1600 final_memrizz_mc_Sun Dec 08 2024 Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
What is essential for understanding patient perspectives on spirituality?
a) Implementing strict religious guidelines
b) Awareness of various spiritual beliefs and practices
c) Offering spiritual training for patients
d) Promoting a single spiritual perspective
A
Correct answer: Awareness of various spiritual beliefs and practices
2
Q
What is a key component of developing communication skills in healthcare?
a) Focusing only on medical history
b) Facilitating open conversations about spirituality
c) Avoiding discussions about spirituality
d) Using technical medical jargon
A
Correct answer: Facilitating open conversations about spirituality
3
Q
What does creating a supportive environment for patients involve?
a) Establishing strict communication protocols
b) Fostering an atmosphere of trust and respect
c) Limiting discussions to clinical topics
d) Encouraging competition among patients
A
Correct answer: Fostering an atmosphere of trust and respect
4
Q
Why is collaboration with other healthcare providers important?
a) To prioritize physical health over spiritual care
b) To minimize the role of spirituality in healthcare
c) To address spiritual needs comprehensively
d) To enforce standardized treatment plans
A
Correct answer: To address spiritual needs comprehensively
5
Q
What does the CNA position statement support?
a) Removal of spirituality from patient care
b) Assessing only physical health factors
c) Requiring a single spiritual viewpoint
d) Integration of spirituality into nursing practice
A
Correct answer: Integration of spirituality into nursing practice
6
Q
Why is spirituality significant in healthcare?
a) It is irrelevant to patient treatment
b) It enables holistic and compassionate care
c) It complicates clinical decision-making
d) It only applies to certain religions
A
Correct answer: It enables holistic and compassionate care
7
Q
a) They provide holistic and compassionate care
b) They focus solely on physical ailments
c) They are uninvolved in spiritual discussions
d) They prioritize medical procedures over beliefs
A
Correct answer: They provide holistic and compassionate care
8
Q
What should nurses develop to provide effective spiritual care?
a) Strict adherence to one spiritual doctrine
b) Basic knowledge of clinical practices only
c) Skills and knowledge about diverse beliefs
d) Avoidance of any spiritual discussions
A
Correct answer: Skills and knowledge about diverse beliefs
9
Q
What is a fundamental aspect of recognizing spiritual perspectives?
a) Assuming all patients share the same beliefs
b) Understanding the diversity among patients
c) Focusing exclusively on spiritual rituals
d) Restricting conversations to familiar religions
A
Correct answer: Understanding the diversity among patients
10
Q
What act established shared responsibilities in healthcare in Canada?
a) Canada Health Act of 1984
b) Hospital Insurance Act of 1957
c) British North America Act of 1867
d) Medical Care Act of 1966
A
Correct answer: British North America Act of 1867
11
Q
What significant challenge arose during the Great Depression regarding healthcare?
a) Healthcare costs were reduced.
b) Accessing medical care was difficult.
c) New hospitals were built rapidly.
d) Healthcare became completely free.
A
Correct answer: Accessing medical care was difficult
12
Q
Who launched the Saskatchewan Hospital Insurance Plan?
a) Tommy Douglas
b) Pierre Trudeau
c) John Diefenbaker
d) Lester B. Pearson
A
A
13
Q
What did the Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic Services Act achieve?
a) Eliminated all hospital fees.
b) Provided universal health insurance.
c) Established private hospital funding.
d) Covered 50% of hospital costs.
A
Correct answer: Covered 50% of hospital costs.
14
Q
By what year had all provinces adopted the hospital insurance model?
a) 1965
b) 1961
c) 1970
d) 1984
A
b
15
Q
What were the Medical Care Insurance Act and Medical Care Act designed to address?
a) Hospital staff shortages
b) Private insurance growth
c) Increased healthcare fees
d) Rising medical costs
A
Correct answer: Rising medical costs
16
Q
What issue arose from federal funding problems in 1977?
a) Increased hospital constructions.
b) All hospitals went private.
c) Health services were eliminated.
d) Provinces charged additional fees.
A
Correct answer: Provinces charged additional fees.
17
Q
What does the Canada Health Act prohibit?
a) Public healthcare funding
b) Extra billing and user fees
c) Access to private hospitals
d) Universal healthcare coverage
A
Correct answer: Extra billing and user fees
18
Q
What is one of the federal government’s roles in healthcare?
a) Manages provincial hospitals.
b) Funds healthcare initiatives.
c) Develops insurance plans.
d) Reimburses individual healthcare providers.
A
Correct answer: Funds healthcare initiatives.
19
Q
What does the Canada Health Act prohibit?
a) Public Administration
b) Accessibility
c) Comprehensiveness
d) Universality
A
Correct answer: Comprehensiveness
20
Q
How does the principle of portability function in Canadian healthcare?
a) Services are limited to one province.
b) Residents access services across provinces.
c) Only emergency services are portable.
d) Coverage expires when moving provinces.
A
Correct answer: Residents access services across provinces.
21
Q
What ongoing challenge does the Canadian healthcare system face?
a) Ensuring sustainability.
b) Decreasing hospital staff numbers.
c) Expanding private healthcare options.
d) Eliminating all user fees.
A
Correct answer: Ensuring sustainability.
22
Q
What was the focus of the 20th Century Medical Approach?
a) Preventive health education.
b) Health equity initiatives.
c) Treating disease primarily.
d) Addressing social factors.
A
Correct answer: Treating disease primarily.
