HA FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

ETHNOCENTRISM

A

TENDENCY TO VIEW YOUR WAY OF LIFE AS THE MOST DESIRABLE AND BEST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

STEPS TO CULTURAL COMPETENCY

A

1) Understand your own heritage on the basis of cultural beliefs, attitudes, and practices that are relevant to health and illness.
2) Identify the meaning of health to the person you are working with.
3) Understand the health care delivery system, how it works, what it does, and meanings, costs, and consequences of procedures that are important to you and patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

RESPECT AS RELATED TO CULTURAL SENSITIVITY

A

Realize your and your patient’s heritage
Examine patient within the context of his cultural health and illness practices
Select simple questions and ask them slowly
Pace your questions throughout the exam
Encourage patient to discuss meanings of health & illness from their prespective
Check patient’s understanding & acceptance of health practices
Touch patient according to their cultural heritage- very important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

STEPS OF THE NURSING PROCESS

A

ASSESSMENT
DIAGNOSIS
PLANNING
IMPLEMENTATION
EVALUATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

stages of assessment

A

inspection
palpation
percussion
auscultation
*use your senses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

subjective data

A

biographical data
reason for seeking care
present health aka hpi
past history aka pmh
family history
review of systems ros
functional assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

present health or hpi

A

location, character or quality, quantity or severity, timing (onset, duration, frequency), setting, aggravating or relieving factors, associated factors, patient’s perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

objective data

A

the numbers
you can verify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

techniques for good communication

A

establish parameters
avoid roadblocks
introductory phase- intro and establish contract
working phase- get the info
summary-
termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10 traps of interviewing

A

Providing false assurance or reassurance
 Giving unwanted advice
 Using authority
 Using avoidance language
 Engaging in distancing
 Using professional jargon
 Using leading or biased questions
 Talking too much
 Interrupting
 Using “Why” questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NONVERBAL COMMUNICATION

A

physical appearance, posture, gestures, facial expression, eye contact, touch, personal space, territoriality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ROADBLOCKS TO COMMUNICATION

A

lack of privacy, uncomfortable, loud noises, distractions, distance- too close or too far, height- too tall or too short, shifting eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

OPEN QUESTIONS

A

enables person to express more information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CLOSED QUESTIONS

A

ASK FOR SPECIFIC INFO
YES/NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ASSESS MENTAL STATUS

A

ABCT
APPEARANCE
BEHAVIOR
COGNITION
THOUGHT PROCESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

APPEARANCE

A

POSTURE
BODY MVMTS
DRESS
GROOMING
HYGIENE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

BEHAVIOR

A

LOC
FACIAL EXPRESSION
SPEECH
MOOD
AFFECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

COGNITION

A

A&OX3
ATTENTION SPAN
RECENT MEMORY
REMOTE MEMORY
NEW LEARNING
JUDGEMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

THOUGHT PROCESS

A

THOUGHT CONTENT
PERCEPTIONS
SUICIDAL THOUGHTS- SCREEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ALERT

A

Awake or easily aroused, fully aware of environment, responds appropriately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lethargic/Somnolent-

A

Not fully alert, drifts off to sleep when stimulated, drowsy, will answer correctly to questions when aroused but quickly goes back to sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Obtunded-

A

Difficult to arouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stupor/ Semi-Coma-

A

Spontaneously unconscious,responds only to persistent and vigorous shake or pain. Reflexes are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

coma

A

Completely unconscious. No response topain or to any external or internal stimuli. May ormay not have reflexes present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

RESPIRATORY ASSESSMENT

A

MUST ASSESS RATE, DEPTH, EFFORT, USE OF ACCESSORY MUSCLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DYSPNEA

A

SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

A

is a sensation of shortness of breath that awakens the patient, often after 1 or 2 hours of sleep, and is usually relieved in the upright position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ORTHOPNEA

A

SOB WHEN LYING DOWN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

DIAPHORESIS

A

EXCESSIVE SWEATING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RESPIRATORY ASSESSMENT OF CHILDREN

A

4-6 URI PER YEAR
CONSIDER NEW FOODS FOR ALLERGIES
CHILDPROOF HOME TO STOP INHALATION/CONSUMPTION OF POISONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

