Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RCDD > TDMM Chapter 17 > Flashcards

TDMM Chapter 17 Flashcards

1
Q

Asset

A

An employee, contractor or any possession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DACS

A

Digital Alarm Communicator System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DARR

A

Digital Alarm Radio Receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DART

A

Digital Alarm Radio Transmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EAC

A

Electronic Access Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ESS

A

Electronic Safety and Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

FACP

A

Fire Alarm Control Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FDAS

A

Fire Detection and Alarm System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fixed Camera

A

A camera dedicated to a single view that does not change unless physically moved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Layering

A

The use of many layers of barriers to provide the maximum level of deterrence and delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NAC

A

Notification Appliance Circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pan and Tilt

A

A camera that allows 180 or 360 degree view, controlled remotely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Risk

A

Potential for loss from an event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Threat

A

An intent to do harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Video Surveillance

A

The extension of human vision to areas requiring surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name six primary functions that an ESS system performs

A
  • Access control
  • Surveillance
  • Intrusion Detection
  • Fire Alarm
  • Mass notification
  • Area of rescue communications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name three independent components of a security system

A
  • Electronic
  • Architectural
  • Operational
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lighting is categorized as what type of countermeasure?

A

Architectural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Access control is categorized as what type of countermeasure?

A

Electronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Contingency planning is categorized as what type of countermeasure?

A

Operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a fundamental concept of security design?

A

The use of layerinf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the theory of concentric circles

A

Using multiple points of detection provides the greatest opportunity for evaluation and reaponae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What principle serves as the basis of event based monitoring?

A

The principle that electronic systems can efficiently and effectively drive operational response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is required to provide a person with total safety and security?

A

Total isolation from their environment and other people while maintaining basic life support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is required to provide objects with total safety and security?

A

Isolating the object from access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name the three steps performed by a security consultant

A
  • Assess known and potential risks
  • Estimate the likelihood that threats will occur
  • Recommend countermeasures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the key to mitigating risks?

A

Identifying the source of a potential risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name four factors that affect a users access level

A
  • Security clearance
  • Job title
  • Rank
  • Employee type
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name two primary components of an EAC

A
  • A computer with EAC software
  • One or more peripheral devices or control panels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define the three levels of EAC systems

A
  • Level 1 - Headend processing software
    Level 2 - Intelligent field processing
    Level 3 - Field devices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a credential?

A

An item that allows entry into an area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of cables make up an EAC cable?

A

Four individually shielded pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name four types of cabling used for communications in an EAC system

A
  • Fiber
  • Twisted pair
  • Wireless
  • Cellular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name four types of basic door locks

A
  • Bored locks
  • Rim locks
  • Mortise locks
  • Vertical rods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name four types of basic lock functions

A
  • Entrance
  • Store room
  • Classroom
  • Vestibule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does an entrance lock function?

A

When it is pushed in, an inside button locks the outside lever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How does a storeroom lock function?

A

The lock is key operated from the outside because the outside lever is always locked. The inside lever allows free egress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What determines if the outside lever of a vestibule lock is locked or unlocked?

A

The outside lever is accessed by a key when the door is locked. A key in the inside lever determines if the outside lever is locked or unlocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the most common type of door hardware?

A

Electric strikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Name three performance ratings used to describe electric strikes

A
  • Static strength
  • Dynamic strength
  • Endurance levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Name three types of optional monitoring switches for an electric strike

A
  • Latch bolt monitor
  • Locking cam monitor
  • Dead bolt monitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How long does it typically take for an electric strike to unlock?

A

8 to 11 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Name two types of magnetic locks

A
  • Direct hold
  • Shear locks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How many means of release do AHJs normally require for magnetic locks?

A

two

45
Q

What replaces the function of a traditional mechanical key in an electric lockset?

A

Actuating solenoids

46
Q

Name two applications where electric bolts and latches may be used

A
  • High security applications
  • Applications where people do not move in and out of the area
47
Q

What is another name for electrified exit hardware

A

Panic hardware

48
Q

Where is the use of electrified exit hardware often required?

A

In the path of egress

49
Q

Where is electrified exit hardware commonly used?

A

Double door applications

50
Q

Name five primary applications of video surveillance

A
  • Investigation
  • Prosecution
  • Deterrence
  • Observation
  • Intrusion Detection
51
Q

Name three traditional uses of surveillance systems

A
  • Operational
  • Safety
  • Security
52
Q

What is a good rule of thumb regarding the use of video surveillance and property rights

A

Do not use video surveillance where a right to privacy is expected

53
Q

What does the use of video surveillance imply about the areas under surveillance?

A

Areas are being monitored and a response will be provided if the need arises

54
Q

Why are IR cameras referred to as starlight cameras?

A

Because of their night time viewing capabilities

55
Q

What is the purpose of thermal cameras?

A

To capture heat or temperature rather than light values

56
Q

How are lens for video surveillance cameras define?

A

By their focal length

57
Q

Name the three common types of camera lenses

A
  • Fixed
  • Variable
  • Zoom
58
Q

Name the two typical types of camera mounts used in video surveillance applications

A
  • Fixed
  • Pan tilt
59
Q

Name two factors used to determine camera mounting locations

A
  • Available physical infrastructure
  • Required fields of view
60
Q

What is the recommended mounting height for interior video surveillance cameras?

