99
Q

What is Microlax?

A

A medication solution used to administer in a tube, into the rectum during an enema + manually injected

100
Q

What does manual evacuation go in-hand with, with treating constipation?

A

An enema

101
Q

Why do geriatric patients require a higher-fibre diet?

A

Because they are more prone to diarrhoea, due to their faster GI transit times, due to the weakening of muscle within the GI tract

102
Q

What equipment is required for an enema?

A
  • PPE (Gloves, apron, etc)
  • Lubricant
  • Enema solution
  • Higginson’s syringe or drip bag
  • Line or syringe
  • Catheter or pre-prepared enema
103
Q

Why should you always provide a bum-bath after an enema?

A
  • Comfort + cleanliness for patient
  • Prevent infection
  • Solutions used are often greasy + should not be ingested, therefore should not be allowed to lick + ingest it
104
Q

What are the advantages of using water for an enema?

A
  • Readily avaliable
  • Non-toxic
  • Non-irritant
  • Will not soil patient
105
Q

What is the disadvantage of using water for an enema?

A

No lubricating properties

106
Q

What are the advantages of using liquid paraffin or mineral oil for an enema?

A
  • Readily avaliable
  • Cheap
  • Lubricating
  • Softens faeces
107
Q

What is the disadvantage of using liquid paraffin or mineral oil for an enema?

A

Require shampooing to remove from the coat

108
Q

What are the advantages of using saline (Phosphate enema) for an enema?

A
  • Pre-prepared sachets
  • Promotes osmotic draw into colon
109
Q

What is the disadvantage of using saline (Phosphate enema) for an enema?

A

Care required when using smaller patients, to ensure the salts are not absorbed

110
Q

What are the advantages of using pre-prepared enema solution for an enema?

A
  • Pre-prepared sachets
  • No other equipment required
111
Q

What is the disadvantage of using pre-prepared enema solution for an enema?

A

Incurs a cost

112
Q

What is the advantage of using Glycerine, Olive oil + water or Water + Obsteric lubricant for an enema?

A

Its lubricating

113
Q

What are the disadvantages of using Glycerine, Olive oil + water or Water + Obsteric lubricant for an enema?

A
  • More expensive
  • Soils the patient
114
Q

Describe the steps taken to complete an enema

A
  1. Prepare equipment
  2. Prime device
  3. Prepare the solution
  4. Ask assistance to restraint patient, in suitable location
  5. WHO handwash
  6. Apply PPE
  7. Lubricate devise nozzle
  8. Elevate tail + insert nozzle into rectum with gentle rotating action
  9. Gently introduce solution = 10 mls/kg
  10. Massage rectum gently + allow animal to exercise
115
Q

A patient has chronic constipation, due to an underlying medical condtion.
What should you consider when performing an enema?

A

Sedate to allow for a complete enema

  • Allows for complete emptying of the colon, as it can be very painful, causing aggression, discomfort + distress, as very invasive
116
Q

How much of an enema solution should you introduce slowly into the patient?

A

10 mls / kg

117
Q

Why should you allow the patient to gently exercise after an enema?

A
  • As theres a lot of pressure put on the abdomen during the enema procedure
  • Allows the patient to pass any remaining faeces in the colon
118
Q

What must you normally require in order to obtain a urine sample from a cat?

A

Often requires sedation

119
Q

What may need to be fitted, once a feline is sedated, to obtain a urine sample from a cat experiencing urinary problems?

A

A urinary catheter

120
Q

What can be checked within a urine sample, that can indicate urinary system issues?

A
  • Presence + WBC count
  • Kidney functions
  • Protein excretions
121
Q

What common urinary disorder is commonly presented in cats?

A

Stress induced Cystitis

122
Q

Why should you not follow a patient, in particular a cat, for a urine sample?

A

As it will cause further stress + you are less likely to gain a sample

123
Q

What is the normal fluid output p/hr of a dog + cat?

