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A-EMT > Quiz 4 > Flashcards

Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:
administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.
check the drug’s expiration date to ensure that it is still current.
reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

A

reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

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2
Q

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it:
is used to treat a multitude of conditions.
is used to treat a specific medical condition.
produces actions other than the desired ones.
may cause harm or has no positive effect.

A

may cause harm or has no positive effect.

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3
Q

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade (brand) names for the generic medication:
aspirin.
nitrostat.
acetaminophen.
ibuprofen.

A

ibuprofen.

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4
Q

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):
adverse effect.
therapeutic effect.
unpredictable effect.
untoward effect.

A

adverse effect.

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5
Q

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:
blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.
enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose.
stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them.
produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication.

A

blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.

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6
Q

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the:
sublingual route.
inhalation route.
intranasal route.
transdermal route.

A

intranasal route.

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7
Q

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
causes direct coronary vasodilation.
reduces the associated chest pain.
dissolves the coronary artery clot.
prevents the aggregation of platelets

A

prevents the aggregation of platelets

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8
Q

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that:
naloxone should not be given if the patient’s breathing is slow.
naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg.
the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs.
naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient.

A

naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient.

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9
Q

For which of the following conditions is albuterol prescribed?
Allergic reactions
Heart disease
Asthma
Hypertension

A

Asthma

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10
Q

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT?
Sublingually
Inhaled
Orally
Injected

A

Sublingually

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10
Q

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain:
relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries.
increases blood return to the right atrium.
increases myocardial contraction force.
constricts the veins throughout the body

A

relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries.

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11
Q

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication:
directly into the muscle tissue.
through the mucosa under the tongue.
between the skin and the muscle.
below the first layer of muscle.

A

between the skin and the muscle.

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12
Q

The medical term for a low blood glucose level is:
hyperglycemia.
hypoglycemia.
hypertension.
hypotension.

A

hypoglycemia.

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13
Q

To reverse the effects of a narcotic overdose you should administer:
Narcan.
Advil.
EpiPen.
Tylenol.

A

Narcan.

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14
Q

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan) in a suspected narcotic overdose?
Hypertension
Slow respirations
Extreme agitation
Tachycardia

A

Slow respirations

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine?
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands
Dilates passages in the lungs
Constricts the blood vessels
Decreases heart rate and blood pressure

A

Decreases heart rate and blood pressure

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16
Q

Which of the following is the MOST rapidly acting medication administration route?
Subcutaneous (SC)
Intramuscular (IM)
Sublingual (SL)
Intravenous (IV)

A

Intravenous (IV)

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17
Q

Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch?
Sublingual
Subcutaneous
Intraosseous
Transcutaneous

A

Transcutaneous

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18
Q

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption?
Sublingual
Inhalation
Rectal
Oral

A

Oral

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19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells.
Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic.
Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream.
Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

A

Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells.

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20
Q

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding direct pressure with a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:
apply pressure to the brachial artery.
apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
wrap the towel with pressure bandages.
administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.

A

apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist

21
Q

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival?
Rapid transport to a trauma center
Intravenous fluid administration
High-flow oxygen administration
Full immobilization of her spine

A

Rapid transport to a trauma center

22
Q

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:
pump failure.
decompensated shock.
septic shock.
a local infection.

A

septic shock.

23
Q

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:
severe infection.
anaphylaxis.
ischemic stroke.
spinal injury.

A

ischemic stroke.

24
Q

Distributive shock occurs when:
widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain.
severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster.
an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function.

A

widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

25
Q

In infants and children, a capillary refill time that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion.
1
4
3
2

A

2

26
Q

Neurogenic shock occurs when:
the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

A

failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

27
Q

Shock is the result of:
temporary dysfunction of a major organ.
the body’s maintenance of homeostasis.
hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.
widespread constriction of the blood vessels

A

hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

28
Q

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:
blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.
irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.
multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.
the patient’s respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.

A

blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

29
Q

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?
Liver laceration
Spinal cord injury
Cardiac tamponade
Simple pneumothorax

A

Cardiac tamponade

30
Q

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?
Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
Early administration of high-flow oxygen
Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
Decompression of the injured side of the chest

A

Decompression of the injured side of the chest

31
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
Repeated diarrhea
Liver laceration
Severe vomiting
Excessive sweating

A

Liver laceration

32
Q

You are assessing an unresponsive patient and find that her breathing is absent. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
ventilate her with a bag-mask device.
administer high-flow oxygen.
move her to the ambulance stretcher.
check her airway for obstructions.

A

check her airway for obstructions.

33
Q

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
determine if he has a valid living will.
begin CPR and call for an AED
start CPR and transport immediately.
withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.

A

begin CPR and call for an AED

34
Q

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed:
about 1 inch below the xiphoid process.
in sets of five followed by reassessment.
until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.
until he or she loses consciousness.

A

until he or she loses consciousness.

35
Q

After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:
immediately begin chest compressions.
manually open the airway.
apply the AED and deliver a shock, if needed.
assess for breathing and a pulse

A

assess for breathing and a pulse

35
Q

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:
decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.
pause compressions to deliver ventilations.
deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.
increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min

A

deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.

36
Q

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
when the airway is completely obstructed.
when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
in patients who are intubated.

A

if you ventilate a patient too quickly

37
Q

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
a cardiac dysrhythmia.
respiratory arrest.
a drug overdose.
severe chest trauma.

A

respiratory arrest.

38
Q

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:
5:2.
30:2.
15:2.
5:1.

A

30:2.

39
Q

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston device for chest compressions is:
the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient.
the minimal training required to correctly operate the device.
the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.
its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size.

A

the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.

40
Q

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient’s chest at a rate of:
no greater than 100 compressions per minute.
Correct!
100 to 120 compressions per minute.
80 to 100 compressions per minute.
at least 120 compressions per minute.

A

100 to 120 compressions per minute.

41
Q

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?
5:1
3:1
15:2
30:2

A

15:2

42
Q

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?
100
90
110
120

A

100

43
Q

When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you should deliver each breath:
every 2 to 3 seconds (20 to 30 breaths/min).
while watching for adequate chest rise.
over a period of about 2 to 3 seconds.
quickly to ensure adequate ventilation.

A

while watching for adequate chest rise.

44
Q

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?
Agonal respiratory effort
Dependent blood pooling
Severe cyanosis to the face
Pulselessness and apnea

A

Dependent blood pooling

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?
Chest compressions
Abdominal thrusts
Cardiac monitoring
Automated defibrillation

A

Cardiac monitoring

46
Q

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:
apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
move the patch to another area of the patient’s chest and then properly apply the AED pad.
remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pad.
continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.

A

remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pad.

47
Q

You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by:
compressing quickly and releasing slowly.
compressing the sternum between the nipples.
placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.
depressing the sternum more than 2.5 inches in depth.

A

compressing the sternum between the nipples.

48
Q

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug?
Excedrin
Advil
Bayer
Aspirin

A

Aspirin

A-EMT (16 decks)

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