A

8ft AFF

61
Q

What is the recommended mounting height for exterior video surveillance cameras?

A

15ft AFF

62
Q

Name the three types of wireless use for video transmission

A
  • Radio frequency (RF)
  • Free space optics
  • Microwave
63
Q

Name the two possible methods for accomplishing IP based video

A
  • Digitization of analog device
  • IP based camera
64
Q

What determines how many layers of intrusion detection are present at a facility?

A

The purpose of the facility

65
Q

Name three general types of alarms

A
  • Fire Alarm
  • Intrusion
  • Special
66
Q

Name three components of an alarm system

A
  • Sensor
  • Sending circuit
  • Annunciator
67
Q

Name three types of monitoring methods

A
  • Local alarm
  • Central Station
  • Dial alarm
68
Q

What does the IDS protect?

A
  • Perimeter
  • Area of space
  • Point of object
69
Q

Name four components of an intrusion detection system

A
  • Detection sensors
  • Processing devices
  • Annunciators
  • Power source
70
Q

Name the two classes of FDAS

A
  • Protected premises system
  • Supervising station system
71
Q

How do supervising station systems differ from protected premises systems?

A

Supervising stations signal authorities, protected premises do not

72
Q

Do central station services own the properties they monitor?

A

No

73
Q

Name five types of initiation devices

A
  • Smoke
  • Heat
  • Flame
  • Gas
  • Human
74
Q

Name three components of a fire

A
  • Smoke
  • Heat
  • Light radiation
75
Q

Name the two categories of smoke detectors

A
  • Photoelectric
  • Ionization
76
Q

How do heat detectors differ from flame detectors?

A

Heats detect high temps
Flames detect radiation produced by fire

77
Q

What is a pull station?

A

A switch that turns on fire alarm notification appliances

78
Q

What is the benefit on dual action pull stations?

A

Helps prevent false alarms

79
Q

What is typically the maximum distance between pull station and door?

A

5 ft

80
Q

What is the maximum distance between pull stations?

A

200 ft

81
Q

Name three design goals that are necessary considerations when designing for effective notification

A
  • Signal audibility
  • Intelligibility
  • Visibility
82
Q

What are the most used notification appliances for FA signaling?

A
  • Audible appliances
  • Visual appliances
  • combo appliances
83
Q

List six types of notification appliances

A
  • Bells
  • Chimes
  • Horn
  • Speaker
  • Strobe
  • Combo
84
Q

Why are most FA signaling devices designed to run in 24V dc power?

A

They run off a battery

85
Q

What factor is the most important aspect of FA signaling?

A

Audibility

86
Q

What is the most common mode of alarm perception?

A

Hearing

87
Q

Name three ways the audibility of an alarm can be compromised

A
  • Volume
  • Clarity
  • Reliability
88
Q

Along with audibility, what is another major consideration for mass notification systems?

A

Intelligibility

89
Q

Name three factors that impact visibility

A
  • Area of coverage
  • Mounting location
  • Ceiling height
90
Q

True or False
Fire alarm control systems are capable of two way communication

A

True

91
Q

What is required to happen if the silent switch for a trouble signal is activated in an FA system?

A

A visual indicator must be lit until the trouble condition is corrected

92
Q

What will happen if the silent switch in an FA is placed but no trouble condition exists?

A

The trouble signal will sound

93
Q

True or False
Designations for the circuits and pathways in an FA system are hierarchical

A

False

94
Q

What class designation is used for ethernet and other protocols?

A

Class N

95
Q

What type of supervision is required for a switch in a Class N network?

A

General Supervision

96
Q

How many redundant pathways are between switch 1 and switch 2 in a class N design?

A

One

97
Q

What type of shared pathway is dedicated to life safety systems?

A

Level 3

98
Q

True or False
The general public should have access to Class N pathways?

A

False

99
Q

How many sources of power do central control panels require?

A

Two

100
Q

What is the purpose of an area of refuge and rescue two way communication system?

A

To allow people who cannot access paths of egress to summon help

101
Q

What should be posted next to the call station for an area of refuge and rescue?

A
  • Instructions for use under emergency conditions
  • Directions for use
  • Instructions on calling for assistance
  • The location
102
Q

True or False
The base call station can terminate a call from the call station in an area of refuge and rescue?

A

True

103
Q

Name three types of two communication systems

A
  • Analog
  • VoIP with external power
  • VoIP with PoE
104
Q

How should areas of refuge and rescue be identified?

A

Illuminated signs

105
Q

What types of incidents are announced on a mass notification system?

A
  • Weather related
  • Human related
  • Fire related
106
Q

Name five inputs into the Mass Notification system

A
  • Fire Alarm
  • Audio/Music Feeds
  • Network Interfaces
  • Microphone
  • Telephone
107
Q

Name four outputs from the Mass notification system

A
  • Speakers
  • Digital signage devices
  • Electronic messaging
  • Lights/Strobes
108
Q

Name three criteria to consider when designing the Mass Notification System

A
  • Getting to the intended audience
  • Message receipts
  • Operational performances
109
Q

Where should the all clear message be delivered?

A

At the muster point

RCDD (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions