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Bacteriology > Aerobic Gram Positive Bacilli > Flashcards

Aerobic Gram Positive Bacilli Flashcards

1
Q

Non-spore forming, Non-branching Gram positive bacilli

A

MNEMONIC: GLECAL
* Gardnerella vaginalis
* Listeria
* Erysipelothrix
* Corynebacterium
* Arcanobacterium
* Lactobacillus

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2
Q

Non-spore forming, Branching, Aerobic Actinomycetes

A

MNEMONIC: TANGRS
* Tsukamurella, or Tropheryma whipplei
* Aerobic actinomyces
* Nocardia
* Gordonia
* Rhodoccocus
* Streptomyces

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3
Q

Non-spore forming, Non-branching, Catalase positive (+) Bacilli

A
  • Corynebacterium
  • Rothia
  • Listeria
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4
Q

Non-spore forming, Non-branching, Catalase negative (-) Bacilli

A
  • Arcanobacterium and Trueperella
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  • Gardnerella vaginalis
  • Lactobacillus
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5
Q

It is also known as “Kleb Loeffler’s Bacillus”

A

Corynebacterium spp.

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6
Q

Corynebacterium spp. are also known as _________.

A

Kleb Loeffler’s Bacillus

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7
Q

Gram stain reaction and morphology of Corynebacterium spp.

A

Slightly curved, gram positive (+) rods with no parallel sides, and slightly wider ends producing a “club shape” or “coryneform” appearance

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8
Q

Coryne means _______.

A

Club or club-shaped rods

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9
Q

An organism characterized by its “club-shape” or “coryneform” appearance.

A

Corynebacterium spp.

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10
Q

Corynebacterium spp. are also called as _________.

A

Diphtheroids

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11
Q

_______ are also called as Diphtheroids.

A

Corynebacterium spp.

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12
Q

Diphtheroids mean _________.

A

Diphtheria-like

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13
Q

Corynebacterium spp. can be divided into _________ species.

A

Lipophilic and Non-lipophilic

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14
Q

These are fastidious organisms that grow slowly on standard culture media, and must be incubated for at least 48 hours.

A

Lipophilic

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15
Q

To enhance the growth of Lipophilic species, _______ must be added in the culture media.

A

Lipids

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16
Q

Lipophilic species should be incubated for at least ________.

A

48 hours

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17
Q

Virulence factors associated with Corynebacterium spp.

A

Diphtheria Toxin

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18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Diphtheria toxin is a heat-stable toxin.

A

False

Answer: heat-labile

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19
Q

Diphtheria toxin is produced by __________.

A

C. diphtheriae strains that are infected with lysogenic β-phage

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20
Q

Diphtheria toxin is produced by strains of C. diphtheriae infected with ______.

A

lysogenic β-phage

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21
Q

__________ carries the gene “tox” for diphtheria toxin.

A

C. diphtheriae strains that are infected with lysogenic β-phage

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22
Q

C. diphtheriae strains that are infected with lysogenic β-phage carries the gene _______ for diphtheria toxin.

A

tox

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23
Q

Diphtheria toxin is a protein of _______ daltons (Da).

A

62,000 Da

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24
Q

Diphtheria toxin is composed of _____ fragments.

A

2

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25
Q

Which fragment of Diphtheria toxin functions in cytotoxicity?

A

Fragment A

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26
Q

How is Fragement A of Diphtheria toxin virulent?

A

It functions in cytotoxicity

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27
Q

Which fragment of Diphtheria toxin functions in binding to receptors and mediates the entry of the other fragment?

A

Fragment B

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28
Q

How is Fragment B of Diphtheria toxin virulent?

A

It binds to receptors, and mediates the entry of Fragment A into the cytoplasm

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29
Q

Infections caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A
  • Respiratory diphtheria
  • Cutaneous diphtheria
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30
Q

Which organism often stains irregularly when stained with methylene blue?

A

Corynebacterium spp.

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31
Q

Corynebacterium spp. often stained irregularly when stained with ________.

A

methylene blue

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32
Q

Metachromatic areas of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are called __________.

A

Babes-Ernst Granules

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33
Q

Babes-Ernst Granules represent the _________.

A

accumulation of polymerizes polyphosphates

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34
Q

Babes-Ernst Granules is a characteristic found in ________.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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35
Q

Aerotolerance of Corynebacterium spp.

A

Facultative anaerobe

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36
Q

Optimal growth temperature of Corynebacterium spp.

A

37 C

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37
Q

Corynebacterium spp. can multiply within the temperature range _______.

A

15 - 40 C

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38
Q

Can Corynebacterium spp. grow on nutrient agar?

A

Yes

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39
Q

How can Corynebacterium spp. grow better?

A

By using a medium containing blood or serum such as:
* Loeffler’s serum
* Pai agar

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40
Q

Corynebacterium spp. produces a ______ of hemolysis.

A

very small zone of β-hemolysis

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41
Q

Which culture media is often used for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Cystine-Tellurite Blood Agar (CTBA)

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42
Q

What kind of medium is CTBA according to function?

A

Selective and Differential

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43
Q

Which inhibitor is present in CTBA?

