Selling Property Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three basic real estate transaction steps?

A

(1) Purchase Contract
(2) Executory Period
(3) Closing/Deed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What must you check at the “purchase contract” phase?

A

(1) Statute of frauds
(2) Marketable title
(3) Duty to disclose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is statute of frauds?

A

(1) Must be in writing
(2) with essential terms
(3) and signed by the ‘party to be bound’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What exceptions exist to the statute of frauds?

A

(1) Part performance
(2) Estoppel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What constitutes part performance?

A

(1) Buyer takes possession
(2) pays all or part of the purchase price
(3) makes improvements to the property
(4) Note that in some states, only some are required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What constitutes a claim for estoppel so as to be excepted from the statute of frauds?

A

(1) One party reasonably relies on oral contract to their detriment
(2) Serious injury would result if the contract is not enforced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is marketable title?

A

(1) Title that is free from claims or defects
(2) such that a court will enforce a purchasers obligation to purchase title to the property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three assumptions such that a property has Marketable title

What did I mean by this?

A

(1) Does not assume real property is defect free
(2) Assumes a title that a prudent purchaser would accept, acting ‘reasonably’ in ‘ordinary’ course of business
(3) Seller has time to cure defects prior to closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is insurable title?

A

A title that an insurance company would be willing to insure at normal rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is record title?

A

Title that appears in the public land records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

“As is”

A

(1) Where a seller does not guarantee anything about the state of the title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What will make a title unmarketable?

A

(1) title is subject to an encumburance
(2) Seller’s property interest is less than the one they are obligated to convey
or;
(3) There is reasonable doubt about either one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tell me the special rules for encumbrances

What am I refering to in this card? Special in relation to what?

A

N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are two common “roles” that marketable title takes in a sale of property?

A

(1) Express title provisions, where sales contracts require sellers to deliver marketable title - or another standard such as insurable title

(2) Implied covenant of marketable title: Where there is a default rule that a seller must deliver marketable title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When will risk of loss rules be applied, and what are the three rules?

A

When
(1) a property is damages during executory period
and;
(2) there is no express allocation of risk
then;
(3) Majority: Equitable conversion
(4) Minority: Massachusetts Rule or
(5) Modern trend: Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Equitable conversion

A

(1) Where a buyer bears the risk of loss because the buyer is the equitable owner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Massachusetts Rule?

A

The seller bears the risk of loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the damages rule by the Uniform Vendor and Purchaser risk act?

A

(1) The party with the right to possession at the time of the loss bears the risk of damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What duties could a seller have to disclose defects in property

A

(1) Traditional view
(i) Caveat Emptor
or;
(2) Modern rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Caveat Emptor?

A

(1) Generally, a seller has no duty to disclose defects
but;
A seller will be liable only if
(2) Affirmative misrepresentation
(3) Actively concealed defects
or;
(4) Owed a fiduciary duty to the buyer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the modern rule for disclosing defects?

A

Obligation to
(1) Disclose known defects that materially affect the value of the property
that are;
(2) not known or readily discoverable by the buyer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two Deed delivery requirements?

A

(1) Deeds are only effective upon delivery to the grantee, even if already signed
(2) Grantor must manifest an intention to immediately transfer title to the grantee through delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Death Escrow

A

(1) Where a thrid party has a deed and has been instructed only to deliver the deed on the grantors death
(2) Generally, only legally effective where the grantor cannot retrieve the deed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a Transfer on death deed

A

N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three ways one might assure a buyer they have a particular title

A

(1) Covenants
(2) Title opinions
(3) Title insurance

26
Q

What is a covenant?

A

Some kind of promise

27
Q

What kinds of opinions typically assure title?

A

(1) Attorneys or other professionals
(2) rendering opinions on a properties state of title
(3) after searching public land records

28
Q

What is title insurance?

A

(1) A company that issues a policy that insures the grantees title

29
Q

What are the three types of deeds?

A

(1) General Warranty deeds
(2) Special Warranty Deeds
(3) Quitclaim Deeds

30
Q

What is a General Warranty Deed?