RESPIRATORY ASSESSMENT OF OLDER ADULTS

A

DECREASED FUNCTIONAL RESERVE
LONGER TO RECOVER FROM ACTIVITY
DECREASED VITAL CAPACITY
DECREASED SURFACE AREA
DECREASED PAIN RESPONSE- RISK FACTOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

RR 0-1 YRS

A

30-35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RR 1-2 YRS

A

25-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

RR 2-6 YRS

A

21-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

RR 6-12 YRS

A

19-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

RR 12+ YRS

A

12-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CRACKLES

A

HIGH PITCHED POPPING SOUNDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

RHONCHI

A

LONG, LOW PITCHED, COARSE GURGLING SOUNDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

FRICTION RUB

A

HARSH GRATING SOUND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

WHEEZES

A

HIGH PITCHED WHISTLING SOUNDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TACHYPNEA

A

RAPID AND SHALLOW BREATHING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

BRADYPNEA

A

SLOW BREATHING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

EUPNEA

A

REGULAR BREATHING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CHEYNE STROKES RESPIRATIONS

A

CYCLIC
GRADUALLY WAX AND WANE IN REGULAR PATTERN
PERIODS OF APNEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HYPERVENTILATION

A

INCREASED RATE AND DEPTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HYPOVENTILATION

A

IRREGULAR SHALLOW PATTERN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

BIOTS RESPIRATIONS

A

IRREGULAR PATTERN WITH PERIODS OF APNEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

TRIPOD POSITION

A

ON SIDE OF BED
OVER BEDSIDE TABLE WITH PILLOWS
FOR COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tactile fremitus:

A

is a palpable vibration, produced by the larynx and transmitted through patent bronchi & lung tissue to the chest wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Increased fremitus occurs with

A

compression or consolidation of lung tissue. indicates increased density of lung tissue (must have a patent bronchus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

 Decreased tactile fremitus results from

A

obstruction of vibrations (obstructed bronchus, pleural effusion or thickening, pneumothorax, and emphysema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

 Pleural friction fremitus:

A

results from inflammation of the pleura (visceral or parietal) with decrease in the normal lubricating fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  • Barrel chest:
A

anteroposterior-to-transverse diameter is equal (with aging, emphysema, asthma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pectus excavatum:

A

“funnel chest”, sunken sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pectus carinatum:

A

“pigeon breast” forward protrusion of sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Scoliosis:

A

lateral S-shaped curvature of the thoracic and lumber spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Kyphosis:

A

exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine (humpback)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ASTHMA

A

REACTIVE AIRWAY DISEASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ATELECTASIS

A

COLLAPSED LUNG
ONE LUNG WILL SOUND DIFFERENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

BRONCHITIS

A

INFLAMMATION OF THE LINING OF THE BRONCHIAL TUBES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

COPD

A

a group of diseases that cause airflow blockage and breathing-related problems. It includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

PNEUMOTHORAX

A

a collection of air outside the lung but within the pleural cavity

63
Q

Bronchophony-

A

have pt. say “99” (increased transmission of voice sound with increased lung density or consolidation)

64
Q

Egophony

A

– have pt. say “ee” (sounds like “a” with consolidation)

65
Q
  • Respiratory considerations for elderly
A

Decreased mobility of thorax from calcified cartilage
- Decreased muscle strength
- Decreased elasticity of lungs
- Decreased vital capacity (max exhalation)
- Increased residual volume (what’s left over after exhale)
- Histologic changes with loss of intra
-alveolarseptum & number of alveoli
 decreased surface area for gas exchange- Increased risk of dyspnea & pulmonary complications

66
Q

symptoms of chronic hypoxia

A

Restlessness.
Headache.
Confusion.
Anxiety.
(tachycardia).
(tachypnea).
dyspnea
barrel chest
clubbed fingers
cyonosis

67
Q

review flow of blood

A

picture in power point

68
Q
  • Cardio- age related changes
A
  • Hemodynamic changes:
  • Increased systolic BP
  • Left ventricule (wall) thickens
  • Heart rate: unchanged at rest
  • Cardiac output: unchanged at rest
  • Decreased adaptation to exercise
  • Dysrhythmias: supraventricular & ventricula rIncreased cardiovascular diseases
69
Q

cardio assessment

A

angina- onset, charactor, precipitating factors, associated symptoms
need to differentiate between cario and noncardio origin
dyspnea
cough
fatigue
cyanosis
edema
nocturia
increased fluid absorption/excretion
cardiac Hx
family cardia Hx