A

1 - 2 ml/kg/p/hr

124
Q

What is the normal fluid output p/24hr of a dog + cat?

A

50 - 70 mls/kg/p/24hrs

125
Q

What is the normal urinary output of a dog + cat?

(p/hr

A

1 - 2 ml/kg/hr

126
Q

What should you assess with patient urinary output?

A
  • Amount/mls produced
  • Frequency
  • Flow
  • Appearence
  • Turbidity
  • Colour
  • Odour
  • Specific gravity
127
Q

What does turbity mean in urine?

A
  • Also known as clarity
  • Refers to how clear the urine is
128
Q

What does increased turbidity or cloudiness in the urine indicate?

A
  • Suggests other materials are present within the urine, such as:
    = Cells
    = Crystals
    = Microbes
    = Casts
    = Mucus
    = Sedement
  • Can indicate infection, kidney stones etc
129
Q

Despite things such as cells, crystals + microbes, what other foreign substances can be found wiithin turbid urine, from external sources?

A
  • Hair
  • Debris
  • Contamination
130
Q

What antibiotic can be commonly used short-term for UTIs?

A

Furosemide

131
Q

What antibiotic can be commonly used Long-term for UTIs?

A

Metronidazole

132
Q

What urine smell may indicate infection?

A

Pugent

133
Q
A
133
Q

What urine colour may indicate infection?

A

Pulurent

134
Q

What food bowl would be best to be used in isolation?

A. Stainless steel
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. Ceramic

A

A. Stainless steel

135
Q

What is an example of passive ventilation?

A. Extractor fans
B. Air conditioning units
C. Opening a window
D. Humidifiers

A

C. Opening a window

136
Q

What type of physiotherapy involves cupped hands on the chest?

A. Hydrotherapy
B. Coupage
C. Petrissage
D. Passsive movement

A

B. Coupage

137
Q

The Orpet + Jeffrey model has how many abiilites?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12

A

D. 12

138
Q

Which of the following is caused by pressure on the joints?

A. Urine scalding
B. Debcubitus ulcers
C. Hypostatic pneumonia
D. Ataxia

A

B. Decubitus ulcers

139
Q

What is the definition of RER?

A. Reading Energy Requirements
B. Read Examine and Reveal
C. Resting Exercise Requirements
D. Resting Energy Requirements

A

D. Resting Energy Requirements

140
Q

WIth purulent urine, what cells are commonly present?

A

Dead leucocytes

141
Q

What can a sweet/fruity smell indicate in the urine of a patient?

A

Glucose is present, suggesting diabetes

142
Q

Why does fruity smelling urine indicate glucose present?

A
  • Because ketoacidosis is present >
  • Due to liver issues >
  • Fat metabolises >
  • Which produced keytones
143
Q

What colour is normal urine?

A

Straw-coloured

144
Q

True or False.

It is normal for urine to be less dilute in the morning and more dilute in the evening.

A

False!

Urine is more dilute in the morning, due to the time of day.

This is because there is a large amount of bilirubin in the uria, of the urine + becomes more dilute during the day, due to the intake of water, becoming more dilute!

Remember = bilirubin = gives colour

145
Q

What colours of urine are considered abnormal?

A
  • Brown
  • Pink
  • Red
  • Purulent
  • Cloudy
146
Q

What do the colours brown, pink + red indicate in the urine?

A

Presence of blood

147
Q

What can purulent urine indicate?

A

Severe infection

148
Q

What does sediment in the urine indicate a presence of?

A

Urinary crystals

149
Q

What can urinary crystals do to the urinary tract?

A

Aggrivate the urinary tract

150
Q

Name a common type of urinary crystal

A

Struvite crystals

151
Q

What are bladder or kidney stones known as?

A

Uroliths

152
Q
A
153
Q
A
154
Q

What procedures requires the use of a urinary catheter for diagnostic purposes?

A

Cystography!

