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anatomy 2402 > final exam > Flashcards

final exam Flashcards

1
Q

what are the major differences between the connection of the hypothalamus and the neurohypophysis and the connection between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis?

A

Hypothalmic hormones released in the hypophyseal
portal system control the release of hormones from the adenohypophysis. Action potentials travel down the axons of hypothalamic neurons, which causes hormone release from their axon terminals in the neurohypophysis (neurohypophysis is directly associated with hypothalmus)

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2
Q

What are the effects of parathyroid hormone (PTH, parathormone) in relation to calcium?

A

PTH is secreted when calcium levels drop, and it is inhibited by rising calcium levels. PTH stimulates osteoclasts to digest bone matrix, enhances calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

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3
Q

Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins and peptide hormones, activate target cells

A

by binding to receptors on the cell membrane and initiating the second-messenger system. This system activates a protein that converts ATP to cAMP, which activates proteins in the cytoplasm to alter cell activity.

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4
Q

Explain each of the cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia.

A

Polyuria is a large urine output, polydipsia is excessive thirst, and polyphagia is excessive hunger and/or food consumption.

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5
Q

How does a hormone find and attach to its target cell?

A

It will bind to unique receptors displayed on the plasma membrane, while bypassing all other types of receptors.

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6
Q

hormones penetrate the plasma membrane and bind to nuclear receptors. They can also bind to DNA receptors and change the genetic activity of the cell.

A

steroid

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7
Q

What is the function of each granulocyte?

A

Neutrophils are phagocytic “bacteria slayers”, eosinophils play a role with parasitic worms and asthma/allergies, and basophils release histamine as an inflammatory response

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8
Q

List each blood type – include their antigens and antibodies.

A

A+ (A, D anti-B)
A- (A anti-B)
B+ (B, D anti-A)
B- (B anti-A)
AB+ (A, B, D none)
AB- (A, B none)
O+ (D anti-A, anti-B)
O- (none anti-A, anti-B)

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9
Q

The percentages of each granulocytes in normal circulating blood?

A

Neutrophils about 50- 70%, eosinophils about 2-4%, and basophils less than 1%.

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10
Q

List each component making up the composition of blood plasma and their approximate percentages?

A

Water makes up about 90% of plasma, proteins make up about 8%, and nutrients, gases, hormones, and wastes make up the other 2%.

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11
Q

What are the names and functions of the main plasma proteins?

A

Albumin is the most abundant and helps maintain the osmotic pressure of blood. Globulin can act as an enzyme, antibody, or transport protein. Fibrinogen gets converted to fibrin, which assists in clotting

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12
Q

What are the three major events of hemostasis in order? Define each.

A

Vascular spasm is vasoconstriction triggered by an injury to the blood vessel. Platelet plug formation is a mass of platelets forming a plug in the damaged vessel. Coagulation is a series of reactions to transform plasma into sticky protein to form a patch.

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13
Q

What condition and organ triggers erythropoiesis?

A

The hormone erythropoietin triggers erythropoiesis; it mostly comes from the kidney but also some comes from the liver

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14
Q

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

A

7.35-7.45

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15
Q

What ion is essential to virtually all stages of coagulation?

A

calcium

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16
Q

Know the complete blood trace through the heart, including all vessels and valves.

A

Vena cava, r atrium, tricuspid valve, r ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, l atrium, mitral valve, l ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, aorta.

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17
Q

Label and describe the electrical events in the heart that occurs during each of the
following:
p wave
p-q wave
qrs wave
t wave

A

p wave: depolarization of SA node; depolarization of atria
p-q wave: time period for impulse to travel from SA node to AV node
qrs: ventricular depolarization; atrial repolarization
t wave: ventricular repolarization

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18
Q

Drugs known as calcium channel blockers can be used to

A

treat hypertension, arrhythmias, angina pectoris, etc.

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19
Q

What is the systemic circuit? The pulmonary circuit?

A

Both begin and end at the heart; he systemic circuit sends oxygenated blood to and receives deoxygenated blood to/from the body tissues, and the pulmonary circuit sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be oxygenated, then it returns to the left side of the heart and is pumped out of the aorta into the systemic circuit.

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20
Q

What is the order of the conduction system of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, atrioventricular bundle, right/left bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

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21
Q

What physiological regulation prevents tetanic contractions when the heart beats (which would stop the heart’s pumping action)?

A

refractory period

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22
Q

Compare skeletal muscle fibers and cardiac muscle cells, both anatomically and physiologically

A

Skeletal muscle is multinucleate, striated, and cylindrical; the motor units must be stimulated individually; fewer mitochondria; shorter refractory period. Cardiac muscle is usually uninucleate and has short, striated cells, with intercalated discs present; entire heart functions as a single unit; requires more mitochondria to support its high energy needs; has longer refractory period so chambers can fill with blood.

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23
Q

Where is the cardiovascular center within the nervous system?

A

within the medulla oblongata

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24
Q

What is ventricular systole and ventricular diastole?

A

Systole is a period of contraction, and diastole is a period of relaxation. Both measured in the large arteries close to the heart

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25
Q

Where are the baroreceptors located? What are they sensitive too?

A

Located in walls of large arteries and they measure arterial blood pressure. Increased BP stimulates baroreceptors to increase input to vasomotor center; this will inhibit the vasomotor and cardioacceleratory centers while stimulating the cardioinhibitory center. This results in decreased blood pressure via vasodilation.

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26
Q

What factors increase peripheral resistance in a vessel? What factors decrease peripheral resistance in a vessel?

A

Increases resistance: increased viscosity, longer vessel length, and smaller vessel diameter. Decreases resistance: decreased viscosity, shorter vessel length,
and larger vessel diameter.

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27
Q

are the smallest vessels that permit the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells.

A

capillaries

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28
Q

Do all arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart? Explain your answer

A

All arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart except for the pulmonary arteries, which carry deoxygenated blood (to the lungs).

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29
Q

Explain how disorders of lymphatic structures can result in edema.

A

Edema is fluid buildup, this can happen when there is poor circulation, swollen glands, or parasitic/bacterial
infections. If it occurs with lymph fluids, it is called lymphadema

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30
Q

The net filtration pressure of a blood capillary is the difference between

A

hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by fluid pressing against the vessel wall, and colloid osmotic pressure is exerted by large particles not being able to pass through the vessel well.

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31
Q

What are the effects of aldosterone?

A

Stimulates sodium reabsorption (along with water) and potassium elimination in the kidneys.

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32
Q

What is the viscosity? What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

Viscosity is the thickness of blood due to the amount of proteins and formed elements. Colloid osmotic pressure is the force of those non-diffusible molecules against the capillary wall; it opposes hydrostatic pressure and these opposing forces allow the exchange of nutrients and wastes across the capillary wall.

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33
Q

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the. head and thorax?

A

right lymphatic duct

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34
Q

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the left side of the body and lower body?

A

thoracic duct

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35
Q

What are Peyer’s patches and where are they located?

A

Nodules of lymphatic tissue in the ileum of the small intestines.

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36
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A

Filters blood, destroys and recycles old RBC’s, blood reservoir, and produces blood cells during fetal development

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37
Q

Before a B lymphocyte can secrete antibodies it must transform into __ cells

A

plasma

38
Q

What is clonal selection in B cells? What does it result in?

A

Clonal selection is when a B cell encounters its specific antigen then proliferates, producing clones of itself. This takes about 4-6 days, and the clones differentiate into either plasma cells or memory cells.

39
Q

How do B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge?

A

By producing plasma and memory cells.

40
Q

Name each of the tonsils and their locations. What is their function?

A

Pharyngeal, palatine, and lingual tonsils. Function is to filter particles entering the body through the mouth or nose

41
Q

What are the mechanisms that maintain lymph flow?

A

Skeletal muscle action, thoracic pressure changes, pulse of nearby arteries, and valves that prevent back flow

42
Q

What do both lymph transport and venous blood flow have in common?

A

Have minimal (or none) pressure propulsion; both contain valves to prevent back flow of fluids.

43
Q

Compare and contrast active and passive immunity. Give examples of each

A

Active immunity is when a B-cell encounters antigens and produces antibodies against them; naturally acquired in response to bacteria, or artificially acquired in response to vaccine (tiny amount to trigger primary exposure). Passive immunity is when already made
antibodies are introduced into the body; naturally acquired through the placenta or breast milk; artificially acquired through serum injections.

44
Q

Describe innate and adaptive immunity

A

Innate immunity is non-specific and is our first line (skin, mucous membranes) and second line (inflammation, fever, immune cells); adaptive immunity is specific but takes longer to act. It is broken down into cell-mediated (T cells) and humoral (B cells).

45
Q

List the various types of T cells and their function. Which is the most critical cell in immunity?

A

Helper T cells direct the activation of other immune cells, and they are the most critical cell in immunity. Cytotoxic T cells directly attack and kill other cells. Regulatory T cells suppress the activity of lymphocytes via cytokines to prevent autoimmune responses. Memory T cells are long-lived and allow a faster response to a subsequent invasion.

46
Q

What are macrophages? Describe their role.

A

Macrophages are the main phagocytic cell within our body, so they play a large role in destroying foreign materials.

47
Q

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?

A

Proteins that an invaded cell secretes to stimulate neighboring cells to produce antiviral proteins

48
Q

How do antibodies contribute to complement fixation?

A

When an antibody binds to an antigen, this triggers complement to bind to them, leading to lysis of the foreign cell

49
Q

Describe MAC, as part of the complement system

A

The membrane attack complex (MAC) is formed on the surface of bacterial cells as a result of the activation, and it forms transmembrane channels which disrupt the bacterium’s phospholipid bilayer, leading to cell death

50
Q

Explain the relation between self and nonself antigens and the immune cells.

A

Immune cells recognize self vs non-self cells due to glycoproteins present on the cell membrane. This allows an immune response to be mounted against non-self cells, or self cells that have been invaded.

51
Q

Where are the respiratory centers in the brain located?

A

Brain stem, pons, and medulla oblongata

52
Q

What are the four functional processes performed by the respiratory system?

A

Pulmonary ventilation: movement of gases in and out of lungs. External respiration: gas exchange between lungs and blood. Transport gases within blood. Internal respiration: gas exchange between blood and body tissues.

53
Q

Air moves __ the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is less than the pressure in the atmosphere. Then, air moves __ of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

A

into, out

54
Q

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is when the partial pressure of ___ increases.

A

carbon dioxide

55
Q

What is the quantity of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in the solution in the plasma? Chemically bound to hemoglobin?

A

About 1.5% of oxygen is carried in plasma as a dissolved gas, and about 98.5% is bound to hemoglobin. About 7% of carbon dioxide is carried in plasma as dissolved gas, about 23% is bound to hemoglobin

56
Q

Describe each of the respiratory volumes:
Tidal volume (TV):
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV):
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV):
Residual volume (RV):

A

TV: amount of air inspired during normal, relaxed breathing; ~500mL.
IRV: additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after tidal inspiration; ~2100-3200mL
ERV: additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after tidal exhalation; ~1200mL.
RV: volume of air remaining in lungs after ERV is exhaled; ~1200mL.

57
Q

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by

A

reducing surface tension

58
Q

What layers make up the respiratory membrane?

A

Alveolar wall and capillary wall.

59
Q

Explain how the partial pressure gradient determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

A

The partial pressure of oxygen is always lower in the tissues than the blood, which causes oxygen to diffuse readily into the tissues (areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration). The reverse (but less dramatic) is true for carbon dioxide

60
Q

What are the components (i.e. enzymes, solutes, etc.) and functions of saliva?

A

Saliva is composed mostly of water, digestive enzymes, mucus, and antimicrobials. The functions are to cleanse mouth, start digestion with salivary amylase, and moisten food to compact into bolus.

61
Q

How is bile produced, what does it contain, and what is its digestive function?

A

Bile is made by the liver, and consists of bile salts, pigments, triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, and other ions. It functions to emulsify fats.