A

Potassium tellurite

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44
Q

What does potassium tellurite do in CTBA?

A

Inhibits the growth of non-coryneform bacteria

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45
Q

It is a modification of the Tinsdale medium

A

Cystine-Tellurite Blood Agar (CTBA)

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46
Q

Cystine-Tellurite Blood Agar (CTBA) is a modification of ________.

A

Tinsdale Medium

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47
Q

Tinsdale medium components

A
  • Sheep RBCs
  • Bovine serum
  • Cysteine
  • Potassium tellurite
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48
Q

Describe the colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae when grown in CTBA

A

Black or Brown colonies

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49
Q

The black or brown colonies formed in CTBA is due to the _______.

A

reduction of tellurite

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50
Q

Which organisms form a brown halo when cultured in CTBA?

A
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Corynebacterium ulcerans
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
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51
Q

The brown halo formed by some organisms in CTBA is due to the ___________.

A

result of cystinase activity

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52
Q

Catalase reaction of Corynebacterium spp.

A

Positive (+)

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53
Q

Are Corynebacterium spp. motile?

A

No

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54
Q

Urease reaction of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Negative (-)

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55
Q

Which carbohydrates does Corynebacterium diphtheriae ferment?

A

Glucose and Maltose

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56
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae can produce ______ but not ______.

A

acid, not gas

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57
Q

Nitrate to nitrite reduction result of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Positive (+)

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58
Q

Test for toxigenity of Corynebacterium spp.

A

In-Vitro Test

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59
Q

In-vitro test is also known as ________.

A

ELEK Test

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60
Q

In-vitro test is a type of ________ test.

A

immunodiffusion

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61
Q

Treatment for Corynebacterium spp.

A
  • Administration of Antitoxins (antibodies)
  • Penicillin
  • Erythromycin (for penicillin sensitive patients)
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62
Q

Drug of Choice for Corynebacterium spp.

A

Penicillin

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63
Q

______ can be used as a treatment against Corynebacterium spp. for patients who are penicillin sensitive.

A

Erythromycin

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64
Q

Which organism is characterized by its flat and dry, matte or waxy appearance, and is non-lipophilic?

A

Corynebacterium amycolatum

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65
Q

Describe the appearance of Corynebacterium amycolatum

A

Flat and dry, matte or waxy

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66
Q

Is Corynebacterium amycolatum lipophilic?

A

No

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67
Q

Corynebacterium amycolatum is resistant to ________.

A

MNEMONIC: BFAMC
* β-lactams
* Fluoroquinolones
* Aminoglycosides
* Macrolides
* Clindamycin

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68
Q

Corynebacterium amycolatum is ______ to various antimicrobial agents such as β-lactams, Fluoroquinolones, Aminoglycosides, Macrolides, and Clindamycin

A

resistant

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69
Q

Corynebacterium amycolatum is a normal microbiota of the _______.

A

skin

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70
Q

Which organism is named after Johnson and Kaye?

A

Corynebacterium jeikeium

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71
Q

Corynebacterium jeikeium is named after _________.

A

Johnson and Kaye

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72
Q

These are the first individuals who linked C. jeikeium to human infections.

A

Johnson and Kaye

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73
Q

Johnson and Kaye contribution

A

The first individuals who linked C. jeikeium to human infections

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74
Q

Corynebacterium jeikeium is a normal microbiota of the _____.

A

skin

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75
Q

_____ is the most common cause of Corynebacterium associated prosthetic valve endocarditis in adults.

A

Corynebacterium jeikeium

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76
Q

Corynebacterium jeikeium is the most common cause of ________.

A

Corynebacterium associated Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis

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77
Q

Other than prosthetic valve endocarditis, which infections can be caused by C. jeikeium?

A
  • Septicemia
  • Meningitis
  • Prosthetic joint infections
  • Rash
  • Subcutaneous nodules
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78
Q

Is Corynebacterium jeikeium lipophilic?

A

Yes

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79
Q

Aerotolerance of Corynebacterium jeikeium

A

Strict aerobe

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80
Q

Is Corynebacterium jeikeium hemolytic?

A

No

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81
Q

Urease reaction of Corynebacterium jeikeium

A

Negative (-)

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82
Q

Nitrate reduction reaction of Corynebacterium jeikeium

A

Negative (-)

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83
Q

Drug of Choice for Corynebacterium jeikeium

A

Vancomycin

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84
Q

Which organism does not show the characteristic pleomorphic morphology?

A

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

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85
Q

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum is not ______ in terms of morphology.

A

pleomorphic

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86
Q

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum often appears in _______.

A

palisades

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87
Q

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum is a normal flora of the ______.

A

nasopharynx

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88
Q

_______ can grow on standard laboratory media.

A

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

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89
Q

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum can grow on __________.

A

standard laboratory media

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90
Q

Urease reaction of Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

A

Positive (+)

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91
Q

Nitrate reduction reaction of Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

A

Positive (+)

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92
Q

The respiratory infection produced by Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum can mimic __________.

A

respiratory diphtheria

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93
Q

The respiratory infection produced by _______ can mimic respiratory diphtheria.

A

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

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94
Q

Which Corynebacterium sp. is a veterinary pathogen?

A
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Corynebacterium ulcerans
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95
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is a ______ pathogen.

A

veterinary

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96
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is the causative agent of __________.

A

Granulomatous Lymphadenitis

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97
Q

________ is the causative agent of Granulomatous Lymphadenitis.

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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98
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis produces how many types of toxins?

A

2

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99
Q

2 types of toxins produced by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A
  1. Dermonecrotic toxin
  2. Diphtheria toxin
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100
Q

It causes death of various cell types

A

Dermonecrotic toxin

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101
Q

What does dermonecrotic toxin do?

A

Cause death of various cell types

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102
Q

Urease reaction of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

Positive (+)

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103
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, when cultured in ______ produces small, yellowish-white colonies.

A

SBA

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104
Q

Colonial appearance of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in SBA

A

Small, yellowish-white colonies

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105
Q

Which organism exhibits small, yellowish-white colonies on SBA?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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106
Q

Is Corynebacterium striatum lipophiilic?

A

No

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107
Q

Is Corynebacterium striatum pleomorphic?

A

Yes

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108
Q

Which organism produces small, shiny, colonies after 24 hours of incubation?

A

Corynebacterium striatum

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109
Q

Colonial appearance of Corynebacterium striatum

A

Small, shiny, convex colonies after 24 hours

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110
Q

Corynebacterium striatum is a normal flora of the _______.

A

skin

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111
Q

Corynebacterium striatum is associated with _______ infections.

A

nosocomial

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112
Q

Corynebacterium striatum is resistant to ________.

A
  • β-lactams
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Macrolides
  • Penicillin
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113
Q

_________ is resistant to β-lactams, Fluoroquinolones, Macrolides, Penicillin

A

Corynebacterium striatum

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114
Q

Corynebacterium striatum is ________ to β-lactams, Fluoroquinolones, Macrolides, Penicillin

A

resistant

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115
Q

Corynebacterium striatum is susceptible to ________.

A

Vancomycin

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116
Q

Corynebacterium ulcerans grows well on _______.

A

SBA

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117
Q

Corynebacterium ulcerans exhibits a ________ of hemolysis on SBA.

A

Narrow zone of β-hemolysis

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118
Q

Which Corynebacterium sp. grows well on SBA and produces a narrow zone of β-hemolysis?

A

Corynebacterium ulcerans

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119
Q

Nitrate reduction reaction of Corynebacterium ulcerans

A

Negative (-)

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120
Q

Which characteristic differentiates C. ulcerans from C. diphtheriae?

A

(-) nitrate reduction

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121
Q

The nitrate reduction reaction of C. ulcerans differentiates it from ________.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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122
Q

Colonial apperance of Corynebacterium ulcerans

A

Grayish-white

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123
Q

Urease reaction of Corynebacterium ulcerans

A

Positive (+)

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124
Q

Corynebacterium ulcerans is a ______ pathogen.

A

veterinary

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125
Q

The causative agent of mastitis

A

Corynebacterium ulcerans

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126
Q

Corynebacterium ulcerans is the causative agent of _______.

A

Mastitis

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127
Q

Is Corynebacterium urealyticum lipophilic?

A

Yes

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128
Q

Aerotolerance of Corynebacterium urealyticum

A

Strict aerobe

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129
Q

Corynebacterium urealyticum is most commonly associated with _____.

A

UTIs

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130
Q

__________ is most commonly associated with UTIs.

A

Corynebacterium urealyticum

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131
Q

Colonial apperance of Corynebacterium urealyticum

A

Pinpoint, non-hemolytic, white colonies with coryneform apperance

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132
Q

Which organism exhibits pinpoint, non-hemolytic, white with coryneform appearance of colonies?

A

Corynebacterium urealyticum

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133
Q

Nitrate reduction reaction of Corynebacterium urealyticum

A

Negative (-)

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134
Q

Catalase reaction of Corynebacterium urealyticum

A

Positive (+)

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135
Q

Urease reaction of Corynebacterium urealyticum

A

Positive (+)

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136
Q

Drug of Choice for Corynebacterium urealyticum

A

Vancomycin

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137
Q

Gram stain reaction and morphology of Rothia spp.

A

Gram positive (+) cocci that can appear rod-shaped

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138
Q

Which organism is a gram positive (+) cocci that can appear rod-shaped?

A

Rothia spp.

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139
Q

Rothia spp. belong to the Family ________.

A

Micrococcaceae

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140
Q

Nitrate reaction of Rothia spp.

A

Positive (+)

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141
Q

Esculin hydrolysis reaction of Rothia spp.

A

Positive (+)

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142
Q

Urease reaction of Rothia spp.

A

Negative (-)

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143
Q

Are Rothia spp. motile?

A

No

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144
Q

Approximately 2/3 of Rothia spp. isolates are _________.

A

Catalase positive (+)

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145
Q

Approximately ______ of Rothia spp. are Catalase (+)

A

2/3

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146
Q

There are how many species of Rothia?

A

6

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147
Q

2 significant species of Rothia

A
  • Rothia mucillaginosa
  • Rothia dentocariosa
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148
Q

Which Rothia sp. is linked to bacteria, endocarditis, and pneumonia?

A

Rothia mucillaginosa

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149
Q

Rothia mucillaginosa is linked to _________.

A

Bacteremia, endocarditis, and pneumonia

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150
Q

Which Rothia sp. is a normal flora of the oropharynx and is found in the saliva?

A

Rothia dentocariosa

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151
Q

Rothia dentocariosa is a ________.

A

normal flora of the oropharnyx, and is found in the saliva

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152
Q

Microscopic characteristics of Rothia spp.

A
  • Resembles coryneform bacilli
  • Produces coccoid cells
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153
Q

Which microscopic characteristic of Rothia differentiates it from Actinomycetes?

A

Production of coccoid cells

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154
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is the causative agent of _________.

A

Listeriosis

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155
Q

________ is the causative agent of Listeriosis.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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156
Q

It is an uncommon, but serious infection primarily of neonates, pregnant women, older patients, and immunocompromised hosts.

A

Listeriosis

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157
Q

Where can Listeriosis be recovered?

A

soil, water, and animal products

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158
Q

Virulence factors of Listeria monocytogenes

A
  • Hemolysin (Listeriolysin O)
  • Catalase
  • Superoxide dismutase
  • Phospholipase C
  • Surface protein (p60)
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159
Q

Which virulence factor of L. monocytogenes damages the phagosome membrane, and prevents killing of organism by macrophages?

A

Hemolysin (Listeriolysin O)

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160
Q

How is hemolysin (listeriolysin O) virulent?

A

It damages the phagosome membrane, and prevents killing of the organism by macrophages

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161
Q

Which virulence factor of L. monocytogenes inhibits phagocytosis?

A

Surface protein (p60)

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162
Q

How is surface protein (p60) virulent?

A

It inhibits phagocytosis

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163
Q

Which stage of pregnancy can Listeriosis be identified?

A

Third trimester

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164
Q

How can Listeriosis affect pregnant women?

A

It can lead to spontaneous abortion and still-born neonates

165
Q

Listeriosis in newborns is similar to the newborn infection of which bacterium?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

166
Q

Two Kinds of Listeriosis in Newborns

A
  1. Early-onset Listeriosis
  2. Late-onset Listeriosis
167
Q

Which Kind of Listeriosis in Newborns?

It causes illness shortly after birth (can form intrauterine infection, sepsis, amniotic fluid infection)

A

Early-onset Listeriosis

168
Q

What can be the possible effects of Early-onset Listeriosis?

A
  • Intrauterine infection
  • Sepsis
  • Infection within amniotic fluid
169
Q

Which Kind of Listeriosis in Newborns?

The disease can occur from several days to weeks

A

Late-onset Listeriosis

170
Q

What can be the possible effects of Late-onset Listeriosis?

A

Meningitis

171
Q

Microscopy of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Gram positive (+) coccobacilli arranged in singly, short chains, or palisades

172
Q

Culture Medium of Choice for Listeria monocytogenes

A

McBride Medium

173
Q

Listeria monocytogenes grows well on ________.

A

SBA, CAP, Nutrient Agar, BHI, and Thioglycolate Broth

174
Q

Which organism is typically cultured in McBride Medium?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

175
Q

Which organism is typically cultured in Cystine-Tellurite Blood Agar (CTBA)?

A

Corynebacterium spp.

176
Q

Listeria monocytogenes prefers a __________.

A

slightly increased CO2

177
Q

________ prefers a slightly increased CO2.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

178
Q

Colonial apperance of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Small, round, smooth, and transluscent colonies surrounded by a narrow zone of β-hemolysis (can be seen after the colony has been removed)

179
Q

Which organism exhibits the colonial characteristic of small, round, smooth, transluscent colonies surrounded by a narrow zone of β-hemolysis?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

180
Q

The hemolytic pattern produced by Listeria monocytogenes can only be visualized _________.

A

if the colony is removed

181
Q

Optimum growth temperature of Listeria monocytogenes

A

30 - 35 C

But growth occurs over a wide range of 0.5 - 45 C

182
Q

A technique which is used to isolate the organism from polymicrobial clinical specimens.

A

Cold Enrichment

183
Q

Cold Enrichment is a technique used in the isolation of _________.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

184
Q

Listeria monocytogenes can survive refrigerator temperature or 4 C under the condition of __________.

A

low pH and high salt concentration

185
Q

Hippurate hydrolysis reaction of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Positive (+)

186
Q

Which organism is (+) for Hippurate Hydrolysis test similar to S. agalactiae?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

187
Q

Catalase reaction of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Positive (+)

188
Q

Bile esculin hydrolysis reaction of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Positive (+)

189
Q

Is Listeria monocytogenes motile?

A

Yes, at room temperature

190
Q
A
191
Q

Describe the motility of Listeria monocytogenes in wet mount preparations

A

Tumbling Motility (end-over-end motility)

192
Q

It is an organism characterized by it “tumbling motility (end-over-end motility)” in wet mount preparations

A

Listeria monocytogenes

193
Q

In motility medium, Listeria monocytogenes produces _________ pattern.

