164 EXAM REVIEW Flashcards

(135 cards)

1
Q

The nurse explains that the health-illness continuum is based on:

A

Variation in degree of health or illness

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2
Q

In performing a pain assessment, the LPN would follow which steps?

A

Assess location, quality, and intensity on an identified scale

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3
Q

The nurse has assessed that prolonged and unrelieved pain will:

A

Lower the pain threshold

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4
Q

Everytime the right arm is raised, the patient reports to the nurse that pain is triggered in the right shoulder. To chart this description as a:

A

Aggrevating factor

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5
Q

Because malignant hyperthermia is a potential postop complication, the nurse should ask:

A

Has anyone in your family ever had problems with general anesthesia

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6
Q

The nurse attempts to evaluate the presence of pain in a patient who is cognitively impaired by assessing for:

A

Increasing confusion

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7
Q

The patient scheduled for liver biopsy has given the nurse a list of medications taken at home, the nurse should be concerned about the:

A

Aspirin

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8
Q

A patient just returned to the surgical unit after varicose vein stripping and ligation. To evaluate pain relief, the best technique for the nurse is to:

A

Ask the patient to rate the severity of pain on a scale of 1-10

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9
Q

The nurse is alert for sympathetic responses to pain such as:

A

Increase bp, increased pulse, and increased respiratory rate

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10
Q

To prevent DVT in the postop patient, the nurse plans to ensure the patient:

A

Ambulates frequently

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11
Q

The sensation of pain defined by the International Association for the Study of Pain as:

A

Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience

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12
Q

A nurse is assisting in the transfer of a postop patient from the post anesthesia care unit to the surgical nursing unit. To ensure safety of the patient the nurse would:

A

Put the side rails up after moving the patient from the stretcher to the bed

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13
Q

When the patient with sciatica seats himself in a chair, he gasps and complains of burning and shooting pain in his hip, the nurse assesses that this is________pain:

A

Neuropathic

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14
Q

The nurse assesses the patient’s limbs and position frequently after regional anesthesia because:

A

Pain is not perceived although motion is possible

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15
Q

To perform a nursing assessment correctly, the nurse must remember that pain perception involves several CNS processes such as:

A

Efferent pathways stimulate the spinal cord to recognize the location of pain

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16
Q

The nurse is notified when the patient, newly admitted with liver and gallbladder disease, complains of pain in the right middle back and asks for pain meds. As the basis for the assessment, the nurse uses knowledge of pain to determine that the patient:

A

Has referred pain sensations. The nurse should follow orders for administering pain medications

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17
Q

Two patients are hospitilized with the same diagnosis. One is 23 years old, with acute recent pain from an injury, and the other is 64 years old with pain of long-standing duration of several years. The difference in anticipated assessment is what?

A

Older patients with chronic pain usually report lower levels of pain much less severe than they really are

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18
Q

A postop patient is complaining of incisional pain. An order has been given for morphine every 4-6hours PRN. The first assessment by the nurse should be:

A

Determine when the patient last received pain medication

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19
Q

The postop patient with no previous medical conditions is difficult to arouse when transferred from surgical unit to postanesthesia unit. The nurse monitors the pulse ox and gets a reading of 85%, the nurse’s next action should be:

A

Arouse the patient, have him cough and encourage deep breathing

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20
Q

Gate-control theory of pain claims that pain is perceived as a stimulation of receptors in the:

A

Small nerve fibers

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21
Q

During the gathering of data, a patient reveals that he has a weight loss of 17lbs since the death of his spouse 5 weeks earlier. He has no appetite and is not sleeping. According to Maslow, the nurse assesses that the unmet needs are in the category of:

A

Physiologic

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22
Q

The patient returning from surgery complains of incisional pain that is now rated 7 on 1-10 scale. As a nurse, you know that pain is an example of:

A

Local adaptation syndrome

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23
Q

The large, heavy older adult patient after a stroke develops a decubitus on the sacrum during the hospital stay. 2 weeks later the patient returns to the hospital with PNA. The distinction between the two are:

A

Decubitus = Health-care associated infection PNA=community acquired infection

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24
Q

When an individual becomes frightened and experinece increased heart rate and mental activity along with increased blood flow to the skeletal muscles and dilated pupils, the person is experiencing an alarm reaction that helps the body defend against stressors. This alarm reaction is the:

A

Fight or flight response

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25
The patient on enteral feeding suddenly complains of feeling faint and is sweating. The DBP dropped 20 points. The nurse recognizes dumping syndrome, which is caused by:
Hypertonic fluid entering the jejunum and pulling large amounts of water from the circulating volume
26
Major advantage in using Maslow's Hierarchy when planning nursing care is to:
Prioritize patient care
27
Diagnosis of DKA, the nurse anticipates that the patient will exhibit VS of:
Temp: 97.4 Pulse 100 BPM Respirations 20/min and deep
28
DI classic symptoms:
Diuresis, tachycardia, and weakness
29
Sandostatin (Octreotide) for acromegaly will:
Suppress the growth hormone
30
Addison disease Hydrocortisone will:
Regulate the excretion of K+ and Na+
31
DKA results in:
Inability of carbs, fats, and protein to be metabolized
32
T3 and T4 tests for a patient complaining of fatigue, weight gain, muscle aches, pain, and constipation. These lab tests will confirm the DX of hypothyroidism when:
Both tests show decreases
33
Addisonian crisis can be brought on by:
Infection
34
Nephrogenic DI:
Does not respond to ADH
35
Chvostek sign:
Tap the face over the facial nerve, and watch for spasm of facial muscle
36
CHF has JVD, crackles bilaterally, and dyspnea. Diagnosis with highest priority would be:
Excess fluid volume
37
Patient's with arterial insufficiency should be instructed to:
Frequently allow the legs to dangle dependently
38
Burning aching pain in the legs when walking, symptoms relieved by rest. The nurse would suspect:
Claudication
39
Vasotec (ACE Inhibitor) what is a positive outcome:
Decreased BP
40
Age related change making them susceptible to cardiovascular disease:
Stiff peripheral vessels
41
Stasis dermatitis for a pt with PVD. This indicates the presence of:
Brownish discoloration on lower legs
42
Older persons adapt more slowly to changes in the peripheral vascular system because of:
Aorta thickening, decreasing cardiac output, stiffening of blood vessels, and slowing heart rate
43
TPN running 20 ml and is an hour behind schedule. The initial intervention would be:
Document the event and inform the charge nurse
44
Why can't a TPN be placed in the arm?
Subclavian artery allows for rapid dilution
45
While on TPN, include in the care plan
Assess I&O, monitor for hypo/hyperglycemia, assess temp
46
TPN feeding indicates hyperglycemia when what occurs:
Increase of urine output
47
Patient with intestinal obstruction has achieved normal hydration when:
Pulse and BP are within patient's norms, mucous membranes are moist, and fluid I&O are equal
48
In a patient with hepatitis, a dropping billirubin level indicates:
Liver function is improving
49
Assess acites on a daily basis by:
Measuring abdominal girth and daily weights
50
High ammonia level contributes to hepatic encephalopathy. As the level increases the implimentation that should be added to the care plan:
Seizure precautions
51
Pancreatitis highest priority:
Patient claims satisfaction with pain control
52
Pancrease should be administered:
Mixed with juice
53
Another chronic condition R/T pancreatitis:
DM
54
Lab report showing elevation that is diagnostic for acute pancreatitis is:
Serum Amylase
55
Permanant colostomy reports some abdominal discomfort and rigidity after 3 days post surgery. The assessment the nurse should report and record is:
VS are Temp 100F, Pulse 92, BP 160/98
56
Rectal suppositories for stomas:
NO
57
Monitor bilateral breath sounds and chest movement after a thoracentesis because:
The lung may have been punctured
58
Wheezing R/T Asthma:
Movement of air through narrowed airways
59
CPAP
Maintains a continuous pressure in the airway to avoid apnea
60
Major sources of infection for COPD patient:
Stasis of respiratory secretions
61
Combat anorexia in COPD by:
Perfoming oral hygiene before meals
62
Sign of R-sided heart failure is:
Decreasing urine output
63
To enhance the nutritional status of pt with COPD:
Offer small, frequent meals
64
Typical feature of CBC in pt with chronic bronchitis:
Increased RBC's
65
Normal Babinski reflex:
Downward curl of the toes
66
Positive Brudzinski:
Flex hips when the neck is flexed by the nurse, indication of meningitis
67
Cushing Triad associated with increased ICP:
Bradycardia, HTN, and widening pulse pressure
68
ALS uniquely prone to depression because:
Intellectual capacity is not affected
69
Homonymous hemianopsia, important items are visible and available on:
The affected side
70
Brown-Sequard syndrome results in which neurologic deficit?
Ipsilateral loss of motor function and contralateral loss of pain sensation and temp
71
DMARD Arave (Leflunomide)
Retard the progression of RA
72
Why are systemic glucocorticoids used as the last choice for TX of RA?
For short periods due to many side effects
73
Characteristic of RA:
Symmetrical bilateral joint swelling
74
A patient with gout should avoid seafood because
They are high in purine
75
Patients with gout should be alert for the signs of:
Kidney stones
76
Probenecid (Benemid) is prescribed to:
Increase the excretion of uric acid
77
Diagnostic test result for polymyositis is:
Muscle biopsy, positive for muscle degeneration
78
Patient with crushed forearm, swollen, cool and cyanotic with weak distal pulses:
Compartment syndrome
79
Risk for constipation R/T pelvic fracture:
Drink 2-3L of fluid per day
80
Pelvic fracture assessment that would cause the biggest concern:
No urinary output for 8 hours
81
Alendronate (Fosamax) requires the patient to:
Sit or stand for 30 minutes after administration
82
Teaching plan for teen with sickle cell anemia
Maintain adequate hydration
83
Sickle cell crisis occurs when sickle shaped RBC's:
Obstruct major arteries
84
Hydroxyurea
Produces a hemoglobin that will reduce sickling
85
Sickle Cell Anemia
Recessive trait, both parents are carriers
86
SLE, systemic lupus erythmatosus characteristic
Butterfly rash on face
87
Plan of care for HIV
Careful aeseptic technique to prevent infection
88
Increase in HIV in over 50 because
Usually not asked about sex or drug use, mistake S/S as normal aging, are less likely to seek HIV screening, and less likely to use condoms
89
HIV cannot have potted plants due to
Aspergilliosis
90
HIV observed in
Heterosexual partners of HIV infected person, newborns of HIV infected mom, health care workers that mishandle sharps,. breast-fed infants of HIV moms
91
Teaching plan for microsporidiosis in HIV patient:
Drink 3 quarts of fluid daily to combat dehydration
92
AIDS develops when:
CD4 cell level drops to 200
93
TTP having plasmapheresis daily alert for the indication of
Hypotension
94
Cutaneous Kaposi Sarcoma the nurse would report signs of
Abdominal pain
95
If ELISA positive
Another sample for testing
96
Acute glomerulonephritis, when can they become more active
When BP drops to normal
97
Acute glomerulonephritis is most usually caused by
Streptococcal infection
98
In acute glomerulonephritis, inflammation of the capillary loops in the glomeruli lead to
Moderate-to-high BP
99
AV fistula, the thrill is absent when palpating the venous side of the fistula the nurse should
Report to the charge nurse that the fistula is occluded
100
Chronic renal failure receiving dialysis is prone to injury because
Bone demineralization and peripheral neuropathy
101
Peritoneal dialysis is less expensive and has fewer dietary restrictions and...
Gives more independence and more closely resembles normal kidney function
102
Erythropoietin produced by the kidney. With a deficiency R/T chronic renal failure, will result in
Anemia as a result of diminished RBC'S being produced
103
Grey Turner sign
Retroperitoneal bleeding and bruising over the flank
104
Tzanck smear
Test for viral culture of herpetic lesions
105
In a burn patient with eschar formation around the entire arm, the nurse will frequently assess
Capillary refill
106
Primary Infertility
Been unable to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected sex
107
Semen analysis for infertility
Microscopically assess the sperm for number and motility
108
Trichomonas, the sexual partner
Even asymptomatic must be treated
109
Flagyl for Trichomonas
Avoid alcohol
110
Candida Albicans
Cottage-cheese like appearance
111
HPV and Genital warts association
Eventually develop cervical cancer
112
To avoid getting cervical cancer
Get regular pap smears
113
Flutamide (Eulexin) side effect for prostate cancer
Hot flashes
114
Antiviral drug used in HSV
Acyclovir (Zovirax)
115
Acyclovir (Zovirax) side effects
Dizziness, H/A, Nausea
116
Glaucoma patient treated with Timolol (Timoptic) should be monitored for
Wheezing
117
After enucleation when can a prosthesis be fitted
1 month or 4 weeks
118
Caloric test result indicating a hearing disorder in the labyrinth
Nystagmus
119
Meniere Disease patient should
Avoid the use of alcohol and tobacco
120
Teaching plan for frequent laryngitis
Observe voice rest
121
Most common cause of laryngitis
Respiratory infections and voice strain
122
Laryngectomy 3 months ago, patient complaint of increasing dyspnea, this is common complication of
Tracheal stenosis
123
Priority for patient after laryngectomy
Establish communication system
124
After supraglottic laryngectomy, major postop difficulty
Teaching pt to swallow without aspiration
125
Total laryngectomy to maintain airway clearance
Turn, cough, deep breath, semi-fowler position, trach collar, maintaining hydration
126
Rifampin for exposure to TB side effect
Body fluids become red-orange
127
Promethazine (Phenergan) for nausea, extra precautionary implementation due to common side effect
Put up side rails to prevent falls
128
HCTZ (HydroDIURIL) for HTN, dietary teaching
Increase intake of bananas
129
Propranolol (Inderal) teaching
Never stop abruptly taking the drug
130
COPD and Asthma patients arent candidates for what antihypertensive drug
Beta Blockers, Propranolol
131
Patient taking antihypertensive therapy complains of fatigue and pulse of 54, this side effect is most likely cause by
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
132
Patient taking Furosemide (Lasix) for HTN, older patients at risk for
Hypokalemia
133
Patient taking Aldomet (Methyldopa) for HTN, severe H/A, blurred vision, BP 200/94 the nurse would suspect
Abrupt cessation of medication
134
TPA must be used within how long after CVA
3 Hours
135
Nimodipine every 4 hours for hemorrhagic stroke. Pulse is 82, the nurse should
Give the medication. In beta blockers hold drug is pulse is <60 apically