70
Q

cardiac dysfunction

A

fatigue worse in evening

71
Q

edema and cardiac

A

unilateral or bilateral, dependent edema with heart failure (bilateral, increases in the evening, decreases with elevation of legs)

72
Q

pregnancy and cardiac

A

htn
protein in urine
edema- feet, legs, face
excessive weight gain

73
Q
  • For regional cardiovascular assessment, use the following order:
A
  1. Pulse and BP
  2. Extremities
  3. Neck vessels
  4. Precordium
74
Q

Auscultate the carotid arteries for bruits

A

(for persons > 40 age or have S/S of CV disease
* Bruit: blowing, swishing sound, indicates turbulent blood flow from a local vascular cause; audible when the lumen is occluded by ½ to 2/3
* Use the bell side of the stethoscope for bruits
* Absence of bruit does NOT necessarily exclude partial occlusion

75
Q

Inspect the jugular venous pulse

A
  • Unilateral distension of external jugular veins indicates local cause (aneurysm or kinking)
  • Bilateral distension of external jugular veins above 45 degrees indicates increased central venous pressure (CVP) from systemic disorder such as heart failure.
76
Q
  • Symptoms of arterial insufficiency-
A

pallor, coolness, diminished pulse strength
unilateral swelling is a local problem,
bilateral swelling indicates systemic problem

Deep muscle pain, pain with walking aka claudication, thin and shiny skin, absence of hair, necrotic ulcers on toes heels lateral malleolus

77
Q
  • Symptoms of venous insufficiency-
A

brownish discoloration,
venous ulcers on medial malleolus-wheeping
dull ache,
heaviness in lower leg pain,
pulses present,
thick brawny edematous skin,

78
Q
  • Abnormal findings when palpating precordium-
A
  • Heave or lift (sustained forceful thrusting of ventricle during systole) – indicates ventricular hypertrophy from increased workload.
  • Palpate the apical pulse (for the apex beat) and note its normal characteristics:
  • Location: normally at 4 or 5th intercostal space at or medial to midclavicular line & only occupying one intercostal space
  • Size: normally 1cm X 2cm
  • Amplitude: normally a short, gentle tap
  • Duration: normally occupies only one half of systole
79
Q

Left ventricular dilatation (volume overload) –

A

increases its size,displaces it more laterally, increases its duration & amplitude.

80
Q

Palpate across the precordium for

A

a thrill (palpable vibration)
*Note its timing if present auscultate or use carotid artery as a guide)
* Thrill: generally indicates a significant murmur
* Auscultate the precordium using the Z pattern technique from the base of the heart and down

81
Q

Locations of the heart valves:

A
  • Second right interspace – aortic valve
  • Second left interspace – pulmonic valve
  • Left sternal border – tricuspid valve
  • Fifth interspace near the left midclavicular line –mitral valve
  • ALL PIGS EAT TOO MUCH
82
Q

normal heart sounds

A

s1 and s2

83
Q

s1

A

closure of mitral and tricuspid valves

84
Q

s2

A

closure of aortic and pulmonic valves

85
Q

extra heart sounds

A

s3
s4
murmurs

86
Q

Murmurs:

A
  • Result from turbulent blood flow caused by:- Increased velocity- Decreased viscosity- Structural defects
87
Q

know pulse locations

A

know general ones but also remember picture from powerpoint
all pigs eat too much
aortic
pulmonic
erb’s point
tricuspid
mitral

88
Q

apex

A

bottom
s1>s2

89
Q

base

A

top
s2>s1

90
Q

how to assess pulse

A

apical- one minute
others usually 30 seconds x 2

91
Q

pulse abnormalities

A

bruits
splits
clicks
murmurs

92
Q

cervical nodes

A

drain head and neck

93
Q

axillary nodes

A

drain breast and upper arm

94
Q

epitrochlear node

A

drains hand and lower arm
in the antecubital fossal

95
Q

inguinal nodes

A

drain le, external genitalia, and anterior abdominal wall

96
Q

palpate lymphnodes

A

use gentle circular motion with your fingerpads
start with preauricular

97
Q

deep cervical chain

A

tip patient head toward side being examined

98
Q

supraclavicular nodes

A

patient to hunch shoulders and elbows forward

99
Q

abnormalities in lymph nodes

A

abnormal to palpate in adults
if palpable note location, size, shape, discrete, matted, mobility, consistency, tenderness