A

Umbrella

194
Q

_______ produces an “umbrella” pattern in motility medium.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

195
Q

How can we see the “umbrella” pattern made by Listeria monocytogenes?

A

By incubating the organism at 22 - 25 C (room temperature)

196
Q

CAMP reaction of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Positive (+)

197
Q

A pleomorphic rod that has a tendency to form long filaments.

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

198
Q

Morphology of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Pleomorphic rod that tends to form long filaments

199
Q

The usual route of infection of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is through __________.

A

cuts or scratches on the skin

200
Q

There are how many species in the genus Erysipelothrix?

A

3

201
Q

What are the species under Erysipelothrix?

A
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  • Erysipelothrix tonsillarum
  • Erysipelothrix inopinata
202
Q

Which Erysipelothrix sp. is the only species that causes disease in humans?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

203
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is the causative agent of _________.

A

Erysipeloid

204
Q

________ is the causative agent of Erysipeloid.

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

205
Q

An infection caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, which is associated with endocarditis.

A

Septicemia

206
Q

Infections caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A
  • Erysipeloid
  • Septicemia
  • Diffused cutaneous infections
207
Q

Microscopy of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A
  • Thin rod-shaped, gram positive (+) organism that can form long filaments.
  • Arranged in singly, short chains, or in a “V” shape
  • Decolorizes easily, so it may appear gram variable
208
Q

_______ decolorizes easily, so it may appear as gram variable.

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

209
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae grows well on _________.

A

SBA and CAP

210
Q

Colonial appearance of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Non-hemolytic and pinpoint

211
Q

Colonial appearance of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae after 48 hours

A
  • Small, smooth, transparent, glistening, convex colonies with entire edges
  • Large, rough colonies with a flat and matte surface, curled structure, and irregular edges
212
Q

Hemolytic pattern of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

α-hemolysis

213
Q

Erysipeloid is also known as _______.

A

Whale finger or Seal finger

214
Q

Catalase reaction of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Negative (-)

215
Q

Is Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae motile?

A

No

216
Q

Aerotolerance of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Aerobic or Facultative Anaerobic

217
Q

H2S production of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Positive (+)

218
Q

Voges-Proskauer result of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Negative (-)

219
Q

Which pattern does Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produce in gelatin stab culture?

A

Test tube brush-like

220
Q

_____ produces a “test tube brush-like” pattern at 22 C in gelatin stab culture.

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

221
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces a “test tube brush-like” pattern at what temperature in gelatin stab culture?

A

22 C

222
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces a “test tube brush-like” pattern at 22 C in which culture media?

A

gelatin stab culture

223
Q

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum is formerly known as ___________.

A

Corynebacterium haemolyticum

224
Q

________ is formerly known as Corynebacterium haemolyticum

A

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

225
Q

Trueperella pyogenes is previously known as _________.

A

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

226
Q

__________ is previously known as Arcanobacterium pyogenes

A

Trueperella pyogenes

227
Q

An animal pathogen that is best known for causing infections in cattles.

A

Trueperella pyogenes

228
Q

Trueperella pyogenes is an ______ pathogen.

A

animal

229
Q

Trueperella pyogenes causes infections in _______.

A

cattles

230
Q

Trueperella bernardiae is previously known as _________.

A

Arcanobacterium bernardiae

231
Q

_______ is previously known as Arcanobacterium bernardiae

A

Trueperella bernardiae

232
Q

Colonial appearance of Arcanobacterium haemolyticum on BAP

A

Small colonies surrounded by a narrow zone of β-hemolysis after 24 to 48 hours of incubation

233
Q

A _______ is observed in A. haemolyticum when the colony is scraped.

A

black opaque dot

234
Q

The distinct black opaque dot feature is seen in ________.

A

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

235
Q

How can we see the black opaque dot exhibited by Arcanobacterium haemolyticum?

A

By scraping the colonies

236
Q

________ is capable of pitting the agar.

A

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

237
Q

Lipase reaction of Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

A

Positive (+)

238
Q

Lecithinase reaction of Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

A

Positive (+)

239
Q

Can Arcanobacterium haemolyticum exhibit a reverse CAMP reaction?

A

Yes

240
Q

Gram stain reaction and morphology of Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Short, pleomorphic, gram positive rods, or coccobacillus

241
Q

Is Gardnerella vaginalis gram variable?

A

Yes

242
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis is a normal flora of the __________.

A

urogenital tract

243
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis is the causative agent of _______.

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

244
Q

________ is the causative agent of Bacterial Vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

245
Q

Bacterial vaginosis results from _______.

A

reduction of Lactobacillus in the vagina

246
Q

Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by _________.

A
  • Malodorous discharge
  • pH >4.5
247
Q

Microscopy of Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Clue Cells

248
Q

Large squamous epithelial cells with gram positive/variable bacilli

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

249
Q

Morphology of clue cells

A

Large squamous epithelial cells that are gram (+) or variable bacilli

250
Q

Clue cells are a characteristic of ___________.

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

251
Q

The presence of _______ aids in the diagnosis of BV.

A

clue cells

252
Q

Which is used for the diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Amsel’s Clinical Criteria

253
Q

Indications under Amsel’s Clinical Criteria

A
  • Homogenous, thin, white discharge
  • Clue cells
  • pH >4.5
  • Fishy odor before and after the addition of 10% potassium hydroxide (whiff test)
254
Q

How is whiff test performed?

A

10% potassium hydroxide is added to the vaginal discharge to note its fishy odor

255
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis grows best in ___________.

A

5-7% CO2 at 35-37 C

256
Q

Colonial appearance of Gardnerella vaginalis on SBA

A

Pinpoint, non-hemolytic

257
Q

Culture media of choice for Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Human Blood Bilayer Tween Agar (HBT)

258
Q

Aerobic, branching, beaded, gram positive (+) bacilli

A

Nocardia spp.

259
Q

Nocardia spp. gram stain and morphology

A

Aerobic, branching, beaded, gram positive (+) bacilli

260
Q

Are Nocardia spp. acid-fast organisms?

A

Yes, they are partially acid-fast

261
Q

The colonies and microscopic morphology of Nocardia spp. resemble _______.

A

fungi

262
Q

The colonies and microscopic morphology of _____ resemble fungi.

A

Nocardia spp.

263
Q

Virulence factors of Nocardia spp.

A

No identified virulence factors, but virulence has been associated with alterations in the cell wall:
* Superoxide dismutase and Catalase
* Iron-chelating compound called Nocobactin

264
Q

How is the superoxide dismutase and catalase of Nocardia spp. virulent?

A

They provide resistance to oxidative killing by phagocytes

265
Q

It is an iron-chelating compound found in Nocardia spp.

A

Nocobactin

266
Q

Nocobactin is found in ________.

A

Nocardia spp.

267
Q

Nocobactin is an _____ compound.

A

iron-chelating

268
Q

Infections caused by Nocardia spp.

A
  • Pulmonary Infection (confluent bronchopneumonia)
  • Cutaneous infection (nocardiosis and actinomycotic mycetomas)
269
Q

Describe the appearance of sputum when infected with bronchopneumonia

A

Thick and purulent

270
Q

_______ is the most common frequent cause of cutaneous nocardiosis and actinomycotic mycetomas.

A

Nocardia brasiliensis

271
Q

Nocardia brasiliensis is the most common frequent cause of ___________.

A

Cutaneous nocardiosis and Actinomycotic mycetomas

272
Q

Describe the appearance of pus of the cutaneous infection caused by Nocardia spp.

A

Pigmented and contains yellow or orange sulfur granules

273
Q

Microscopy of Nocardia spp.

A

Gram positive (+), beaded, branching filaments

274
Q

Culture medium for Nocardia spp.

A
  • Modified Thayer-Martin Agar
  • Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar
275
Q

Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar is a _______ medium.

A

non-selective

276
Q

Colonial apperance of Nocardia spp.

A
  • Chalky, matte, velvety, or powdery appearance and may be white, yellow, pink, orange, peach, tan, and gray
  • Dry and crumbly appearance, similar to breadcrumbs
277
Q

Actinomadura spp. is the causative agent of ______.

A

Mycetomas

278
Q

________ is the causative agent of Mycetomas.

A

Actinomadura spp.

279
Q

The microscopic and colonial morphology of Actinomadura spp. are very similar to those of ______.

A

Nocardia spp.

280
Q

The microscopic and colonial morphology of ________ are very similar to those of Nocardia spp.

A

Actinomadura spp.

281
Q

What differentiates Actinomadura spp. from Nocardia spp.?

A

Actinomadura spp. are cellobiose and xylose (+), while Nocardia spp. aren’t

282
Q

Species under Actinomadura

A
  • Actinomadura madurae
  • Actinomadura pelletieri
283
Q

These are primarily saprophytes found as soil inhabitants and resemble other aerobic actinomycetes with regard to morphology and the diseases they cause.

A

Streptomyces spp.

284
Q

Streptomyces spp. are ______ found as soil inhabitants.

A

saprophytes

285
Q

Streptomyces somaliensis is associated with ________.

A

Actinomycotic Mycetoma

286
Q

____________ is associated with Actinomycotic Mycetoma.

A

Streptomyces somaliensis

287
Q

Streptomyces anulatus is formerly known as ________.

A

Streptomyces griseus

288
Q

_______ is formerly known as Streptomyces griseus

A

Streptomyces anulatus

289
Q

Streptomyces anulatus has been increasingly isolated from many clinical specimens including ________.

A

sputum, wound, blood, brain

290
Q

Catalase reaction of Gordonia spp.

A

Positive (+)

291
Q

Are Gordonia spp. gram variable?

A

Yes

292
Q

Are Gordonia spp. acid-fast?

A

Yes, partially

293
Q

Are Gordonia spp. motile?

A

No

294
Q

_____ grows with mycelial form that fragment into rod-shaped or coccoid elements.

A

Gordonia spp.

295
Q

They are termed as “Nocardioform”

A

Gordonia spp.

296
Q

Gordonia spp. are termed as ________.