23
Q
What does the behavioral approach in healthcare emphasize?
a) Strict government control.
b) Individual responsibility for health.
c) Complete privatization of services.
d) Eliminating health education.
A
Correct answer: Individual responsibility for health.
24
Q
What does the socioenvironmental approach aim to achieve?
a) Eliminating all funding for health.
b) Increasing hospital profits.
c) Health equity across populations.
d) Restricting access to healthcare.
A
C
25
What can undermine informed consent and lead to legal liability?
a) Excessive information provided
b) Incomplete or incorrect information
c) Direct communication with family
d) Patient's emotional state
Correct answer: Incomplete or incorrect information
26
What principle supports individual healthcare decision-making?
a) Confidentiality
b) Beneficence
c) Autonomy
d) Nonmaleficence
D
27
Which is a key role of nurses in informed consent?
a) Performing surgeries
b) Administering medications
c) Advocating for patients
d) Diagnosing medical conditions
Correct answer: Advocating for patients
28
How does the risk level affect informed consent?
a) Low risk requires no consent
b) All risks need the same consent process
c) Higher risk requires detailed explanations
d) Only surgeries require consent
Correct answer: Higher risk requires detailed explanations
29
What should informed consent include?
a) Benefits and risks associated with the procedure
b) Only the names of surgeons
c) A list of hospital costs
d) Instructions for post-operative care
Correct answer: Benefits and risks associated with the procedure
30
When is consent considered valid?
a) If given under pressure
b) When signed by a family member
c) If provided by a doctor
d) When the decision is voluntary and informed
D
31
What should always be obtained before physical contact?
a) Written consent form
b) Medical insurance details
c) Emergency contact information
d) Permission
Correct answer: Permission
32
What does capacity refer to in the context of healthcare?
a) Age of the patient
b) Understanding and evaluating information
c) Patient's prior medical history
d) Family support in decision-making
Correct answer: Understanding and evaluating information
33
What is an advance directive?
a) A document expressing a patient's treatment wishes
b) A doctor's order for treatment
c) A consent form for emergency procedures
d) A report on patient history
Correct answer: A document expressing a patient's treatment wishes
34
How may minors consent to treatment?
a) Only with parental consent
b) Never, regardless of maturity
c) If deemed mature enough by law
d) Only in emergency situations
Correct answer: If deemed mature enough by law
35
What governs consent for individuals with mental illness?
a) Family Laws
b) Civil Rights Acts
c) Patient Privacy Laws
d) Mental Health Acts
Correct answer: Mental Health Acts
36
What do common laws allow in emergencies?
a) Mandatory consent forms
b) Treatment without obtaining consent
c) Administration of only basic care
d) Treatment only with family present
B
37
Why is documentation of the consent process important?
a) It provides a record of the agreement
b) To ensure physician accountability
c) To validate patient identity
d) To calculate treatment costs
Correct answer: It provides a record of the agreement
38
What is the definition of self-regulation in nursing?
a) Self-regulation requires external oversight by authorities.
b) Self-regulation is about patient compliance and education.
c) Self-regulation allows nursing professionals to govern themselves.
d) Self-regulation limits nurses' responsibilities and authority.
Correct answer: Self-regulation allows nursing professionals to govern themselves.
39
Why is self-regulation important in nursing?
a) Reduces the need for formal training programs.
b) Ensures public trust and ethical intervention.
c) Decreases the responsibilities of nursing professionals.
d) Leads to less accountability for nursing practices.
Correct answer: Ensures public trust and ethical intervention.
40
What does the scope of practice for nurses outline?
a) Patient demographics and histories exclusively.
b) Authorized activities and interventions for nursing professionals.
c) Legal penalties for non-compliance with protocols.
d) Financial responsibilities of nursing education.
Correct answer: Authorized activities and interventions for nursing professionals.
41
Which factor influences the scope of practice?
a) The personal preferences of individual nurses.
b) Client needs tailored for specific patient requirements.
c) The latest trends in medical technology.
d) The historical practices of nursing.
Correct answer: Client needs tailored for specific patient requirements.
42
What is a key focus for Registered Nurses?
a) Managing basic patient education.
b) Assisting Licensed Practical Nurses exclusively.
c) Handling complex patient care.
d) Conducting administrative tasks only.
C
43
How do Registered Practical Nurses differ in education from RNs?
a) Are usually trained through online courses.
b) Must have university-level education.
c) Receive training in specialized medical fields.
d) Typically have community college-based education.
D
44
What is one responsibility of Registered Nurses according to HPA?
a) Focus solely on administrative tasks.
b) Perform minor and routine daily tasks.
c) Serve as medical assistants only.
d) Support client health and diagnose treatment.
Correct answer: Support client health and diagnose treatment.
45
Which of the following is NOT one of the five rights of delegation?
a) Right Task.
b) Right Person.
c) Right Communication.
d) Right Licensing.
Correct answer: Right Licensing.
46
What is the societal perception of nursing?
a) Nursing is highly regarded by society.
b) Nursing is often misunderstood by the public.
c) Nursing is a low-prestige profession.
d) Nursing duties are often underestimated.
Correct answer: Nursing is highly regarded by society.
47
What is emphasized in ethical care for nurses?
a) Maximizing profits in healthcare.
b) Avoiding involvement in patient education.
c) Providing safe, competent, and ethical care.
d) Limiting communication with patients.
Correct answer: Providing safe, competent, and ethical care.
48
What empowers CARNA to regulate nursing in Alberta?
a) The Nursing Self-Accountability Act.
b) The Health Professions Act (HPA).
c) Regional Healthcare Authority guidelines.
d) Patient Care and Safety Act.