100
Q

intervention for an enlarged lymphnode

A

describe all aspects
note source they drain
refer for follow up
pay attention between acute infection and cancer or hiv

101
Q

Air conduction (AC) -

A

normal pathway

102
Q

 Bone conduction (BC) -

A

alternate route* directly transmit vibrations to inner ear & to CN VIII

103
Q

tonsil grading

A

1+ Visible just beyond the anterior pillar (normal)
2+ Halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula
3+ Touching the uvula
4+ Touching each other

104
Q
  • Facial symmetry assessment-
A

note symmetry: asymmetry with central brain lesion, damage to the CN VII (Bell’spalsy

105
Q
  • How to assess tm in kids
A

out and down

106
Q

how to assess tm in older children and adults

A

out and up

107
Q

Pupillary light reflex:

A

normal constriction of the pupils when bright light shines on the retina
* Direct light reflex: constriction of that pupil exposed to the bright light*
* Consensual light reflex: simultaneous constriction of the other pupil.

108
Q

accomodation

A

refers to the adaptation of the eye from far to near vision
- Results from the increased curvature of the lens by movement of the ciliary muscles
- Normal finding: convergence of the axis of the eyeball & pupillary constriction

109
Q

snellen chart

A

normal vision is 20/20 (you can read at 20 feet what the normal eye could read at 20 feet)
* Top number (numerator) notes the distance the person is standing from the chart; the bottom number (denominator) gives the distance at which a normal eye could read that particular line

110
Q

jaeger card

A

visual acuity
persons over 40 or difficulty reading
near vision
hold 14 inches from the eye
normal is 14/14
move farther away = presbyopia

111
Q

confrontation test

A

visual fields
* Indication of peripheral field loss: person unable to see the object as the examiner does

112
Q

hirschberg test

A

corneal light reflex
Assess the parallel alignment of the eye axes
* Asymmetry of the light reflex indicates deviation in alignment from muscle weakness or paralysis

113
Q

cover test

A

detects small degrees of deviated alignment
* Abnormal finding: eye jumps to fixate on the designated point (indicates muscle weakness).

114
Q

Diagnostic position test (Six cardinal positions of gaze)

A
  • Normal response: parallel tracking of the object with both eyes
  • Abnormal finding: unparallel movement of the eyes (indicates extraocular muscle weakness or dysfunction of the cranial nerve)*
115
Q
  • Strabismus:
A

crossed eye, one eye deviates off fixation point, can disconjugate vision.

116
Q
  • TEST FOR ACCOMODATION
A

Normal response=
1. pupillary constriction and
2. convergence of the axis of the eyes
3. * Abnormal finding: absence of constriction or convergence, asymmetric response
4. * Record normal response as PERRLA

117
Q

PERRLA

A

(Pupils Equal, Round, React to Light and Accommodation)

118
Q

Red reflex-

A

Direct the beam of light through the pupil to illuminate the inner structures
 Match sides with patient (ex. use your right eye for viewing pt’s right eye
 Start at 10 inches away from pt. at an angle 15% lateral to the pt’s person’s line of vision
 Note the red reflex filling the pt’s pupil and steadily move closer to the eye, keeping sight of the red reflex

119
Q
  • Age related eye change- Infants and Children:-
A

Limited eye movement at birth but peripheral vision is intact;
iris less pigmented-
Macula is absent at birth; developing byage 4 months & mature by 8 months
- Binocularity and the ability to fixate on asingle object by 3-4 months
- Eyeball is adult size by age 8

120
Q

AGE RELATED EYE CHANGES- ELDERLY

A

Lacrimal glands involute
- Arcus senilis: infiltration of degenerative lipid material around the limbus
- Pupil size decreases- Loss of elasticity of the lens
- Common causes of decreased visual functioning in the aged adult:- Presbyopia:
- senile cataract
- floaters
- glaucoma
- md

121
Q

presbyopia

A

the lens decreased ability to change shape in order to accommodate for near vision.