A

Nocardioform

297
Q

Why are Gordonia spp. termed as “nocardioform”?

A

Because they grow with mycelial forms that fragment into rod-shaped or coccoid elements

298
Q

How are Gordonia spp. different from Mycobacteria spp.?

A

Due to their weak acid-fastness and absence of arylsulfatase

299
Q

It is found in soil and causes respiratory tract infections in animals.

A

Rhodococcus equi

300
Q

Rhodococcus equi is found in ______.

A

soil

301
Q

Rhodococcus equi causes ______.

A

respiratory tract infections in animals

302
Q

Human infections caused by _______ is rare.

A

Rhodococcus equi

303
Q

Is Rhodococcus equi acid-fast?

A

Yes (or partially)

304
Q

______ is the causative agent of Whipple Disease.

A

Tropheryma whipplei

305
Q

Tropheryma whipplei is the causative agent of _________.

A

Whipple Disease

306
Q

A rare bacterial disease which often affects the joints and digestive system.

A

Whipple Disease

307
Q

Whipple disease is a rare bacterial disease which often affects the ______.

A

joints and digestive system

308
Q

Tropheryma whipplei is a _______ pathogen.

A

facultative intracellular

309
Q

When and how is Tropheryma whipplei identified?

A

1991, with the use of PCR from duodenal biopsy specimen

310
Q

Tropheryma whipplei is detected in _______.

A

human feces, saliva, and gastric secretions

311
Q

Spore-forming, Non-branching, Catalase positive (+) Bacilli

A

Bacillus

312
Q

Are Bacillus spp. gram-variable?

A

Yes

313
Q

Aerotolerance of Bacillus spp.

A

Aerobic or Facultative Anaerobic

314
Q

Some Bacillus spp. are ______ that grow best at 55 C or higher.

A

thermophiles

315
Q

Bacillus spp. grow best at ______.

A

55 C or higher

316
Q

Bacillus anthracis is the causative agent of _______.

A

Anthrax

317
Q

______ is the causative agent of Anthrax.

A

Bacillus anthracis

318
Q

Virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis

A
  • Capsule
  • Anthrax Toxin
319
Q

How is the capsule of Bacillus anthracis virulent?

A

It protects from phagocytosis

320
Q

The capsule of B. anthracis is a polypeptide of ________.

A

D-glutamic acid

321
Q

The capsule of B. anthracis is a ________ of D-glutamic acid.

A

polypeptide

322
Q

The capsule of ________ is a polypeptide of D-glutamic acid.

A

Bacillus anthracis

323
Q

The ____ of B. anthracis is a polypeptide of D-glutamic acid.

A

capsule

324
Q

Anthrax toxin contains how many proteins?

A

3

325
Q

Proteins under Anthrax toxin

A
  • Protective Antigen (PA)
  • Edema Toxin (EF)
  • Lethal Toxin (LF)
326
Q

How is the PA of B. anthracis virulent?

A

It combines with EF and LF to produce a cytotoxic and immunomodulating effect.

327
Q

It combines with EF and LF to produce a cytotoxic and immunomodulating effect.

A

Protective Antigen (PA)

328
Q

Infections caused by Bacillus anthracis

A
  • Cutaneous Anthrax
  • Inhalation Anthrax
  • Gastrointestinal Anthrax
  • Injectional Anthrax
329
Q

It occurs when wounds are contaminated with anthrax spores acquired through skin cuts, abrasion, or insect bites.

A

Wound Anthrax

330
Q

How is cutaneous anthrax developed?

A

When the wound is contaminated by anthrax spores

331
Q

How are cutaneous anthrax spores transmitted?

A

Through skin cuts, abrasion, and insect bites

332
Q

Cutaneous Anthrax

A small pimple or papule appears ____ after exposure.

A

2-3 days

333
Q

Cutaneous Anthrax

A ________ appears 2-3 days after exposure.

A

small pimple or papule

334
Q

Cutaneous Anthrax

A ring vesicle develops, forming _______.

A

erythematous ring

335
Q

The depressed black necrotic central area that forms when the small dark area of the ring ulcerates and dries is called _______.

A

Eschar or Black Eschar or Malignant Pustule

336
Q

How is Eschar formed?

A

When the small dark area of the erythematous ring ulcerates and dries

337
Q

Usually, the lesions of cutaneous anthrax is _______.

A

painless and does not produce pus

338
Q

Inhalation anthrax is also known as ______.

A

Whoolsorter’s Disease

339
Q

________ is also known as Whoolsorter’s Disease.

A

Inhalation anthrax

340
Q

It is acquired when spores are inhaled into the pulmonary parenchyma.

A

Inhalation Anthrax

341
Q

How is Inhalation Anthrax acquired?

A

It is acquired when spores are inhaled into the pulmonary parenchyma

342
Q

It occurs when spores are inoculated into a lesion in the intestinal mucosa after ingestion of spores.

A

Gastrointestinal Anthrax

343
Q

How is Gastrointestinal Anthrax acquired?

A

Through the inoculation of spores in the intestinal mucosa after ingestion

344
Q

It is characterized by soft tissue infection associated with “skin popping” or other forms of injection drug use and results from the direct injection of the spores into the tissue.

