Phase 2 Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

What is the frequency for the ILS?

A

110.500MHz
(GP 329.600MHz)

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2
Q

What is the frequency for the NDB?

A

339

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3
Q

What is the frequency for the DME?

A

110.500MHz

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4
Q

What is the frequency for the VOR/DME?

A

113.350MHz (SAM)

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5
Q

What are the ATCOs actions on the receipt of a report of severe turbulence, icing or wind shear?

A

ATCOs should be aware of the possibility of the a/c passing the MAP altitude. ATCOs should provide enhanced tx info as necessary and provide advice as deemed appropriate to ensure safety.

Pilot should advise if a go around is due to windshear but may not
Medium-strong south westerlies are likely to cause windshear when rwy 26 is in use
All reports info windshear or turbulence on approach must be reported to subsequent landing a/c. The information should also be included in ATIS broadcasts until further reports indicate that there is no recurrence of such conditions. A note of the windshear report must be entered in the file retained at the ADC position.

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6
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a white flashing light mean?

A

Land at the aerodrome and proceed to apron

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7
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a red flashing light mean?

A

Aerodrome unsafe do not land

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8
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a green flashing light mean?

A

Return for landing

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9
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady red light mean?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

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10
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady green light mean?

A

Clear to land

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11
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a red flashing light mean?

A

vacate the landing area in use

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12
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady red light mean?

A

stop

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13
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a green flashing light mean?

A

clear to taxi

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14
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a white flashing light mean?

A

return to starting point on the aerodrome

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15
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady green light mean?

A

cleared for take-off

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16
Q

What are the categories of emergency at Bournemouth?

A

Aircraft accident and Aircraft accident imminent
AGI
Full emergency- stage 1 (pax capacity of 20 or less) or stage 2 (pax capacity of 21 or greater)
Local standby
Weather Standby
Environmental incident
Hijack/air incident

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17
Q

What are the call out procedures for the AFS and external emergency services?

A

Listed in the emergency file, each section contains bland sheets to be completed in an emergency. Details of the emergency situation are to be entered on the back of the call-out sheet and the completed form retained with the daily paperwork and FPS’

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18
Q

What are the basic uses of the ATM?

A
  1. To determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving A/C
  2. To assist in the provision of longitudinal Sep
  3. To provide tx info to A/C on other A/C in the cct or making an instrument approach
  4. To confirm that the intitial outbound track of a departing A/C conforms with the clearance issued
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19
Q

What are the advanced uses of the ATM?

A

Subject to the controller having been trained;

  1. Following identification, validate SSR codes of departing A/C and verify Mode C read-outs
  2. monitor the progress of overflying A/C identified by APS to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing A/C
  3. establish separation between departing A/C
  4. pass Traffic Info
  5. establish separation in the event of a missed approach
  6. Assist in taking initial corrective action when the separation between arriving A/C becomes less than the prescribed minima.
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20
Q

In what circumstances would you call a weather standby?

A

When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe

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21
Q

When does Aerodrome Ground Lighting have to be activated?

A

During night time

During the day when the met vis is less than 5000m and/or the C.B less than 700ft

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22
Q

What action is taken by ADI when they are informed of a reduction in available fire cover?

A

RFFS will inform us, this may restrict aerodrome ops.

Notification of reduced level is to be made through NOTAM and included on the ATIS.

Details of the level of cover available must be entered on the left-hand page of the log book.

Operations by a particular a/c type should not be permitted when the level of protection falls below that provided for two categories below the appropriate category for the a/c. A/C in the cct or taxying are to be informed on the R/T

Following any incident where the RFFS have been deployed to the incident site, a/c ops are to be suspended until the fire cat has been confirmed by Fire Command or the Incident Commander

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23
Q

What are your actions in the event of a GPWS warning or unplanned go-around?

A

ATCOs not to dissuade pilot from climbing. Appropriate pressure setting to be passed when able. GPWS warnings to climb will temporarily suppress TCAS RAs for the a/c suffering the GPWS warning, all other a/c will have their TCAS operate as normal.

Essential tx info and/or avoiding action shall be passed first to the a/c in conflict with the one receiving the GPWS warning.

Essential tx info and/or avoidance advice to be passed to GPWS a/c once Mode C or S indicates it is above the appropriate SMAC level. TI may be passed earlier but only if deemed necessary to avoid collision.

24
Q

LVPS

A

Don’t forget to do LVPs

25
Q
A
26
Q

What wake turbulence would be applied for a DA40 following a AH64?