122
Q

senile cataract

A

: lens opacity, fibers of the lens thickens & yellows (nuclear sclerosis)

123
Q

Floaters:

A

from debris accumulating in the vitreous

124
Q

Glaucoma:

A

increased ocular pressure

125
Q

Macular degeneration: md

A

loss of central vision (area of clearest vision); inability to read fineprint; peripheral vision is unchanged
* Most common cause of blindness (greater incidence in woman)

126
Q

shapes of abdomen

A

flat
scaphoid
rounded
distended
protuberant

127
Q

distended abdomen

A

bulging outward

128
Q

scaphoid

A

sunken

129
Q

protuberant

A

bulging or convex

130
Q
  • Cva tenderness-
A

Use indirect fist percussion to vibrate over the 12th at the costovertebral angle (CVA)
* Hold one hand over the CVA, then thump hand with the ulnar edge of your other fist
* * Normal finding: patient feels only the thud but no pain
* * Sharp pain (costovertebral angletenderness) indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric region

131
Q

dysphagia

A

any difficulty swallowing
painful

132
Q

gi order of assessment

A

inspection
auscultation
percussion
palpation

133
Q

palpation of spleen

A
  • Located on posterolateral region of the abdominal cavity beneath the diaphragm, from the 9th to 11th rib lateral to the midaxillary line (approximately 7 cm in length)
  • Normally not palpable
134
Q

when not to palpate the spleen

A

Palpable only if it is 3 times its normal size*
Do not continue to palpate an enlarged spleen as it is friable (bleeds easily) & can rupture
* Note how many centimeters it extend sbelow the left costal margin

135
Q

cranial nerve 1

A

olfactory
smell

136
Q

cranial nerve 2

A

optic
how well you see

137
Q

cranial nerve 3

A

oculomotor
3,4,6 make the eyes do tricks
adjusts and coordinates eyes during movement

138
Q

cranial nerve 4

A

trochlear
look down or to nose
3, 4, 6 make eyes do tricks

139
Q

cranial nerve 5

A

trigeminal
hree-part nerve in your head that provides sensation.
forehead, cheek, chin

140
Q

cranial nerve 6

A

abducens
3, 4, 6 make eyes do tricks
makes eye move out
look to the side

141
Q

cranial nerve 7

A

facial nerve
facial expression
smile
lift eyebrows
puff cheeks

142
Q

cranial nerve 8

A

acoustic
hearing

143
Q

cranial nerve 9

A

glossopharyngeal
swallow
moves pharynx/larynx
say ahh
gag reflex

144
Q

cranial nerve 10

A

vagus
coughing, sneezing, vomitting
gag

145
Q

cranial nerve 11

A

spinal accessory nerve
push shoulders or head against pressure

146
Q

cranial nerve 12

A

hypoglossal
tongue movement

147
Q

gcs

A

glasgow coma scale

review chart in ppt
mild 13-15
moderate 9-12
severe 3-8

148
Q

what do balance test check for

A

cerebellar function

149
Q

balance tests

A

gait- regular walking
tandem walk- heel to toe
romberg test- close eyes and maintain balance for 60 seconds
hop in place/shallow knee bends

150
Q

coordination tests

A

rapid alternating movements ram
thumb to finger test
finger to finger test
finger to nose test
heel to shin test

151
Q

rapid alternating movement

A

Rapid alternating movements (RAM) of the hands test several aspects of coordination. When a patient has cerebellar disease, one movement cannot be quickly followed by its opposite and movements are slow, irregular, and clumsy.

152
Q

finger to finger test

A

. The patient is asked to touch the tips of the index finger of each hand together. A, A truly blind patient can easily perform this task. B, A patient with nonorganic visual loss may demonstrate the inability to touch the fingers together.

153
Q

finger to nose test

A

Finger to nose & finger to finger test. Ask patient to fully extend arm then touch nose or ask them to touch their nose then fully extend to touch your finger.

detecting disorders in the cerebellar region and neural circuits involving the cerebellum. It has also been used to detect disorders related to cerebellar function.

154
Q

heel to shin test

A

For the lower extremities, the examiner asks the patient to move their heel across the shin in a proximal to distal motion. In a hemispheric cerebellar lesion, the patient will not be able to trace the shin in a straight line and will move the heel from side to side.