B
49
What could happen if nurses commit malpractice?
a) They may receive additional training.
b) They are promoted within the organization.
c) They are ignored by regulatory bodies.
d) They can face disciplinary action.
Correct answer: They can face disciplinary action.
50
What type of relationship do nurses maintain with patients?
a) A fiduciary relationship requiring trust.
b) A transactional relationship focused on cost.
c) An authoritative relationship with strict control.
d) A casual relationship with no commitments.
Correct answer: A fiduciary relationship requiring trust.
51
What do Mental Health Acts govern regarding consent?
a) Decisions for all patients regardless of capability.
b) Consent for individuals deemed incapable.
c) Financial matters related to patient care.
d) Treatment plans for patients with compliant behaviors.
Correct answer: Consent for individuals deemed incapable.
52
What does common law permit during emergencies?
a) Patients to make decisions on their behalf.
b) HCPs to defer treatment until consent is given.
c) Only non-invasive treatments without patient knowledge.
d) HCPs to administer treatment without consent.
Correct answer: HCPs to administer treatment without consent.
53
Why is documenting the consent process vital?
a) It is a legal requirement in all cases.
b) It reduces paperwork in healthcare settings.
c) It guarantees patients will always agree.
d) It protects the rights of patients and HCPs.
Correct answer: It protects the rights of patients and HCPs.
54
How should nurses approach non-compliant patients?
a) Dismiss their choices without discussion.
b) Pressure them into standard treatments.
c) Support them in exploring alternative medicine.
d) Only focus on conventional methods.
C
55
What is a fundamental aspect of informed consent?
a) Patients must understand the treatment options.
b) Patients must agree to every treatment.
c) HCPs decide on behalf of the patients.
d) Only verbal consent is necessary.
Correct answer: Patients must understand the treatment options.
56
What challenges are faced in end-of-life care?
a) Insuring financial support for patients.
b) Providing treatments regardless of patient wishes.
c) Balancing patient needs and ethical considerations.
d) Eliminating all forms of pain relief.
Correct answer: Balancing patient needs and ethical considerations.
57
How do technological advancements impact end-of-life care?
a) They guarantee improved outcomes for all patients.
b) They simplify the process of dying.
c) They eliminate the need for informed consent.
d) They raise ethical dilemmas prioritizing life quality.
Correct answer: They raise ethical dilemmas prioritizing life quality.
58
What does compassionate care entail for dying patients?
a) Focusing solely on medical interventions.
b) Adhering strictly to hospital policies.
c) Minimizing suffering and providing emotional support.
d) Avoiding family involvement in care.
Correct answer: Minimizing suffering and providing emotional support.
59
What is meant by the ethical principle of double effect?
a) Providing treatment only if death is certain.
b) Justifying pain relief that may hasten death.
c) Ensuring all treatments prolong life at all costs.
d) Avoiding any form of pain management.
Correct answer: Justifying pain relief that may hasten death.
60
How is the definition of death evolving?
a) Death has remained unchanged for centuries.
b) Death is solely based on heartbeat cessation.
c) Healthcare workers can redefine death at will.
d) It includes concepts like brain death.
D
61
What defines a 'good death' in palliative care?
a) Ensuring rapid treatment interventions.
b) Focusing on financial aspects of dying.
c) Enhancing quality of life and dignity.
d) Avoiding discussions about death with patients.
Correct answer: Enhancing quality of life and dignity.
62
What challenges exist in determining medical futility?
a) Involving patients and families in decisions.
b) Consulting only hospital administration.
c) Following standard protocols without exceptions.
d) Relying solely on healthcare provider intuition.
Correct answer: Involving patients and families in decisions.
63
What is the role of advanced directives in care?
a) They guide decisions according to patient values.
b) They simplify hospital admission processes.
c) They eliminate the need for consent.
d) They only apply in emergency situations.
Correct answer: They guide decisions according to patient values.
64
What does Medical Assistance in Dying (MAID) encompass?
a) Only treatment options for terminal illnesses.
b) Mandatory euthanasia under specific conditions.
c) Restrictions on patient autonomy in care.
d) Legal assisted dying and its ethical implications.
Correct answer: Legal assisted dying and its ethical implications.
65
What information must nurses disclose for patient safety?
a) Communicable diseases and suspected abuse.
b) Patient preferences in treatment options.
c) Staff complaints about the workplace.
d) Patient's financial situation.
Communicable diseases and suspected abuse.
66
What is a key aspect of patient privacy that nurses must uphold?
a) Sharing patient stories for training.
b) Discussing cases openly with family.
c) Logging patient data in public records.
d) Confidentiality during care processes.
D
67
What does the Health Information Act (HIA) regulate?
a) Collection, use, and disclosure of patient data.
b) Scheduling patient appointments.
c) Discharging patients from healthcare facilities.
d) Marketing healthcare services to the public.
Correct answer: Collection, use, and disclosure of patient data.
68
What right do patients have regarding their discharge from healthcare facilities?
a) They can only leave with a doctor's approval.
b) They need permission from family members.
c) They can leave even against medical advice.
d) They must provide a formal request.
Correct answer: They can leave even against medical advice.
69
Which populations require special attention in healthcare?
a) Athletes recovering from injuries.
b) Individuals with cognitive impairments, transgender individuals, older adults.
c) Adults in need of cosmetic surgery.
d) Healthy individuals seeking routine exams.
Correct answer: Individuals with cognitive impairments, transgender individuals, older adults.