155
Q

Name 4 types of urinary catheters that can be used with dogs

A
  1. Plastic dog catheter
  2. Foley
  3. Silicone foley
  4. Tieman’s
156
Q

Name 4 types of urinary catheters that can be used with cats

A
  1. Plastic cat catheter
  2. Jackson cat catheter
  3. Siilicone cat catheter
  4. Slippery Sam catheter
157
Q

Out of the 2 urinary catheters, what one can only be used with male dogs?

A
  1. Plastic dog catheter
  2. Silicone foley
158
Q

Out of the 2 urinary catheters, what one can only be used with female cats?

A
  1. Plastic cat catheter
  2. Jackson cat catheter
159
Q

Which of the following dog urinary catheters are indwelling?

A. Plastic dog catheter
B. Foley
C. SIlicone foley
D. Tieman’s

A

B. Foley
+
C. Silicone foley

160
Q

Which of the following cat urinary catheters are indwelling?

A. Plastic cat catheter
B. Jackson cat catheter
C. SIlicone cat catheter
D. Slippery Sam catheter

A

All apart from
A. Plastic cat catheter

161
Q

What are the 4 problems with urinary catheterisation?

A
  1. Urethral or bladder trauma
  2. Iatrogenic infection
  3. Patient infection
  4. Blockage
162
Q

How can you avoid causing urethral or bladder trauma?

A
  • Use appropriate sized catheter
  • Don’t over-insert
163
Q

What is an iatrogenic infection?

A

An infection after medical or surgical management, due to malpractice or lack of skill

164
Q

How can you avoid causing an iatrogenic infection?

A
  • Use aseptic technique
  • Clean
  • Hygiene
  • Gloves
  • Apron
  • Closed system
  • Monitor for infection
165
Q

How can you avoid causing or risking patient interference?

A
  • Ensure patient is comfortable + monitor pain
  • Check causes of intereference is it:
    = Infected
    = Irritated
    = Blocked
  • Use a buster collar
  • Utilise other prevention methods
166
Q

How can you avoid causing a blockage?

A
  • Regularly empty the bag
  • Ensure bladder size matches bag size
  • Keep collection bag lower than patient
  • Ensure catheter can be flushed
167
Q

What things you consider when placing a catheter?

A
  • Care taken to not cause trauma or spasm to the urethra - especially in felines
  • Position the catheter properly, to prevent poor urine flow
  • Using a sterile urine sample (catheterisation + cystocentesis)
  • Never use 1st urine sample for a culture or analysis, as this contains saline, if the catheter has been flushed
  • Retrograde urohydropropulsion can be performed to aid placement in blocked patients
168
Q

How can you obtain a sterile urine sample?

A

By Catheterisation or Cystocentesis, as these bypass the bacteria in the urethra

169
Q

Why should you never use the 1st urine sample for culture + analysis, when a patient has a catheter in?

A

It may contain saline, if the catheter has been flushed

170
Q

What is Retrograde urohydropropulsion?

A

A method of managing urethral lithiasis, by flushing any potential uroliths using a catheter + sterile fluid or lubricant

171
Q

What type of cat catheters have been made, that replace Jackson + Slippery Sam catheters?

A

Mila catheters

172
Q

What are the small holes that you can find at the end of a urinary catheter useful for?

A

Retropulsion, pushing saline in causes the propulsion, forcing back into the bladder and then flushes the blockage

173
Q

Why may you get a slight resistance when placing a urinary catheter in a male dog?

A

Due to the curve of the urethra

174
Q

What about the structure of the urethra may make it easier to over-insert or make it trickier to place a urinary catheter in the female dog?

A

Due to the short distance the urinary catheter has to travel

175
Q

What about the male cat’s anatomy makes the placement of the urinary catheter hard, and hard to flush uroliths?

A

It makes it difficult to bypass urotliths due to the slight incline + high left-angle of the urethra, requiring a retrograde flush!

176
Q
A

Essential Veterinary Patient Care Yr1 (12 decks)

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