A

Injectional Anthrax

345
Q

How is Injectional Anthrax acquired?

A

Through the direct injection of the spore into the tissue

346
Q

Microscopy of Bacillus anthracis

A

Large, square-ended, gram positive to variable rods (bamboo rods)

347
Q

What happens when B. anthracis is sub-cultured?

A

Capsule production ceases

348
Q

Capsule production ceases when _____ is sub-cultured.

A

Bacillus anthracis

349
Q

Incubation of Bacillus anthracis

A

In an atmosphere with increased CO2

350
Q

What happens when B. anthracis is incubated in an atmosphere with increased CO2?

A

Capsule production is stimulated

351
Q

Capsule production is stimulated when _____ is incubated in an atmosphere with increased CO2.

A

Bacillus anthracis

352
Q

Colonial characteristics of Bacillus anthracis on SBA

A

Non-hemolytic, large, gray, and flat with irregular margins due to outgrowth of long, filamentous projections

353
Q

“Medusa head”

A

Bacillus anthracis

354
Q

“Beaten egg whites”

A

Bacillus anthracis

355
Q

Consistency of Bacillus anthracis colonies

A

Tenacious

356
Q

It exhibits a “cut-glass” appearance in transmitted light

A

Bacillus anthracis

357
Q

Bacillus anthracis exhibits a _____ in transmitted light.

A

cut-glass appearance

358
Q

Catalase reaction of Bacillus anthracis

A

Positive (+)

359
Q

Is Bacillus anthracis motile?

A

No

360
Q

Which carbohydrate/s can be fermented by Bacillus anthracis?

A

glucose

361
Q

It produces an opaque zone around the colonies growing on egg yolk agar

A

Bacillus anthracis

362
Q

Bacillus anthracis produces an ____ around the colonies growing on egg yolk agar.

A

opaque zone

363
Q

Salt concentration of Bacillus anthracis

A

7%

364
Q

Bacillus anthracis has a ____ pH

A

low

365
Q

Bacillus anthracis is susceptible to ____.

A

penicillin (10 U/mL)

366
Q

Bacillus anthracis is _____ to penicillin (10 U/mL).

A

susceptible

367
Q

Bacillus anthracis capsule production can be detected by _______.

A

India Ink Staining

368
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Hemolysis on SBA

A

-

369
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Hemolysis on SBA

A

+

370
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Motility

A

-

371
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Motility

A

+

372
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Penicillin susceptibility

A

S

373
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Penicillin susceptibility

A

R

374
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Lecithinase production

A

+

375
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Lecithinase production

A

+

376
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Fermentation of salicin

A

-

377
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Fermentation of salicin

A

+/-

378
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Growth in penicillin (10 U/mL) agar

A

-

379
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Growth in penicillin (10 U/mL) agar

A

+

380
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Gelatin hydrolysis

A

-

381
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Gelatin hydrolysis

A

+

382
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus anthracis
Growth on phenylethyl alcohol agar

A

-

383
Q

Differentiation of Bacillus antracis and Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus
Growth on phenylethyl alcohol agar

A

+

384
Q

A common cause of food poisoning and opportunistic infections.

A

Bacillus cereus

385
Q

An important cause of eye infections

A

Bacillus cereus

386
Q

Virulence factor of Bacillus cereus

A

Enterotoxin
* Diarrheal
* Emetic

387
Q

Bacillus cereus is grown ______ at 37 C on SBA

A

anaerobically

388
Q

Bacillus cereus culture medium and incubation period

A

Grown anaerobically at 37 C on SBA

389
Q

Colonial appearance of Bacillus cereus

A

β-hemolytic, frosted glass appearing colonies

390
Q

Is Bacillus cereus motile?

A

Yes

391
Q

“Frosted-glass” colonies

A

Bacillus cereus

392
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

  • Characteristic: Incubation period
  • Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal
A

8-16 hours

393
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Incubation period
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

1-5 hours

394
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Diarrhea
Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal

A

Very common

395
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Diarrhea
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

Fairly common

396
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Vomiting
Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal

A

Occasional

397
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Vomiting
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

Very common

398
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Duration of illness
Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal

A

12-24 hours

399
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Duration of illness
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

6-24 hours

400
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Foods implicated
Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal

A
  • Meat
  • Soups
  • Vegetables
  • Puddings
  • Sauces
401
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Foods implicated
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

Fried or Boiled rice

402
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Molecular weight
Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal

A

= 50,000

403
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Molecular weight
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

<5000

404
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Stability to heat
Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal

A

-

405
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Stability to heat
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

+

406
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Stimulation of adenylate cyclase-cAMP system
Type of Enterotoxin: Diarrheal

A

+

407
Q

Comparison of Enterotoxins Produced by Bacillus cereus

Characteristic: Stimulation of adenylate cyclase-cAMP system
Type of Enterotoxin: Emetic

A

-

408
Q

Other Bacillus species

A
  • B. subtilis
  • B. licheniformis
  • B. circulans
  • B. pumilus
  • B. sphaericus

Bacteriology (17 decks)

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