70
What is essential for healthcare providers to maintain a culture of safety?
a) Ignore minor errors to avoid conflict.
b) Only report accidents caused by others.
c) Disclose errors and report incidents honestly.
d) Focus on patient satisfaction scores.
Correct answer: Disclose errors and report incidents honestly.
71
What does the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms emphasize?
a) Ensuring all patients receive identical treatment.
b) Limiting access to healthcare for non-residents.
c) Upholding individual rights in healthcare contexts.
d) Prioritizing healthcare for higher-income individuals.
Correct answer: Upholding individual rights in healthcare contexts.
72
What defines informed consent in healthcare?
a) Permission given with full understanding of care.
b) Consent obtained solely through paperwork.
c) Agreement made without sharing treatment risks.
d) Consent from family overrides patient wishes.
A
73
What must patients receive for informed consent?
a) Comprehensive information on risks and benefits.
b) Vague details about possible outcomes.
c) Data mainly favorable to the procedure.
d) General information unrelated to their condition.
Correct answer: Comprehensive information on risks and benefits.
74
What is required for consent to be considered valid?
a) It can be obtained via family pressure.
b) Providers can mislead patients for quicker consent.
c) Patients must agree within a certain timeframe.
d) It must be freely given without coercion.
Correct answer: It must be freely given without coercion.
75
How does the principle of autonomy affect patient decisions?
a) Limits their options based on provider preferences.
b) Ignores cultural differences in decision-making.
c) Supports their right to make healthcare choices.
d) Forces adherence to treatment recommendations.
Correct answer: Supports their right to make healthcare choices.
76
What is the purpose of interpreting in nursing?
a) Translate information into meaningful actions.
b) Assess patient financial status.
c) Decrease hospital noise levels.
d) Reduce medication errors.
Correct answer: Translate information into meaningful actions.
77
Which aspect of interpreting relies on instinctive understanding?
a) Analytic.
b) Critical.
c) Intuitive.
d) Dynamic.
Correct answer: Intuitive.
C
78
How is narrative used in nursing interpretation?
a) Documenting medication records.
b) Conveying patient experiences and contexts.
c) Analyzing lab results.
d) Checking patient vitals.
B
79
What does responding in nursing involve?
a) Only monitoring patient emotions.
b) Preparing discharge summaries.
c) Creating administrative reports.
d) Planning and implementing actions.
Correct answer: Planning and implementing actions.
80
What does reflection-in-action assess?
a) Real-time care adjustments.
b) Pre-care patient evaluations.
c) Patient satisfaction surveys.
d) Post-care financial assessments.
Correct answer: Real-time care adjustments.
81
What emphasizes the multifaceted nature of critical thinking?
a) Patient medication schedules.
b) Hospital staffing models.
c) Healthcare corporation profits.
d) Significance in nursing practice.
Correct answer: Significance in nursing practice.
82
What is the main focus of nursing theories?
a) Standardizing patient documentation.
b) Reciprocal relationship between practice and theory.
c) Increasing hospital efficiency.
d) Decreasing nurse workload.
Correct answer: Reciprocal relationship between practice and theory.
83
What does the NESA Curriculum Perspective on praxis emphasize?
a) Rigid adherence to protocols.
b) Integrated approach involving relational practices.
c) Only theoretical knowledge application.
d) Isolated practice without reflection.
Correct answer: Integrated approach involving relational practices.
84
What involves understanding health perceptions in nursing?
a) Narrow definitions based on data only.
b) Physical health disregarding mental state.
c) Ignoring cultural influences on health.
d) Health defined as wholeness and harmony.
d
85
How is healing defined within nursing?
a) Completion of prescribed treatment plans.
b) Strict adherence to medical guidelines.
c) An ongoing journey towards wholeness.
d) Elimination of all symptoms.
Correct answer: An ongoing journey towards wholeness.
86
What does wholeness represent in nursing?
a) Separation of physical and emotional health.
b) Interconnectedness of all life dimensions.
c) Focus on disease rather than wellness.
d) Attempts to isolate patient experiences.
Correct answer: Interconnectedness of all life dimensions.
87
What do concepts in nursing help explain?
a) Administrative procedures in healthcare.
b) Aspects of experience like pain and love.
c) Types of hospital equipment used.
d) Insurance policies and coverage.
Correct answer: Aspects of experience like pain and love.
88
What defines nursing theories?
a) Confusing narratives without structure.
b) Structured sets of assumptions explaining relationships.
c) Simple lists of patient tasks.
d) Vague ideas without a framework.
Correct answer: Structured sets of assumptions explaining relationships.
89
What is the role of metaparadigm in nursing?
a) Defines hospital management strategies.
b) Standardizes financial practices.
c) Simplifies patient interactions.
d) Provides a global framework for nursing.
Correct answer: Provides a global framework for nursing.
90
What does medical futility refer to?
a) Challenges in determining when interventions are no longer beneficial.
b) The effectiveness of all medical interventions.
c) A requirement for patient consent before treatment.
d) The legal consequences of resuscitation procedures.
a
91
Why is patient and family involvement important in resuscitation?
a) To include their input in decision-making processes.
b) To ensure medical staff follow guidelines.
c) To minimize the emotional burden on nurses.
d) To speed up the resuscitation process.
Correct answer: To include their input in decision-making processes.
92
What do advanced directives guide?
a) End-of-life care decisions for patients.
b) Routine medical check-ups and procedures.
c) Healthy lifestyle choices for individuals.
d) Financial planning for end-of-life expenses.
Correct answer: End-of-life care decisions for patients.
