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Clinical Pathology > clin path 1st quiz > Flashcards

clin path 1st quiz Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 pre-analytical factors that may influence test results?

A

Fixed animal factors
transient animal factors - pregnancy, fear
clinician related - techniques.

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2
Q

What is an analytical factor that can influence results?

A

type of equipment, quality control

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3
Q

What are some post analytical factors that may influence results?

A

incorrect transcription
wrong reference ranges
interpretation errors

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4
Q

Which anticoagulant is the best to use for hematology such as morphology and CBC? What color is the tube?

A

EDTA

Purple

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5
Q

What anticoagulant should be used for clinical biochemistry? Color of tube?

A

Lithium Heparin

Green

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6
Q

What color tube has no anticoagulant?

A

red

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7
Q

What anticoagulant is used for coagulation tests? What color is the tube?

A

Na-Citrate

Blue

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8
Q

What anticoagulant is preferred for glucose estimation? Color of tube?

A

Fl-Oxalate

Grey

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9
Q

What gauge needle should be used for large animals? What time should the sample be collected?

A

18-20

in the morning

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10
Q

What vein should be used for big dogs and what gauge?

A

Cephalic

21-22

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11
Q

What vein should be used for small dogs and what gauge needle?

A

jugular

19-20

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12
Q

What gauge needle should be used in a cat?

A

21-24

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13
Q

What vein and what gauge needle should be used for pigs?

A

Anterior vena cava

18-19

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14
Q

How long are blood and fluids stable at room temperature? What about at 4C in a fridge?

A

RT- 24 hours

Fridge - 2-3 days

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15
Q

What must be done before blood samples are stored for biochemistry later on?

A

plasma must be seperated

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16
Q

What kind of blood samples must be processed within 30 minutes?

A

ammonia, acid-base (bilirubin)

and if lithium heparin was used to anticoag

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17
Q

What can in vitro hemolysis change in the blood analysis?

A

decreased RBC and PCV values

inaccurate MCHC

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18
Q

Turbidity from in vitro hemolysis can interfere with what kind of tests?

A

colorimetric and spectrophotometric

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19
Q

What analytes may increase as a result of in vitro hemolysis?

A

postassium
inorganic phosphates
enzymes

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20
Q

What kind of tubes should body fluids be split into?

A

EDTA - preserve morphology

Sterilin tubes - permit culture

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21
Q

What body fluid must be analyzed immediately?

A

CSF

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22
Q

What is the definition of accuracy in laboratory assays?

A

closeness of measured value and true value

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23
Q

What is the defintion of precision in laboratory assays?

A

gives same result over and over

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24
Q

What is the definition of reliability in laboratory assays?

A

ability to be accurate and precise

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25
Q

How is positive predictive value calculated and what does it mean?

A

TP/FP+TP

suggests presence of dz in population of animals

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26
Q

How is negative predictive value calculated and what does it mean?

A

TN/TN+FN

suggests absence of dz in population

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27
Q

What happens to the PPV and NPV if the prevalence of a disease drops?

A

PPV decreases

NPV increases

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28
Q

What are sinusoids in bone marrow?

A

thin walled capillaries

reticular cells on outside where hematopoeisis occurs

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29
Q

What system is present in BM, spleen, and liver and facilitates hematopoiesis by removing aged RBCs?

A

mononuclear phagocytic system (MPS)

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30
Q

What organs are places besides BM, spleen and liver is the MPS found?

A

CNS (microglia)

lungs (alveolar macrophages)

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31
Q

What organs does hematopoiesis occur after birth?

A

Liver, spleen and bone marrow, then becomes restricted to bone marrow

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32
Q

What three things(hormones/molecules) are involved in regulating hematopoesis?

A

erythropoietin (EPO)
thrombopoietin (TPO)
colony stimulation factors (CSF)

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33
Q

What two types of cells make up the majority in the bone marrow?

A

myeloid (granulocytic) and erythroid precursors

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34
Q

What is the lifespan of cat RBCs?

A

70 days

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35
Q

Where can extramedullary hematopoisesis take place?

A

spleen and liver

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36
Q

What “activities” do neutrophils possess?

A

phagocytic and bacteriocidal

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37
Q

What “activities” do eosinophils (and basophils) possess?

A

parasiticidal and allergic

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38
Q

How long does it take for a myelocyte to become a neutro, eosin or basophil?

A

7 days

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39
Q

What makes up myeloid precursors?

A

granulocytes and monocytoid precursors

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40
Q

Which WBC can re-enter the blood stream directly?

A

lymphocytes

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41
Q

What ways may reversible bone marrow abnormalities manifest themselves? (3)

A

neutropenia (b/c of life span)
non-regenerative anemia
thrombocytopenia

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42
Q

What ways may irreversible bone marrow be manifested?

A

cytopenia or unregulated proliferation (neoplasia)

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43
Q

What may be the causes of atrophy of the bone marrow?

A

toxins, neoplasia, virus or protozoal infection or idiopathic

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44
Q

Which irreversible bone marrow abnormality is non-selective?

A

atrophy of bone marrow

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45
Q

Which irreversible bone marrow abnormality is selective?

A

hyperplasia of bone marrow

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46
Q

What are the causes of hyperplasia of bone marrow?

A

inflammation, acute blood loss, hemolysis

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47
Q

Which syndrome is where one or more stem cells have maturation defects?

A

myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)

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48
Q

What effect does myelodysplastic syndrome have on the blood?

A

cytopenias of the affected cell line

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49
Q

What conditions does selective MDS (myelodysplastic syndrome) lead to?

A

non-regenerative anemia
leukopenia
thrombocytopenia

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50
Q

What does non-selective MDS lead to?

A

aplastic pancytopenia

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51
Q

What is it called when normal hematopoietic tissue in bone marrow is replaced by abnormal tissue usually fibrous or malignant?

A

myelopththisis

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52
Q

What disease is cancer of the bone marrow stem cells?

A

Myeloproliferative disease (MDS)

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53
Q

How is MDS(maturation defect) different than acute MPD(cancer)?

A

blast cell percentage in bone marrow is less than 30% in MDS

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54
Q

How is MDS different than chronic MPD?

A

MDS will have leukopenia

55
Q

Which species is susceptible to MDS?

A

cats

56
Q

What characterizes MPD (cancer) in the bone marrow?

A

hypercellular bone marrow (one cell type)

distorted maturation sequence

57
Q

How is acute leukemia characterized?

A

presence of more than 30% blast cells in marrow

short survival time (of animal)

58
Q

What characterizes chronic leukemia?

A

high number of mature cells in blood and bone marrow

long survival time (of animal)

59
Q

Which dog breed takes 3 days to clear blood of lipids?

A

mini schnauzer

60
Q

Low PCV + low protein =

A

hemorrhagic anemia

61
Q

Low PCV + normal protein =

A

hemolytic anemia

62
Q

Low PCV + high protein =

A

inflammatory anemia (dyshemopoiesis)

63
Q

high PCV + high protein =

A

dehydration (high albumin confirms)

64
Q

normal pcv + low protein =

A

reduced protein production (liver dz)

increased protein loss

65
Q

long pink buffy coat means what?

A

RBC regeneration (nucleated rbcs)

66
Q

What may cause horse plasma to be yellow besides jaundice?

A

anorexia or illness

67
Q

MCV is within reference intervals means?

A

normocytic

68
Q

MCV is above RI means?

A

macrocytic

69
Q

MCV is below RI means?

A

microcytic - iron deficiency anemia

70
Q

MCHC below RI means?

A

Hypochromic - immature RBCs

71
Q

MCHC above RI means?

A

Hyperchromic - artefactual

72
Q

Which RBC indices is the least accurate?

A

MCH

73
Q

How do you calculate MCV?

A

MCV = PCV*10/RBC in femtoliters

74
Q

How do you calculate MCHC?

A

MCHC = Hb*100/PCV (%)

75
Q

What type of anemia always stays normocytic and normochromic?

A

anemia from low RBC production (dyshemopoiesis)

76
Q

When do you see immature RBCs after hemorrhage or hemolysis?

A

72 hours

77
Q

What types of anemia are microcytic and hypochromic?

A

prolonged small losses of blood, no iron, regeneration poor

78
Q

What error in RBC indices may occur if there is inadequate centrifugation?

A

artificially elevated PCV and lower MCHC

79
Q

What technique measures reticultocytes more accurately?

A

flow cytometry

80
Q

What % of reticulocytes indicates RBC regeneration in ORP?

A

greater than 3%

81
Q

What % for RBC regeneration using CRP (corrected reticulocyte percentage?

A

greater than 1%

82
Q

What stains are used to stain RNA and identify reticulocytes, intracellular blood parasites and heinz bodies?

A

new methylene blue

83
Q

What stain is is used for mast cells?

A

Toludine blue

84
Q

What stain is used for iron storage?

A

prussian

85
Q

What stain is used for fungal hypae and spores?

A

periodic acid schiff (PAS)

86
Q

What species is rouleaux formation normal?

A

horses, dogs, cats

87
Q

What conditions are considered if there is agglutination of RBCs in a smear?

A

inflammatory dz, toxemia, immune mediated anemia

88
Q

Which species have normal anisocytosis?

A

ruminants

89
Q

What term is used when RBCs stain blue?

A

polychromasia (RNA from immature RBC)

90
Q

What does hypochromasia indicate?

A

iron deficiency anemia

91
Q

What conditions increase holly jolly bodies?

A

regenerative anemias and splenectomized animals

92
Q

What are holly jolly bodies made of?

A

DNA remnants of nucleus

93
Q

What conditions/species have basophilic stippling in their RBCs?

A

RBC regeneration especially ruminants

94
Q

What is the term used for abnormally shaped RBCs above 30%?

A

poikilocytosis

95
Q

What species has type 1 echinocytes?

A

ruminants

96
Q

What are type 2 echinocytes associated with?

A

toxemia, electrolyte imbalance, snake bites, glomerularnephritis

97
Q

What is the term used for RBCs with a few blunt irregularly spaced projections?

A

acanthocytes

98
Q

What condition makes acanthocytes occur?

A

cholesterol/phospholipid ratio is altered on RBCs membrane

99
Q

What is the term used for RBCs that are small, dense and without central pallor?

A

spherocytes

100
Q

What term is used for RBCs that are thin with an increased membrane to volume ratio?

A

leptocytes (codocytes) - target cells

101
Q

What conditions are leptocytes usually seen?

A

toxemias

iron deficiency anemia

102
Q

What are heinz bodies?

A

denatured clumps of precipitated hemoglobin

103
Q

What can high amounts of heinz bodies transform a RBC into after removal?

A

spherocyte

104
Q

What do avian blood smears have with a routine blood stain?

A

polychromasia

105
Q

What do avian blood smears have with new methylene blue stain?

A

up to 5% reticulocytosis

106
Q

What kind of reticulocytes do cats have?

A

punctate and aggregate reticulocytes

107
Q

What term is used for an increase in all blood cells above RI?

A

polycythemia

108
Q

What term is used for RBCs above RI?

A

erythrocytosis

109
Q

What chronic diseases cause absolute pathological erythrocytosis?

A

chronic lung or heart disease

110
Q

What type of erythrocytosis is associated with a myeloproliferative tumor(MPD)/erythrocytic sarcoma?

A

absolute, pathological and primary

111
Q

What do dogs show during erythrocytic sarcoma?

A

erythrocytosis in absence of dehydration, lung/heart dz, kidney disorder or high EPO. Also lots of immature RBCs in absence of anemia

112
Q

What do cats show that have erythrocytic sarcoma?

A

non-regenerative anemia, severe, immature RBCs, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly

113
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms that lead to true anemia?

A

hemorrhage
hemolysis
dyshemopoiesis

114
Q

What clinical signs are present when there is a sudden rapid loss of blood?

A

collapse, hemorrhagic shock or heart failure

115
Q

What is pure red cell aplasia?

A

dyshemopoietic anemia effecting only RBC precursors

116
Q

What is aplastic pancytopenia?

A

non-selective simultaneous destruction of all stem cells in bone marrow

117
Q

What are the 2 types of primary dyshemopoietic anemia?

A

pure red cell aplasia

aplastic pancytopenia

118
Q

What pathologies cause secondary dyshemopoiesis?

A

inflammation, infection, endocrine disorders, neoplasia

119
Q

What is the most common mechanism of non regenerative anemia?

A

anemia of inflammatory disease (AID) - body sequesters iron in response to inflammation

120
Q

What is a classic example of AID in small animals?

A

chronic renal failure –> low EPO

121
Q

What is the main difference between primary and secondary dyshemopoiesis

A

primary - bone marrow failure

secondary - iron sequestration

122
Q

Which drug toxicity in particular can lead to reversible bone marrow abnormality?

A

estrogen

123
Q

What does suffix -penia mean?

A

decrease/deficiency

124
Q

What is monocytopoiesis regulated by?

A

granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)

125
Q

What is granulopoiesis regulated by?

A

G-CSF

126
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

erythrocyte fragments with sharp extremities when there is turbulent blood flow

127
Q

What are blast cells?

A

very big, high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, pale nucleui, one to several nucleoli and blue cytoplasm

128
Q

What does the prefix -cytosis mean?

A

increase in those cells

129
Q

Where does hemopoiesis occur in adult animals?

A

flat bones and epiphysis of long bones

130
Q

What indicates RBC regeneration in horse?

A

mild macrocytic

131
Q

Band cells are precursors of what 3 cells?

A

neutro, eosinophil, and basophil

132
Q

Monocytes are precursors of what cell?

A

macrophage

133
Q

What are the 3 primary RBC tests for an erythrogram?

A

PCV, Hb, and RBC count

134
Q

What are specific diseases that indicate a CBC should be done?

A

babesiosis
heartworm
leukemia

Clinical Pathology (7 decks)

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