62
Q

Explain the regulatory function of each of the following paracrines: gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin.

A

Gastrin and histamine increase intestinal motility and promote gastric secretions. Endorphins increase appetite and gastric secretions. Serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin decrease gastric secretions.

63
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

Store and concentrate bile that was made in the liver

64
Q

What is chyme and where is it manufactured?

A

Chyme is broken down food mixed with water and digestive enzymes, it is produced in the stomach.

65
Q

What is the function of goblet cells in the small/large intestine? Paneth cells?

A

Goblet cells secrete mucous, Paneth cells secrete antimicrobials.

66
Q

What is the greater omentum?

A

Fatty tissue layer that attaches to the greater curvature of the stomach and lays over the intestines; “beer belly”

67
Q

What stomach cell produces each of the following: intrinsic factor, gastric hormones, hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen?

A

Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid, enteroendocrine cells secrete hormones, and chief cells secrete pepsinogen

68
Q

What are the essential roles played by large intestine bacteria?

A

Break down indigestible carbohydrates (such as cellulose), and produce vitamins K and some B.

69
Q

Hydrolysis is the enzymatic __ of any type of food molecule.

A

breakdown

70
Q

What is the outcome of ketosis?

A

Breakdown of fats for energy instead of glucose, produces organic acids called ketones

71
Q

What is the major waste substance found in the urine after proteins undergo deamination?

A

Urea, after the liver breaks down toxic ammonia

72
Q

Define VLDLs, LDLs, and HDLs? Describe their advantages and/or disadvantages. What are food sources of each?

A

Very low-density lipoproteins: transport triglycerides from liver to tissues, obtained from fruits, vegetables, grains. Low-density lipoproteins: transport cholesterol to tissues, obtained from eggs, cheese, shellfish, meats. High-density lipoproteins: transport excess cholesterol to liver for bile production, obtained from grains, beans, seeds.

73
Q

Describe the reactions of each stage of cellular respiration and their products. Which events take place in the cytoplasm and which in the mitochondria? What is the function of NAD+ and FAD+? What stage produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis happens first and occurs in the cytosol, it is the breakdown of glucose to yield 2 pyruvic acid, 2 NADH + H+, and 4 ATP (minus 2 used in reaction). Krebs cycle within the mitochondria is next, after the presence of oxygen converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA; it yields 4 carbon dioxide, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 ATP. Still within the mitochondria, the last step is the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation. It involves harnessing energy from electrons as they are shuttled through proteins, then using that energy to pump hydrogen ions through ATP synthase pumps to form ATP from ADP, it yields ~28 ATP and metabolic water. NAD+ and FAD+ are coenzymes that assist in moving electrons along the electron transport chain.

74
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

The creation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources

75
Q

Define metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism

A

Metabolism: all chemical reactions within body. Anabolism: synthesize monomers into polymers. Catabolism: breakdown of polymers into monomers via hydrolysis

76
Q

What are all parts and features of the renal corpuscle?

A

Renal corpuscle consists of two parts, the glomerulus and the Bowman’s (glomerular) capsule, and the space between them is the capsular space. Large cells called podocytes sit on the glomerulus and create large filtration slits with their cellular projections (pedicels).

77
Q

What muscles of the urinary bladder and urethra play a role in urination?

A

Detrusor muscle in urinary bladder and internal urethral sphincter are smooth (involuntary), and the external urethral sphincter is skeletal (voluntary)

78
Q

What are the three layers of the glomerular filtration membrane?

A

Capillary endothelium (prevents blood cells), basement membrane (prevents large proteins), and filtration slits created by podocytes (prevents small proteins).

79
Q

What factors and pressures affect glomerular filtration rate? What factors can be implemented to increase or decrease the filtration rate? What is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane? What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? Decreased? How is the fluid in the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule similar/different from blood plasma?