93
What do Life-Values Advance Directives focus on?
a) Maximizing life expectancy at all costs.
b) Standard medical protocols for treatment.
c) Aligning medical care with the patient's values.
d) Patient's insurance coverage details.
Correct answer: Aligning medical care with the patient's values.
94
What is one aspect of Medical Assistance in Dying (MAID)?
a) Mandatory psychological evaluations for patients.
b) Exclusive eligibility for terminal illnesses.
c) Understanding its legal status and ethical considerations.
d) Universal acceptance across all healthcare settings.
Correct answer: Understanding its legal status and ethical considerations.
95
What role do nurses play in providing end-of-life care?
a) Offering empathetic support to patients and families.
b) Determining the medical interventions required.
c) Performing all legal documentation.
d) Only assisting in pain management.
Correct answer: Offering empathetic support to patients and families.
96
Why is facilitating communication important in end-of-life scenarios?
a) To ensure understanding and emotional support.
b) To comply with hospital policies and regulations.
c) To increase the efficiency of medical procedures.
d) To allow for quicker decision-making.
a
97
What is emphasized in human-centered care?
a) Strict adherence to medical protocols.
b) A compassionate approach in end-of-life care.
c) Prioritizing technological solutions over empathy.
d) Focusing solely on patient outcomes.
Correct answer: A compassionate approach in end-of-life care.
98
What is a key reason for organ donation?
a) It reduces hospital costs significantly.
b) It saves lives by providing critical transplants.
c) It helps in advancing medical research only.
d) It is mandatory in certain states
Correct answer: It saves lives by providing critical transplants.
99
How can nurses support organ donation?
a) By transplanting organs themselves.
b) By providing financial assistance for procedures.
c) By obtaining consent for themselves.
d) By facilitating the donation process and supporting families.
Correct answer: By facilitating the donation process and supporting families.
100
What does spirituality encompass?
a) Strict adherence to religious laws.
b) Only the absence of organized beliefs.
c) A personal connection to something greater than oneself.
d) The pursuit of scientific knowledge.
Correct answer: A personal connection to something greater than oneself.
101
What does a sense of spiritual health include?
a) Seeking only material success in life.
b) Adhering strictly to medical interventions.
c) Ignoring emotional and mental challenges.
d) Connection to self, others, or a higher power.
Correct answer: Connection to self, others, or a higher power.
102
How can spirituality positively impact health?
a) Guaranteeing physical recovery from illness.
b) Requiring participation in organized religious events.
c) Eliminating stress entirely from life.
d) Enhancing mental health and overall healing.
d
103
What can address spiritual needs effectively?
a) Ignoring spiritual concerns to focus on medicine.
b) Meeting these needs can alleviate suffering.
c) Promoting only physical treatment plans.
d) Providing only emotional support without spiritual input.
Correct answer: Meeting these needs can alleviate suffering.
104
What challenge do nurses face regarding spirituality?
a) Having too much training in spirituality.
b) Avoiding discussions about spiritual beliefs.
c) Feeling unprepared to address spiritual concerns.
d) Encouraging religious practices exclusively.
Correct answer: Feeling unprepared to address spiritual concerns.
105
What is important for nurses to reflect on?
a) The financial status of their patients.
b) Their own personal beliefs about medicine.
c) Their own spirituality to understand patients better.
d) How to avoid discussing spirituality.
c
106
Why should nurses develop communication skills?
a) To enforce hospital rules without exceptions.
b) To avoid addressing spiritual topics with patients.
c) To focus solely on physical health conversations.
d) To facilitate discussions about spirituality confidently.
Correct answer: To facilitate discussions about spirituality confidently.
107
What is informed consent?
a) Consent given under pressure or duress.
b) Consent that is informed, voluntary, and legally valid.
c) Agreement without full understanding.
d) Consent provided by a guardian only.
Correct answer: Consent that is informed, voluntary, and legally valid.
108
What is required to prove negligence?
a) Demonstrating high levels of patient satisfaction.
b) Providing evidence of intent to harm.
c) Establishing duty, breach, and resultant damage.
d) Showing that the patient refused care.
c
109
How can nurses prevent negligence?
a) By working overtime without breaks.
b) By following care standards and communicating effectively.
c) By ignoring patient questions.
d) By focusing on paperwork alone.
Correct answer: By following care standards and communicating effectively.
110
What are nursing students' responsibilities?
a) They are exempt from liability.
b) They must adhere to the same standards as RNs.
c) They can practice without supervision.
d) They can ignore their limits.
Correct answer: They must adhere to the same standards as RNs.
111
What characterizes criminal negligence?
a) Reckless disregard for safety leading to potential punishment.
b) Minor errors in patient documentation.
c) Unintentional harm without malice.
d) Failing to follow hospital protocols.
Correct answer: Reckless disregard for safety leading to potential punishment.
112
What is the purpose of professional liability insurance?
a) To cover personal injury claims only.
b) To protect against litigation costs.
c) To provide health insurance for nurses.
d) To replace lost income during litigation.
Correct answer: To protect against litigation costs.
113
What risk arises from short staffing?
a) Higher chances of staff promotions.
b) Improved team morale and safety.
c) Increased legal risks from inadequate patient care.
d) Lower patient satisfaction scores.
Correct answer: Increased legal risks from inadequate patient care.
114
What must nurses do with physicians' orders?
a) Follow them unless they believe they are harmful.
b) Follow only those they agree with.
c) Change orders as they see fit.
d) Ignore orders in emergency situations.
a
115
What defines a patient safety incident?
a) Any routine procedure done by nurses.
b) An event that may cause unnecessary patient harm.
c) Only critical incidents requiring intervention.
d) Events reported solely by patients.