A

(1) A grantor warrants title against all defects
(2) Whether they rose before or after she obtained title

31
Q

What is a special warranty deed?

A

(1) A grantor warrants title against all defects that arose
(2) after she obtained title

32
Q

What is a Quitclaim Deed?

A

(1) A grantor makes no warranty about title
(2) so, grantee is receives only whatever title grantor has

33
Q

What are the six title covenants?

A

(1) Covenant of seisin
(2) Covenant of right to convey
(3) Covenant against encumberances
(4) Covenant of warranty
(5) Covenant of quiet enjoyment
(6) Covenant of further assurances

34
Q

What is a covenant of seisin?

A

(1) The grantor promises he owns the estate he purports to convey

35
Q

What is a covenant of right to convey

A

(1) The grantor promises that he has the right to convey title

36
Q

What is a Covenant against encumberances

A

(1) the grantor promises there are no encumberances on title
(2) Other than those expressly listed in the deed

37
Q

What is a covenant of warranty?

A

(1) The grantor promises he will defend the grantee against any claims of superior title

38
Q

What is a covenant of quiet enjoyment

A

(1) A grantor promises the grantees possession of the property will not be disturbed by anyone holding superior title

39
Q

What is a covenant of further assurances?

A

(1) Where a grantor promises he will take all future steps reasonably neccesary to cure title defects that existed at closing

40
Q

How would an attorney create a title opinion?

A

(1) Looking through a
(i) not mandatory
(ii) not judically overseen
(2) Public land record system

41
Q

What are the two methods of organization for public land records?

A

(1) Grantor/Grantee indices
(2) Tract Indexes

42
Q

What is a chain of title?

A

(1) A history of ownership for a parcel

43
Q

What are the steps to finding a chain of title?

A

(1) Locate relevant legal documents
(2) Evaluate their legal significance

44
Q

What are the three recording-act rules?

A

(1) Race Jurisdiction
(2) Notice Jurisdiction
(3) Race-Notice jurisdiction

45
Q

What is a race jurisdiction?

A

(1) 2 states rule
(2) the purchaser that records first has priority

46
Q

What is a notice jursidiction?

A

(1) About half the states rule
(2) a subsequent purchaser without notice of prior interest
(3) is a Bonafide Purchaser

47
Q

What is a race-notice jurisdiction?

A

(1) A subsequent purchaser
(2) Both has no notice and
(3) Records first is protected as a Bona-Fide Purchaser

48
Q

What are the three kinds of interest-notice possible?

A

(1) Actual notice
(2) Record notice
(3) Inquiry notice

49
Q

What is actual notice?

A

(1) Actual notice of a prior interest

50
Q

What is Record notice?

A

(1) Where a standard search of public land records would notify the purchaser about a prior interest

51
Q

What is inquiry notice

A

(1) Where suspicious circumstances
(2) even ones not actually known
(3) dictate an investigation would reveal a prior land interest

52
Q

Salsich Article from class 22?

A

N/A

53
Q

When is a seller required to produce Marketable Title?

A

At the time of closing

54
Q

What happens to marketable title when someone accepts a deed?

A

Once a buyer accepts a deed at closing, they cannot sue to enforce the promise to deliver marketable title- merges into deed which becomes the operative legal instrument

55
Q

What is the first in time principal?

A

(1) At common law
(2) The person whose interest was created first prevails
but;
(3) is virtually always excepted by the bona fide purchaser doctrine

56
Q

What is the bona fide purchaser doctrine?

A

(1) Recording acts create speacial protections
(2) Which superceedes the first in time rule

57
Q

What is the shelter rule?

A

(1) A bona fide purchaser is allowed to transfer their protection to a later grantee

58
Q

What deed automatically conveys to listed beneficiaries on death?

A

A transfer on death deed

59
Q

What are the rules for transfer on death deeds?

A

(1) designates the beneficiaries they want to receive property upon death
(2) revocable by the grantor during their lifetime
(3) not legally operative until the grantors death
(4) delivery isnt required
and;
(5) is not part of an estate - so doesn’t need to go through probate

60
Q
A