A

4 NM
AH64 is a S

27
Q

What wake turbulence would be applied for a HR20 following a CH47?

A

5NM (CH47 is a LM)

28
Q

What A/C type is a H64?

A

Apache

29
Q

What A/C type is a PA23?

A

Apache a/c

30
Q

What A/C type is a V22?

A

Osprey

31
Q

What A/C type is a AS65?

A

Dauphin

32
Q

What A/C type is a D328?

A

Dornier 328

33
Q

What A/C type is a PC24?

A

Pilatus PC24 Jet

34
Q

EGHI?

A

Southampton
Solent Radar 120.230
Southampton Radar 122.730
Twr 118.205

35
Q

EGHP?

A

Popham
129.805

36
Q

EGDM?

A

Boscombe Down
126.7

37
Q

EGVP?

A

Middle Wallop
118.6

38
Q

EGLS?

A

Old Sarum
123.205

39
Q

EGHO?

A

Thruxton
118.280

40
Q

EGHA

A

Compton Abbas
122.710

41
Q

EGHS

A

Henstridge
130.255

42
Q

EGDY

A

Yeovilton
127.350

43
Q

EGHN

A

Sandown
119.280

44
Q

EGHJ

A

Bembridge
123.255

45
Q

EGHF

A

Fairoaks
118.930

46
Q

EGHG

A

Yeovil
130.805

47
Q

What is the frequency for Solent Radar?

A

120.230

48
Q

What is the frequency for LF LARS West?

A

125.250

49
Q

What is the frequency for Yeovilton LARS?

A

127.350

50
Q

What is the frequency for Ply MIL east?

A

124.150

51
Q

What is the frequency for London Info West?

A

124.750

52
Q

How do we determine the runway in use and what is the runway change procedure?

A

Should a change of runway be necessary Aerodrome Control, after consultation with
Approach Control, shall inform the following:
(1) Aircraft under their control;
(2) Aerodrome Fire Service;
(3) Contractors working on the aerodrome who will be affected by the change;
(4) Other agencies according to local instructions.

Additionally, at a local level, the local prevailing weather conditions, runway lighting and surface condition as well as the runway in use at Southampton should be taken into account before deciding on the Runway- in- use.
All jet aircraft and all other aircraft with a MTWA greater than 5700 kg should not be allowed departure or arrival on either runway, if there is a tail wind component in excess of 10kts.
If a change of runway becomes necessary, the GMC and ADI Controllers will liaise with APP/APS before changing runways and agree the timing of the change, depending on traffic conditions.
At the agreed moment of the runway change, the ADI controller should follow the Runway Change Check List, which is accessible on the existing Tower Information pull-out board. A number of actions may be delegated to the tower assistant, as specified in the check list.

53
Q

What are the procedures for helicopters lifting from Bliss Aviation?

A

Bliss based helicopters will advise the ADC when they have started and request their departure
clearance. When the helicopter reports ready for departure, before issuing “Lift at your discretion” the ADC Controller or in co-ordination with GMC will: complete the following:
▪ A broadcast will be made to all vehicles that a helicopter is lifting or alighting from Bliss or
any other nearby destination.
▪ Any vehicles on point to point clearances must have reached their destination or cleared the
affected area.
▪ Any other aircraft movement will be co-ordinated or asked to give way as appropriate.
▪ The helicopter will be advised that vehicles are on NSOL, when that is the case.
▪ The helicopter will be asked to report landing complete before any other aircraft or point to
point vehicles are given clearance through the area.
▪ Despite being ready it can take a few minutes for the helicopter to lift when departing. If the controller feels this time is becoming excessive, r/t confirmation shall be sought from the pilot that the departure is still imminent.
▪ If Rivergate is flooded and vehicle free flow is in progress, this shall be stopped and
confirmation received from security to that effect before a helicopter movement is
authorised.

54
Q

What are the procedures for helicopters landing at XLR?

A

Helicopters that need to land at the XLR facility are not allowed to route directly to the XLR apron.
Irrespective of the runway in use, they should alight on the runway 26 threshold, and then ground or
air-taxi to the parking area at Juliet, via taxiway November.
The same procedure should be used in reverse for departing helicopters.

This is all due to the proximity of the XLR apron to the 26 glidepath critical area, aircraft at holding
point November and the size of the apron.

55
Q

What is the circuit height for Helicopters?

A

700ft QNH