Correct answer: An event that may cause unnecessary patient harm.
116
What is a near miss incident?
a) An incident resulting in actual patient harm.
b) An event requiring immediate care.
c) An event with potential harm that did not occur.
d) A situation that causes minor discomfort.
Correct answer: An event with potential harm that did not occur.
117
What components are vital for effective safety systems?
a) Measurement, tools, and organizational culture.
b) Budgeting, staffing, and marketing.
c) Training, development, and layout design.
d) Technology upgrades and software updates
Correct answer: Measurement, tools, and organizational culture.
118
What is the primary focus of the Medical Approach?
a) Promoting health education and prevention.
b) Addressing social factors influencing health.
c) Emphasizing patient-centered care.
d) Treating disease with minimal emphasis on prevention.
Correct answer: Treating disease with minimal emphasis on prevention.
119
What does the Behavioral Approach emphasize?
a) Social equity in healthcare access.
b) Technological advancements in treatment.
c) Team collaboration in care delivery.
d) Individual responsibility for health.
Correct answer: Individual responsibility for health.
120
What is the goal of the Socioenvironmental Approach?
a) Increasing healthcare technology access.
b) Reducing healthcare system costs.
c) Focusing on disease prevention only.
d) Achieving health equity.
d
121
Which of the following best describes Primary Health Care?
a) A medical model focused solely on treatment.
b) A broader range of health services prioritizing social determinants.
c) Limited to hospital settings and urgent care.
d) Only involves behavioral health education.
Correct answer: A broader range of health services prioritizing social determinants.
122
What is one of the pillars of Primary Health Care?
a) Strict hierarchical structure in care.
b) Collaborative care delivery.
c) Limited access to health information.
d) Focus on acute illness management.
Correct answer: Collaborative care delivery.
123
What is a key barrier to Primary Health Care at the individual level?
a) Inadequate funding for health services.
b) Lack of collaboration among healthcare teams.
c) Issues of trust and role clarity.
d) Hierarchical issues within healthcare settings.
Correct answer: Issues of trust and role clarity.
124
Which sector includes hospitals and long-term care facilities?
a) Institutional sector.
b) Community sector.
c) Private sector.
d) Outpatient care sector.
Correct answer: Institutional sector.
125
What level of health care is focused on disease and injury prevention?
a) Diagnosis and Treatment.
b) Health Promotion.
c) Disease and Injury Prevention.
d) Rehabilitation.
Correct answer: Disease and Injury Prevention.
126
What is a significant challenge facing the healthcare system?
a) Increased patient satisfaction levels.
b) Rising Costs driven by technologies and demographics.
c) Availability of abundant healthcare resources.
d) Strict regulations governing healthcare practices.
b
127
Which type of nurse is categorized as a Nurse Practitioner?
a) A nurse focusing solely on psychiatric patients.
b) A nurse providing basic patient care only.
c) An advanced practice nurse with additional training.
d) A nurse without any regulatory requirements.
Correct answer: An advanced practice nurse with additional training.
128
What defines Critical Thinking in nursing?
a) An unstructured and random thought process.
b) A process limited to clinical skills only.
c) A purposeful, reflective, and intentional process.
d) A routine practice without need for reflection.
Correct answer: A purposeful, reflective, and intentional process.
129
What is NOT a component of Critical Thinking?
a) Reflection on beliefs and principles.
b) Application of intellectual standards.
c) Ignoring contexts and assumptions.
d) Evaluation of actions and conclusions.
Correct answer: Ignoring contexts and assumptions.
130
What is a primary reason for maintaining adequate staffing levels?
a) To increase hospital profits.
b) To prevent fatigue and stress among nurses.
c) To enhance nurse-patient relationships.
d) To reduce employee turnover rates.
Correct answer: To prevent fatigue and stress among nurses.
131
Which skill is crucial for nursing students to prioritize safety?
a) Basic computer skills.
b) Thorough assessment skills.
c) Business management skills.
d) Artistic expression skills.
Correct answer: Thorough assessment skills.
132
What are nursing obligations associated with patient rights?
a) Privileges that grant nurses special treatment.
b) Responsibilities that can be ignored.
c) Rights that promote individualism.
d) Duties that ensure rights are meaningful.
d
133
What type of rights are based on societal standards?
a) Legal rights.
b) Human rights.
c) Moral rights.
d) Cultural rights.
Correct answer: Moral rights.
134
What must patients do to ensure safe care?
a) Avoid discussing their condition.
b) Limit contact with healthcare providers.
c) Only disclose payment information.
d) Disclose relevant information.
Correct answer: Disclose relevant information.
135
Which right ensures patients receive information before treatment?
a) Right to privacy.
b) Right to informed consent.
c) Right to confidentiality.
d) Right to access health information.
Correct answer: Right to informed consent.
136
What must nurses protect according to the right to confidentiality?
a) Only written patient records.
b) Nurse employment records.
c) Patient information across all formats.
d) Information shared on social media.
Correct answer: Patient information across all formats.
137
Under what condition must nurses disclose certain information?
a) For marketing hospital services.
b) When necessary for patient safety.
c) To gain personal favor.
d) To enhance hospital reputation.
Correct answer: When necessary for patient safety.
138
What does the Health Information Act govern?
a) Collection, use, and disclosure of health information.
b) Patient billing processes.
c) Regulations for nurse staffing levels.
d) Scheduling patient appointments.
a
139
What is defined as claims or privileges in healthcare?
a) Rights.
b) Responsibilities.
c) Policies.
d) Standards.
a
140
What is the significance of ensuring patient privacy?
a) To increase hospital security measures.
b) To respect personal boundaries during care.
c) To boost staff morale.
d) To minimize paperwork.
Correct answer: To respect personal boundaries during care.
141
What type of right is universal and inherent to individuals?
a) Statutory rights.
b) Employment rights.
c) Human rights.
d) Financial rights.
Correct answer: Human rights.
142
What is the definition of critical thinking in nursing?
a) A basic decision-making skill.
b) An automatic thought process.
c) A purposeful, reflective, and intentional process.
d) A method of following orders.
Correct answer: A purposeful, reflective, and intentional process.
143
Which cognitive skill is NOT part of critical thinking?
a) Analysis
b) Self-regulation
c) Creativity
d) Inference
Correct answer: Creativity
144
Why is critical thinking vital for nursing professionals?
a) It simplifies routine tasks.
b) It is foundational to the nursing process.
c) It reduces communication needs.
d) It eliminates the need for knowledge.
b
145
What trait is essential for a nurse's disposition in critical thinking?
a) Indifference
b) Complacency
c) Aggressiveness
d) Curiosity
Correct answer: Curiosity
146
How can knowledge impact nursing decisions?
a) It often complicates the decision-making.
b) It helps nurses make informed decisions.
c) It replaces the need for experience.
d) It leads to communication barriers.
Correct answer: It helps nurses make informed decisions.
147
Which of the following is key to developing critical thinking skills?
a) Ignoring patient feedback.
b) Following strict protocols.
c) Limiting research engagement.
d) Problem-solving
Correct answer: Problem-solving
148
What does the Nursing Process provide for critical thinking?
a) A series of fixed steps.
b) A checklist for tasks.
c) A means to avoid reflection.
d) A framework for decision-making.
Correct answer: A framework for decision-making.
149
What are intellectual standards for critical thinking?
a) Informal judgment criteria.
b) Relaxed thinking guidelines.
c) Simple memorization techniques.
d) Principles for rational thought such as precision.
d
150
What is one internal process to develop critical thinking?
a) Engaging in critical questioning.
b) Avoiding difficult conversations.
c) Repeating past mistakes.
d) Ignoring feedback from peers.
a
151
What is the first step in Tanner's Clinical Judgment Model?
a) Interpreting patient data.
b) Noticing - assessment of patient needs.
c) Planning treatment strategies.
d) Reflecting on past actions.
Correct answer: Noticing - assessment of patient needs.
152
What is the purpose of reflective writing in nursing?
a) To complete required documentation.
b) To practice technical writing skills.
c) To generate patient care plans only.
d) To evaluate personal thoughts and assumptions.
Correct answer: To evaluate personal thoughts and assumptions.
153
What does reflecting on client responses include?
a) Ignoring client feedback.
b) Focusing solely on outcomes.
c) Reflection-in-action and reflection-on-action.
d) Standardizing all responses.
Correct answer: Reflection-in-action and reflection-on-action.
154
Who can be affected by harm in healthcare?
a) Only patients and families.
b) Patients, family members, and healthcare staff.
c) Only healthcare staff.
d) Only the management team.
Correct answer: Patients, family members, and healthcare staff.
155
What type of incidents fall under harmful incidents?
a) Near misses and no-harm incidents.
b) Incidents with no repercussions.
c) Only critical incidents.
d) Incidents causing actual harm to patients.
Correct answer: Incidents causing actual harm to patients.
156
What are the components of effective safety systems?
a) Measurement, system tools, and organizational culture.
b) Individual accountability, management oversight, and financial resources.
c) Policies, procedures, and incident reports.
d) Training, assessments, and employee behavior.
a
157
What is essential for a culture of safety to thrive?
a) Only following existing procedures.
b) Reducing staff workloads.
c) Increasing financial profits.
d) Leaders prioritizing safety funding and empowering staff.
Correct answer: Leaders prioritizing safety funding and empowering staff.
158
What does a reporting culture emphasize?
a) Keeping incidents confidential.
b) Normalizing incident reporting without fear of punishment.
c) Punishing those who report.
d) Focusing only on successful outcomes.
Correct answer: Normalizing incident reporting without fear of punishment.
159
How does an informed culture function?
a) By analyzing adverse events for knowledge.
b) Encouraging random reporting of incidents.
c) Ignoring adverse events to prevent panic.
d) Focusing only on non-harmful events.
Correct answer: By analyzing adverse events for knowledge.
160
What is the purpose of root cause analysis (RCA)?
a) Choosing individuals to blame for errors.
b) Analyzing only major accidents.
c) Identifying system failures in incidents.
d) Focusing on financial loss in incidents.
Correct answer: Identifying system failures in incidents.
161
Which factor enhances overall safety culture?
a) Strict hierarchical communication.
b) Limiting interaction to authorized personnel.
c) Reducing collaboration to save time.
d) Inter-professional communication among healthcare teams.
Correct answer: Inter-professional communication among healthcare teams.
162
What is crucial for nursing students regarding safety?
a) Only focusing on academic performance.
b) Minimizing communication with patients.
c) Ignoring hands-on practice.
d) Developing assessment skills and professional standards.
d
163
Why is adequate staffing important in healthcare?
a) It allows for faster processes.
b) It prevents fatigue and reduces error risks.
c) It increases staff workload.
d) It leads to more the holidays.