A

Hydrostatic pressure is the main force that pushes solutes from the glomerulus into the capsular space. It is a passive process and occurs in only one direction. Blood cells and proteins are too large to fit through the filtration slits, creating colloid osmotic force. This force opposes hydrostatic pressure, ensuring substances continue to move from the glomerulus to the capsular space. Vasoconstriction or vasodilation of the afferent arteriole is the main method to control filtration rate (by controlling blood pressure entering the glomerulus). The fluid in the Bowman’s capsule does not contain proteins, whereas our blood plasma contains many proteins.

80
Q

What is the function of each of the following hormones:
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
aldosterone
angiotensin II:
atrial natriuretic peptide
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
epinephrine

A

ADH: promotes water reabsorption in DCT/collecting duct
aldosterone: promotes sodium reabsorption (and potassium secretion)
angiotensin II: promotes sodium and water reabsorption
atrial natriuretic peptide: inhibits sodium reabsorption
PTH: inhibits phosphate reabsorption and promotes calcium reabsorption
epinephrine: decreases urine output

81
Q

What stimulates the kidneys to produce renin?

A

decrease in blood pressure

82
Q

What is the function of the loop of Henle? How does it establish the medullary osmotic gradient?

A

The loop of Henle allows the nephron to concentrate urine by fluid moving in opposite directions through semipermeable tubes, adjusting the concentration throughout.

83
Q

Describe the differences in permeability of the descending limb and ascending of the loop of Henle (differentiate the thick and thin segments)

A

The descending limb (thin) allows only water to diffuse out, and the ascending limb (thick) allows electrolytes to only diffuse out

84
Q

__ have greater osmotic power than nonelectrolytes and therefore have the greatest ability to cause fluid shifts. The body’s water volume is closely tied to the level of __ ions

A

electrolytes, sodium

85
Q

Define the following: electrolytes, nonelectrolytes, intracellular, interstitium.

A

Electrolytes dissociate in water to ions and include inorganic salts, acids, bases, etc., and they have high osmotic power (have an electrical charge). Nonelectrolytes do not dissociate in water and include glucose, lipids, urea, creatine, etc., and carry no electrical charge. Intracellular means within a cell, and interstitial means between cells.

86
Q

What are the causes of respiratory acidosis? Respiratory alkalosis? How will the body counteract to each?

A

Respiratory acidosis means rising CO2 levels and falling blood pH, either from shallow breathing or respiratory disease. Counteracted by increasing breathing rate and depth to encourage CO2 unloading. Respiratory alkalosis is the opposite of all that, caused by hyperventilation.

87
Q

How is sodium levels and blood pressure linked?

A

The total body content of sodium determines extracellular fluid volume, which influences blood volume and pressure.

88
Q

How does the respiratory system influence the buffer systems of the body?

A

If CO2 levels rise, medullary respiratory centers increasing breathing rate/depth to increase CO2 unloading in lungs. Opposite happens if CO2 levels drop.

89
Q

Compare and contrast an acid versus a base

A

Acids are broken down in water and release hydrogen ions, bases combine with hydrogen ions to remove them.

90
Q

Identify and describe the operation of the three major chemical buffers of the body.

A

Bicarbonate buffer system occurs in ECF and consists of carbonic acid as its weak acid and sodium bicarbonate as its weak base. Phosphate buffer system occurs in urine and ICF, and consists of sodium dihydrogen phosphate as its weak acid and monohydrogen phosphate as its weak base. Protein buffer system happens within plasma and ICF, and has a wide variety of buffers as acids and/or bases. Protein buffers are the most numerous and influence pH the most.

91
Q

The average pH of urine is approximately

A

6, but varies from 4.5-8.0

92
Q

Define the following electrolyte imbalances: hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia; hyperchloremia and hypochloremia; hypermagnesemia and hypomagnesemia; hyperphosphatemia or hypophosphatemia; hyperkalemia and hypokalemia; hypernatremia and hyponatremia.

A

“Hypo-” refers to a deficiency, and “Hyper-“ refers to an excessive amount. “-calcemia” refers to calcium levels,“ chloremia” refers to chloride, “-magnesia” refers to magensium, “-phosphatemia” refers to phosphorus, “ kalemia” refers to potassium, and “-natremia” refers to sodium.

anatomy 2402 (6 decks)

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