Correct answer: It prevents fatigue and reduces error risks.
164
What does the metaparadigm of nursing provide?
a) A global framework for nursing discipline.
b) A historical overview of nursing evolution.
c) A basic manual for nursing procedures.
d) A set of laws governing nursing practices.
Correct answer: A global framework for nursing discipline.
165
Which decade was the nursing metaparadigm developed?
a) 1970s.
b) 1980s.
c) 1960s.
d) 1990s.
Correct answer: 1970s.
166
What does the concept of 'person' encompass in nursing?
a) Only individual patients.
b) Nurses and healthcare providers.
c) Individuals, families, communities, and populations.
d) Healthcare institutions and clinics.
Correct answer: Individuals, families, communities, and populations.
167
How do nurses view persons according to the metaparadigm?
a) As solely physical beings.
b) Only through clinical assessments.
c) Holistically, considering unique characteristics.
d) Primarily based on their health records.
Correct answer: Holistically, considering unique characteristics.
168
What is considered the desired outcome of nursing care?
a) Health.
b) Illness prevention.
c) Patient satisfaction.
d) Hospital readmission reduction.
a
169
How is health defined in the nursing metaparadigm?
a) A holistic concept evolving over a lifespan.
b) Merely the absence of disease.
c) A static state of well-being.
d) A temporary sense of happiness.
Correct answer: A holistic concept evolving over a lifespan.
170
Which factors are included in the concept of environment?
a) Only geographical locations.
b) Culture, socioeconomics, health care system.
c) Personal beliefs and values.
d) Age and gender distinctions.
Correct answer: Culture, socioeconomics, health care system.
171
What does the concept of nursing emphasize?
a) Strict adherence to medical protocols.
b) The nurse-client relationship.
c) Focus solely on medication administration.
d) Documentation and record-keeping.
Correct answer: The nurse-client relationship.
172
What does the Health Professions Act (HPA) in Alberta do?
a) Creates a new nursing degree program.
b) Oversees hospital administration.
c) Grants authority to establish professional rules.
d) Regulates medical equipment usage.
Correct answer: Grants authority to establish professional rules.
173
What is one of the key responsibilities of the CRNA?
a) Redefine nursing education curriculum.
b) Initiate public health campaigns.
c) Facilitate international nursing collaborations.
d) Protect public interest in nursing.
Correct answer: Protect public interest in nursing.
174
What does self-regulation in nursing ensure?
a) Limitations on nursing practice.
b) Increased government intervention.
c) Higher educational qualifications.
d) Public trust in the profession.
d
175
Self-regulation comes with the duty to?
a) Promote alternative therapies.
b) Avoid addressing ethical concerns.
c) Intervene in unsafe practices.
d) Increase patient loads.
Correct answer: Intervene in unsafe practices.
176
What is the individual responsibility of nurses?
a) To perform procedures outside their scope.
b) To adhere to professional standards.
c) To prioritize patient satisfaction above all.
d) To avoid any form of accountability.
Correct answer: To adhere to professional standards
177
Which organization regulates nursing in Alberta?
a) Canadian Nurses Association.
b) College of Registered Nurses of Alberta.
c) Alberta Medical Association.
d) Health Professions Authority.
Correct answer: College of Registered Nurses of Alberta.
178
What is a key function of the CRNA?
a) Provides financial support for nurses.
b) Conducts patient satisfaction surveys.
c) Actively engages in patient treatment plans.
d) Ensures only qualified individuals practice nursing.
Correct answer: Ensures only qualified individuals practice nursing.
179
What entails the ongoing competency of nurses?
a) Learning new languages.
b) Participating in athletic competitions.
c) Mandated continuous professional development.
d) Engaging in community service.
Correct answer: Mandated continuous professional development.
180
What is the duty of care in nursing?
a) Nurses are not responsible for patient outcomes.
b) Nurses owe a duty to act competently.
c) Nurses are obliged to prioritize their own safety.
d) Nurses can delegate all responsibilities.
b
181
What defines professional misconduct?
a) Patient dissatisfaction only.
b) Accidental errors in treatment.
c) Failing to meet ethical and legal standards.
d) Avoidance of patient interaction.
Correct answer: Failing to meet ethical and legal standards.
182
What does professional malpractice involve?
a) Failing to document every patient interaction.
b) Providing substandard care violating practice standards.
c) Managing workplace politics effectively.
d) Improving personal healthcare access.
Correct answer: Providing substandard care violating practice standards.
183
What does public law govern?
a) Relationships among healthcare providers.
b) Relationships between individuals and the government.
c) Private business transactions.
d) Negotiations between patients and insurance.
Correct answer: Relationships between individuals and the government.
184
Which of the following is an intentional tort?
a) Assault involves creating fear of harm.
b) Negligence is an intentional act.
c) False imprisonment requires physical harm.
d) Battery does not involve consent.
Correct answer: Assault involves creating fear of harm.
185
What is required for demonstrating negligence?
a) Proving patient unhappiness alone.
b) Failing to follow hospital policies only.
c) Establishing duty of care and resultant damage.
d) Having a previous legal defense.
Correct answer: Establishing duty of care and resultant damage.
186
What is informed consent?
a) Patients understand implications of treatments.
b) Consent obtained from family members only.
c) Patients are pressurized into agreement.
d) Consent is irrelevant to treatment outcomes.
a
187
What must be true for consent to be legally valid?
a) Patients should not question the treatment.
b) Patients must have insurance.
c) Patients can be under any influence.
d) Patients must be legally capable.
Correct answer: Patients must be legally capable.
